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Quantitative Risk Analysis Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 138

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The expected scenario is the one where

a)

The values of the variables are considered to have the highest probability of occurrence

b)

All variables take the value with the highest probability of occurrence

c)

All variables take the maximum value

d)

All variables take the minimum value

2.

The pessimistic scenario is the one where

a)

All variables take the maximum value

b)

All variables take values in a state unfavorable to the project

c)

All variables take the minimum value

d)

All variables take values in a state favorable to the project

3.

The worst-case scenario is the one where

a)

All variables take the maximum value

b)

All variables take values that make the project outcome the highest

c)

All variables take the minimum value

d)

All variables take values that make the project outcome the lowest

4.

The output result of each simulation analysis run is

a)

The results of the simulation runs are the same

b)

They differ, and the deviation of the results is inversely related to the number of calculations declared

c)

They differ, and the deviation of the results is not related to the number of calculations declared

d)

They differ, and the deviation of the results is positively related to the number of calculations declared

5.

Which quantitative risk analysis technique identifies the main variables of the project

a)

All of the above are incorrect

b)

Scenario analysis

c)

Decision tree analysis

d)

Simulation analysis

6.

When analyzing risk using simulation, if the output variable is IRR and errors occur during simulation, the reason is

a)

Due to unreasonable declaration of probability distribution of input variables

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

The method of estimating project cash flows is unreasonable

d)

There are cash flows for which IRR cannot be calculated

7.

The key variables of the project are

a)

All of the above are incorrect

b)

Variables that, when changed, significantly affect the project result

c)

Variables that, when changed, insignificantly affect the project result

d)

Variables that, when changed, do not affect the project result

8.

When analyzing risk using simulation, the result of the first run with 10,000 trials gives the probability of NPV ≥ 0 as 80%. The result of the second run with 10,000 trials gives the probability of NPV ≥ 0 as 75%. The difference exists because

a)

In each trial, variables are assigned a different distribution

b)

In each trial, variables are assigned a different value

c)

The project’s cash flow calculation method is incorrect

d)

The simulation operation is incorrect

9.

Which quantitative risk analysis technique shows the sensitivity of project performance to the project’s key variables

a)

Decision tree analysis

b)

Simulation analysis

c)

All of the above are incorrect

d)

Scenario analysis

10.

Which quantitative risk analysis technique shows the probability of NPV > 0

a)

Scenario analysis

b)

Decision tree model

c)

Simulation analysis

d)

Sensitivity analysis

11.

When assessing risk using Monte Carlo simulation

a)

It is not necessary to declare the probability distribution for all variables

b)

Only non-key variables need probability distribution declaration

c)

All project variables must be declared with a probability distribution

d)

Only key risk variables must be declared with a probability distribution

12.

The best-case scenario is the one where

a)

All variables take values that make the project outcome the highest

b)

All variables take the minimum value

c)

All variables take values that make the project outcome the lowest

d)

All variables take the maximum value

13.

Which quantitative risk analysis technique examines the correlation of input variables

a)

One-way sensitivity analysis

b)

Decision tree model

c)

Simulation analysis

d)

Two-way sensitivity analysis

14.

The data used in sensitivity analysis is

a)

Data expressed according to the analyst’s subjective opinion

b)

Historical data of the variable and the analyst’s subjective opinion

c)

Forecast data

d)

Historical data of the variable

15.

Which quantitative risk analysis technique shows the direction of change in project results when an input variable changes

a)

Probability analysis

b)

Sensitivity analysis

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Scenario analysis

16.

The optimistic scenario is the one where

a)

All variables take the maximum value

b)

All variables take values in a state unfavorable to the project

c)

All variables take values in a state favorable to the project

d)

All variables take the minimum value

17.

When analyzing risk using simulation, the deviation of the output variable between two runs with 1,000 trials and with 100,000 trials is

a)

The deviation with 1,000 trials will be larger

b)

The two deviations are equal

c)

It cannot be determined

d)

The deviation with 1,000 trials will be smaller

18.

If using scenario analysis, identify the case in which the project will be selected

a)

NPV > 0 in any scenario

b)

NPV > 0 in the expected scenario

c)

NPV > 0 in the worst-case scenario

d)

NPV > 0 in the best-case scenario

19.

The correlation of variables can be considered in the analysis method of

a)

Two-way sensitivity

b)

One-way sensitivity

c)

Scenario analysis

d)

All of the above are correct

20.

One-way sensitivity analysis is the technique of analyzing the change of

a)

A single input variable on the project outcome

b)

All of the above are incorrect

c)

Each input variable on the project outcome

d)

Multiple input variables simultaneously on the project outcome

21.

Two-way sensitivity analysis will give

a)

One result about the project performance

b)

Two results about the project performance

c)

The number of project performance results depending on the appraiser’s needs

d)

All of the above are incorrect

22.

The simulation analysis technique belongs to which type of analysis method

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

Deterministic model

c)

Certain model

d)

Probabilistic model

23.

In simulation analysis, the values of variables are assigned

a)

Each time, a different value

b)

Once only according to the variable’s probability distribution

c)

All of the above are incorrect

d)

Each time, the same value

24.

Scenario analysis is a technique that analyzes project results when considering the change of

a)

One input variable

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Two input variables

d)

A set of input variables

25.

Which quantitative risk analysis technique considers and processes input variables according to a probability distribution function

a)

Simulation analysis

b)

Scenario analysis

c)

Decision tree model

d)

Sensitivity analysis

26.

Which quantitative risk analysis technique does not allow the consideration of correlations between input variables

a)

Two-way sensitivity analysis

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

One-way sensitivity analysis

d)

Decision tree analysis

27.

In each scenario, the maximum number of variables analyzed is

a)

Equal to the number of input variables declared in the parameters

b)

Two variables

c)

Depending on the analyst’s subjective opinion

d)

Three variables

28.

Scenario analysis divides the variation of key risk variables

a)

According to different probability distributions and finds project results

b)

Into groups with the same directional impact on performance and finds results when each group changes

c)

According to different time milestones and finds project results

d)

Into different scenarios and finds the corresponding results

29.

One-way sensitivity analysis aims to identify

a)

The set of output variables important to project results

b)

The output variable important to project results

c)

The input variable important to project results

d)

The set of input variables important to project results

30.

If using scenario analysis, identify the case in which the project will be rejected

a)

Worst-case scenario NPV = -200

b)

Good scenario NPV = 100

c)

Expected scenario NPV = 100

d)

Best-case scenario NPV = -300

31.

Sensitivity analysis belongs to which type of analysis method

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

Deterministic model

c)

Uncertain mode

d)

Probabilistic model

32.

The method where the analyst subjectively assigns specific values to each input variable and finds the output from a pre-calculated financial model is

a)

Uncertain model

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Probabilistic model

d)

Deterministic model

33.

Sensitivity analysis is a technique based on the assumption that

a)

All input parameters change and the resulting change of output parameters is found

b)

More than two input parameters change and the resulting change of output parameters is found

c)

One input parameter changes and the resulting change of output parameters is found

d)

One or two input parameters change to find the resulting change of output parameters

34.

The purpose of quantitative risk analysis of a project is

a)

To assess the feasibility of the project based on the change of input factors

b)

To evaluate sensitive variables affecting project results

c)

To propose contingency plans for the project against possible risks

d)

All of the above are correct

35.

Scenario analysis belongs to which type of analysis method

a)

Deterministic model

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Uncertain model

d)

Probabilistic model

36.

How many scenarios can an analyst create when analyzing project risk

a)

Two scenarios

b)

Unlimited number of scenarios

c)

Three scenarios

d)

Only one scenario

37.

Which risk analysis technique can help us identify the probability distribution of the project outcome variable

a)

Case analysis

b)

Simulation analysis

c)

One-way sensitivity analysis

d)

Two-way sensitivity analysis

38.

The optimal number of calculations performed in simulation analysis is

a)

1,000,000 times

b)

10,000 times

c)

100,000 times

d)

Unlimited

39.

Two-way sensitivity analysis is the technique of analyzing the change of

a)

All of the above are incorrect

b)

Maximum two input variables

c)

Minimum two input variables

d)

Two input variables at the same time

40.

Private investment projects are aimed at the objective of

a)

Economic benefits

b)

Financial benefits

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Social benefits

41.

A project aimed at improving and enhancing the quality of products, goods, or services is

a)

Expansion investment project

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Intensive investment project

d)

Independent investment project

42.

Project liquidation is carried out in which case

a)

The investor is forced to terminate operations

b)

The investor goes bankrupt

c)

The investment project has reached the end of its lifespan

d)

All of the above are correct

43.

A project is considered feasible when

a)

The project can be implemented

b)

The project must bring financial and/or socio-economic efficiency

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

The project must fully comply with legal regulations

44.

Which of the following is a characteristic of an investment project

a)

It must describe the uniqueness of the project’s product

b)

It must identify the necessary human resources for the project

c)

It must identify potential risks that may occur

d)

All of the above are correct

45.

Economic analysis is the analysis of

a)

The project’s contribution to economic growth

b)

The ability to meet the basic needs of the economy

c)

The distribution of income in the economy

d)

All of the above are correct

46.

Technical analysis is the analysis of the aspect of

a)

Construction and equipment installation of the project

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Environmental impacts of the project

d)

Materials and inputs of the project

47.

Which of the following is a capital use requirement of the project

a)

Dividend distribution

b)

Financial investment

c)

Investment in other enterprises

d)

Debt repayment

48.

An investment project is usually implemented within a period of

a)

Indeterminate end time

b)

It can be short or relatively long

c)

Short

d)

Relatively long

49.

Choose the correct statement

a)

All projects, regardless of investment scale, only require one step of feasibility study

b)

Depending on the scale and nature of the project, the competent authority may decide to conduct one-step feasibility study or two-step pre-feasibility and feasibility study

c)

All projects, regardless of scale, must undergo two steps of pre-feasibility and feasibility study

d)

Large-scale projects require two steps, while smaller-scale projects only require one step

50.

Which of the following statements is correct

a)

The definition of a project does not mention investment scale

b)

The total investment capital of a project is usually very large

c)

The investment scale of a project is usually not determined in advance

d)

None of the above is correct

51.

The objective of project implementation must be identified in which stage of the project cycle

a)

Investment opportunity study

b)

Pre-feasibility study

c)

Feasibility study

d)

Project implementation

52.

Financial analysis of a project is the analysis of the financial efficiency for

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

Shareholders

c)

Banks

d)

Investors

53.

Market analysis is the analysis of

a)

Labor market

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Input product market of the project

d)

Output product market of the project

54.

Which of the following activities is a project investment activity

a)

Has a start and end date

b)

Performed only once

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Creates a specific product

55.

Project implementation includes the work of

a)

Project operation

b)

Design and construction

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Project preparation

56.

The initial investment capital of the project may take the form of

a)

Financial assets, tangible assets, and intangible assets

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Cash capital and loans

d)

Fixed capital and working capital

57.

The project analysis framework includes the aspects of

a)

Market - technical - human resources - finance - economy

b)

Market - technical - human resources

c)

Market - technical - human resources - finance

d)

Market - technical - human resources - finance - economy - society

58.

Which of the following statements indicates two independent projects

a)

Accepting one project means having to forgo another project

b)

Accepting or rejecting one project leads to accepting or rejecting another project

c)

Accepting or rejecting one project does not affect the other

d)

None of the statements indicates two independent projects

59.

The objective of a project can be

a)

Improving product quality

b)

Modernizing production lines

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Expanding market share

60.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct

a)

Investment project appraisal helps investors reduce mistakes in decision-making

b)

Investment project appraisal helps investors determine the capital structure of the project

c)

Investment project appraisal helps investors control risks

d)

Investment project appraisal helps investors make investment decisions to achieve maximum profit

61.

For private investment projects, the basis for the competent state agency to grant licenses, permits, or support and incentives is

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

Financial analysis

c)

Market analysis

d)

Technical analysis

62.

The reason a company may terminate a current project and start a new replacement project is

a)

The company's investment strategy has changed

b)

The new project has a higher return than the previous one

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Consumer preferences have changed

63.

For public investment projects, the basis for the government to decide investment is

a)

Financial efficiency

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Economic and social efficiency

d)

Feasibility in terms of market, technology, and management

64.

A project is considered feasible when it

a)

Must be feasible from all appraisal perspectives

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Must ensure legality, scientific basis, and practicality

d)

Must be feasible in all research aspects

65.

For a project to be implementable, it must achieve efficiency in terms of

a)

Economic

b)

Financial

c)

Social

d)

All of the above aspects

66.

When deciding whether to invest in a project under consideration, what mistake do investors often make

a)

Accepting a bad project and rejecting a good one

b)

Overlooking a project within the investor's financial capacity

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Accepting a project beyond the investor’s financial capacity

67.

At which stage of the project cycle does the investor participate in the appraisal

a)

Operation stage

b)

Feasibility study

c)

Pre-feasibility study

d)

All stages of the project cycle

68.

A project can be appraised from which perspectives

a)

Social

b)

Financial

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Economic

69.

Re-examining financial, economic, and social criteria is conducted at which appraisal stage

a)

Detailed design

b)

Pre-feasibility study

c)

Feasibility study

d)

Project operation

70.

What measures should the government take when a project is not financially effective for the investor but benefits the economy

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

Tax reduction

c)

Providing investment incentives

d)

Subsidies

71.

The role of project appraisal is

a)

To save resources of the economy

b)

To avoid implementing inefficient projects while not missing valuable investment opportunities

c)

To perform audit and inspection functions throughout the project's life

d)

All of the above are correct

72.

Which price is used in financial analysis or appraisal of a project

a)

Shadow price

b)

Market price

c)

Actual price

d)

Economic price

73.

Biased estimates that reduce the project's benefits while overestimating costs are made at which appraisal stage

a)

Investment opportunity study

b)

Feasibility study

c)

Pre-feasibility study

d)

Project operation

74.

What measures should the government take when a project is financially effective for the investor but does not benefit the economy

a)

Subsidies

b)

Remove price ceiling regulations

c)

Increase taxes

d)

All of the above are correct

75.

Investors, banks, and shareholders appraise a project from which perspective

a)

Income distribution

b)

Basic needs

c)

Economic

d)

Financial

76.

What measures should the government take when a project is neither financially effective for the investor nor beneficial for the economy

a)

Tax reduction

b)

Set price ceiling regulations

c)

No subsidies

d)

The government does not need to take any measures

77.

Increasing the accuracy of the project's key variables is performed at which appraisal stage

a)

Investment opportunity study

b)

Project operation

c)

Pre-feasibility study

d)

Feasibility study

78.

Government agencies appraise a project from which perspective

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

Income distribution

c)

Economic

d)

Basic needs

79.

Choose the correct statement

a)

The content of project appraisal is based on each research and analysis content of the project

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Appraising the market, technology, human resources, and project management as the basis for financial appraisal

d)

Project appraisal aims to clarify feasibility in all relevant aspects

80.

Industry analysis includes

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

Industry life cycle

c)

Key success factors

d)

Opportunities and level of competition

81.

Appraising the competitiveness of the project's products in terms of

a)

Product design

b)

Product quality

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Product price

82.

When appraising the competitiveness of the project in terms of price, the appraiser should compare the expected selling price of the product with

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

Wholesale price if the project sells through distribution system

c)

Retail price on the market if the project sells directly to consumers

d)

Import price if the project substitutes imported goods

83.

The marketing strategy of the project is developed based on

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

Potential market

c)

Human and financial resources

d)

The project's production program

84.

Competitor analysis includes

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

What are the competitors' weaknesses

c)

What are the strongest possible reactions from competitors

d)

What plans or actions competitors intend to take

85.

The marketing strategy of the project includes

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

After-sales services

c)

Delivery methods

d)

Sales methods

86.

The marketing strategy of the project is developed in order to

a)

Save sales costs

b)

Attract users' attention to the project's products

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Achieve the project's objectives

87.

Customer analysis in market analysis must answer the question

a)

Who makes the purchase decision and who participates in the decision

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Why do customers buy that product

d)

Which products customers buy on the market

88.

The project's target market can be

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

Domestic market

c)

Export market

d)

Market for import-substitute goods

89.

Appraising the current supply and demand situation of the project's products in the market will help the appraiser know

a)

The project's target market

b)

The project's market share potential

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Market capacity

90.

One of the contents of market appraisal is

a)

Customers and market segmentation

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Competitors

d)

The project's target market

91.

Forecasting the project's sales volume or revenue is based on

a)

Market demand

b)

Plant capacity

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Marketing strategy

92.

Customers in market analysis include

a)

Customers buying project products

b)

Customers buying substitute products

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Customers buying competing products

93.

Market appraisal is the basis for choosing

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

Production plan

c)

Investment scale

d)

Technology equipment and project location

94.

The project can distribute goods through

a)

All of the above forms

b)

Retailers

c)

Wholesalers

d)

Directly to consumers

95.

Forecasting the supply volume of the project's products on the market is based on

a)

Industry analysis reports of professional organizations

b)

Statistics from ministries

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Reports from associations

96.

Market segmentation is based on

a)

Distinct customer behavior

b)

The project's business strategy

c)

The project's marketing strategy

d)

All of the above are correct

97.

When appraising the competitiveness of the project's products in the export market, the appraiser must consider

a)

Standards of importing countries

b)

Whether quotas or technical barriers are imposed

c)

Competitors in the intended export market

d)

All of the above are correct

98.

Market segmentation must meet the requirement

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

Segments must be clearly different from each other

c)

Segment size must be large enough

d)

Customer behavior in the segment should be as similar as possible

99.

Market appraisal is carried out

a)

Before the technical aspect

b)

After the management and human resource aspect

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

After the financial aspect

100.

Packaging costs depend on

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

The project's product policy

c)

Means of transporting products

d)

Requirements for finished product preservation

101.

Which of the following products are considered project inputs

a)

Packaging

b)

Chemicals

c)

Additives

d)

All of the above are correct

102.

When appraising input factors for the project, the appraiser must identify risks that the project may face in purchasing these inputs. Such risks include

a)

Changes in the project's marketing strategy for the target market

b)

The labor market not meeting the project's demand

c)

Too many input suppliers for the project

d)

Unreliable estimation of raw material demand for production

103.

Raw materials and input utilities for the project may include

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

Electricity, water, transport, and telecommunications

c)

Fuel and packaging

d)

Maintenance and repair

104.

If there is a change in raw materials in the project design but the quality is equivalent to the initially selected materials, this will affect

a)

Project implementation schedule

b)

Market feasibility of the project

c)

Technology selection of the project

d)

Labor wages of the project

105.

The project's input material needs are determined based on

a)

The project's production capacity

b)

The project's location

c)

The project's technology choice

d)

All of the above are correct

106.

A project that uses a lot of water must be carefully analyzed for

a)

Water source quality

b)

Water demand for production and living

c)

Wastewater treatment costs

d)

All of the above are correct

107.

Spare parts must be identified in terms of

a)

List of necessary spare parts

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Required quantity

d)

Available suppliers

108.

Technical appraisal is carried out

a)

Before the market aspect

b)

Before the management and human resources aspect

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

After the financial aspect

109.

When using large quantities of solid and liquid fuels, the most important concern is

a)

Environmental protection technology

b)

Fuel demand

c)

Fuel supply sources

d)

Fuel costs

110.

The appraiser must consider the suitability of raw materials with

a)

The plant's expected production capacity

b)

Labor qualifications

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Local cultural customs

111.

Appraising production input materials provides the basis for

a)

Selection of machinery, equipment, and technology

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Organizing the production apparatus

d)

Forecasting demand for output products

112.

A mining project must be evaluated in detail for

a)

Geographical location

b)

Ore quality

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Mine reserves

113.

Minimizing the risk of raw material supply can be done by

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

Diversifying suppliers

c)

Building long-term relationships and signing long-term supply contracts with suppliers

d)

Selecting technology that can use multiple raw material sources

114.

The requirement for appraising technology and project input factors is to collect information on

a)

Technical and technological resources used in the project

b)

Land-use planning and plans

c)

Production norms of project products

d)

All of the above are correct

115.

To select appropriate technology, the appraiser must consider

a)

Future technology trends

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Requirements of raw materials and impacts on ecology and environment

d)

Socio-economic conditions and the economy’s capacity to absorb technology

116.

Necessary utilities can only be determined

a)

After selecting the location and technology equipment of the project

b)

Before selecting the location and technology equipment of the project

c)

Not related to location and technology equipment selection

d)

All of the above are correct

117.

One of the contents of technical appraisal is

a)

Appraising technology equipment and project location

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Appraising environmental impacts of the project

d)

Appraising raw materials and input utilities

118.

Data on livestock and forestry raw materials are collected from

a)

Local authorities

b)

Livestock associations

c)

The Ministry of Agriculture

d)

All of the above are correct

119.

When appraising project input materials, the appraiser must consider

a)

Raw material quality

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Raw material sources and supply capacity

d)

Raw material prices

120.

The objective of preparing intermediate calculation tables in the process of project cash flow planning is to

a)

Establish the project's cash flow

b)

Estimate the project's working capital

c)

Assess the project's debt repayment ability

d)

Calculate annual income tax

121.

Consider the following items: i/ Project preparation costs; ii/ Workers’ wages during production; iii/ Depreciation expenses; iv/ Cash inflows from sales; v/ Project construction costs. Which of these items are NOT recorded in the project’s cash inflows and outflows

a)

i, iii

b)

i, ii, iii, v

c)

ii, iii, v

d)

iii, iv, v

122.

The timing of project cash flows is

a)

Beginning of the period

b)

End of the period

c)

Any time during the period

d)

All of the above are incorrect

123.

Why should the project cash flow be divided at the completion of construction

a)

To facilitate the identification of annual cash inflows and outflows

b)

To separate investment cash flow and operating cash flow

c)

Both A and B are correct

d)

Both A and B are incorrect

124.

The purpose of cash flow planning is to determine

a)

Identify funding needs and financing sources for the project

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

The project's debt repayment ability and payback period

d)

The project's financial efficiency

125.

Characteristics of project cash flow include

a)

Shows the actual cash held or deficit faced by project investors

b)

Ignores timing of cash inflows

c)

Excludes investment outflows

d)

Is based solely on accounting profit

126.

If EBIT is earnings before interest and tax; NOPAT is net operating profit after tax; EAT is earnings after tax; Dep is depreciation expenses; Int is interest expenses; TS is tax shield from borrowing; and ΔWC is change in working capital, which of the following formulas determines operating cash flow (without tax shield) from interest

a)

NOPAT + Dep - ΔWC

b)

EBIT*(1-t%) + Dep + TS + Int - ΔWC

c)

EAT + Dep + Int - ΔWC

d)

All of the above are incorrect

127.

Equity capital contribution to the project is recorded in which cash flow

a)

Financing cash flow

b)

Operating cash flow

c)

Investment cash flow

d)

All of the above are incorrect

128.

Liquidation of the project's fixed assets is included in

a)

All of the above are incorrect

b)

Operating cash flow

c)

Investment cash flow

d)

Financing cash flow

129.

The working capital requirement during the project's operating phase is the working capital requirement

a)

Average to maintain normal operations

b)

All of the above are correct

c)

Maximum to maintain normal operations

d)

Minimum to maintain normal operations

130.

The period of project cash flows is usually

a)

Day

b)

Month

c)

Year

d)

Quarter

131.

Cash flow from which perspective can be prepared by the direct method

a)

Net cash flow from the Equity perspective (EPV)

b)

Net cash flow from the Total Investment perspective (TIPV)

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Net cash flow from the All Equity perspective (AEPV)

132.

Cash flow from which perspective can be prepared by the indirect method

a)

Net cash flow from the All Equity perspective (AEPV)

b)

Net cash flow from the Equity perspective (EPV)

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Net cash flow from the Total Investment perspective (TIPV)

133.

Which of the following is a financial appraisal perspective

a)

All of the above are correct

b)

Equity perspective (EPV)

c)

All Equity perspective (AEPV)

d)

Total Investment perspective (TIPV)

134.

Incremental cash flow is understood as

a)

The investor's cash flow in the case of a replacement project compared to the case without replacement

b)

The investor's cash flow in the case of a new project compared to the case without a new project

c)

The investor's cash flow in the case of an expansion project compared to the case without expansion

d)

All of the above are correct

135.

The salvage value of workshops and equipment is determined based on

a)

Residual value at the end of the last operating year if market value cannot be determined

b)

Residual value at the beginning of the liquidation year if market value cannot be determined

c)

All of the above are correct

d)

Market value in the liquidation year as estimated by experts if market value can be determined

136.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct in project cash flow planning

a)

Includes impacts that increase or reduce cash flow of other projects

b)

Calculates incremental cash flow of the project

c)

Includes opportunity costs

d)

Includes sunk costs

137.

Characteristics of profit flow

a)

Accurately measures the project's debt repayment ability

b)

Actual profit earned by investors

c)

Nominal profit recorded in accounting books

d)

All of the above are correct

138.

If EBIT is earnings before interest and tax; NOPAT is net operating profit after tax; EAT is earnings after tax; Dep is depreciation expenses; Int is interest expenses; TS is tax shield from borrowing; and ΔWC is change in working capital, which of the following formulas determines operating cash flow (with tax shield) from interest

a)

EAT + Dep + Int - ΔWC

b)

NOPAT + Dep - ΔWC

c)

EBIT*(1-t%) + Dep + TS + Int - ΔWC

d)

All of the above are incorrect