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Nursing Olympics Questions

Total questions: 68

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A stab wound at the fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line, risks damaging which part of the heart?

a)

Right atrium

b)

Right ventricle

c)

Apex of the left ventricle

d)

Pulmonary trunk

2.

During an endoscopic exam, the doctor observes three bony projections in the lateral wall of the nasal cavity. What are these projections called?

a)

Conchae

b)

Septa

c)

Sinuses

d)

Turbinate ducts

3.

A patient with chronic neck pain is unable to flex and rotate the head properly. Which muscle is most likely involved?

a)

Trapezius

b)

Sternocleidomastoideus

c)

Masseter

d)

Deltoid

4.

A child is born with soft, flexible bones that gradually ossify directly from mesenchymal tissue without a cartilage model. Which type of ossification is occurring?

a)

Endochondral (cartilaginous)

b)

Intramembranous

c)

Secondary ossification

d)

Cancellous ossification

5.

A patient with liver disease has impaired detoxification. Which structure serves as the entry point for hepatic blood vessels and ducts?

a)

Porta hepatis

b)

Hepatic sinusoid

c)

Ligamentum teres

d)

Falciform ligament

6.

Where does glycolysis occur in the cell?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Cell membrane

7.

Which of the following conditions can lead to an increase in lactic acid production?

a)

High oxygen levels

b)

Low oxygen levels

c)

Low glucose levels

d)

High ATP levels

8.

How many ATP molecules are gained as a net result of glycolysis?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

9.

In Type 1 diabetes, lack of insulin primarily affects which metabolic process?

a)

Fatty acid synthesis

b)

Glycolysis

c)

Protein synthesis

d)

DNA replication

10.

Humans have how many total DNA molecules organized into chromosomes?

a)

23 pairs

b)

46 pairs

c)

23 chromosomes

d)

46 chromosomes

11.

Which component of Gram-negative bacteria is responsible for its toxicity?

a)

Peptidoglycan

b)

Lipoteichoic acid

c)

Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

d)

Teichoic acid

12.

Which of the following bacteria is commonly associated with improperly preserved canned foods and produces a neurotoxin?

a)

Clostridium botulinum

b)

Bacillus cereus

c)

Shigella spp.

d)

Salmonella typhi

13.

Which culture medium is used for growing most fungi and contains chloramphenicol to inhibit bacterial growth?

a)

Blood agar

b)

Sabouraud's dextrose agar

c)

MacConkey agar

d)

Mannitol salt agar

14.

Which type of microorganism requires oxygen but can also grow in its absence?

a)

Strict aerobe

b)

Strict anaerobe

c)

Facultative anaerobe

d)

Microaerophile

15.

What term refers to the growth of microorganisms in the blood or other tissues?

a)

Sepsis

b)

Asepsis

c)

Decontamination

d)

Sterilization

16.

What term refers to very low urine output?

a)

Anuria

b)

Polyuria

c)

Hematuria

d)

Glycosuria

17.

Which hormone regulates sodium and potassium levels to maintain fluid balance?

a)

Antidiuretic hormone

b)

Cortisol

c)

Aldosterone

d)

Adrenaline

18.

What is the term for when fluid intake is less than fluid output?

a)

Hypervolemia

b)

Hypovolemia

c)

Edema

d)

Dehydration

19.

Bile secretion into the small intestine digest which kind of food?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Proteins

c)

Fat

d)

Fibers

20.

The absorption of the vitamins mainly occurs in which organ?

a)

Small intestine

b)

Large intestine

c)

Mouth

d)

Stomach

21.

The student nurse is learning about a fluid compartment whose primary cation is potassium (K). Which of the following is the correct fluid found in this compartment?

a)

Interstitial fluid

b)

Intracellular fluid

c)

Extracellular fluid

d)

Intravascular fluid

22.

When participating in a research study on pressure ulcers, which predisposing factor should the nurse recognize as increasing a patient’s risk for developing pressure ulcers?

a)

Muscular pain

b)

Shortness of breath

c)

Inadequate dietary intake

d)

Decreased level of consciousness

23.

When educating an elderly patient on the prevention of diarrhea, the nurse should provide which of the following educational interventions?

a)

Eat six servings of bread or pasta

b)

Consume antacids to decrease reflux

c)

Drink three glasses of milk per day

d)

Limit foods containing insoluble fiber

24.

A client has just voided 50 mL, but reports that his bladder still feels full. Which of the following nurse’s actions should include?

a)

Palpating the bladder for distension

b)

Obtaining a clean-catch urine specimen

c)

Inserting a straight catheter to measure residual urine

d)

Encouraging the patient to consume cranberry juice daily

25.

A nurse is preparing to transfer a patient from the bed to a wheelchair. Which action BEST reflects the nurse’s commitment to patient and self-safety when applying proper body mechanics? V2

a)

Bending at the waist to save time

b)

Locking the knees to prevent movement

c)

Maintaining a wide base of support during the transfer

d)

Holding the patient away from the body to improve leverage

26.

Which findings indicate diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

a)

Kussmaul respirations

b)

Blood glucose 65 mg/dL

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

Sudden weight gain

27.

A patient with suspected acute MI arrives at the emergency department. Which nursing intervention has the HIGHEST priority?

a)

Obtain a detailed pain history

b)

Administer oxygen and place on cardiac monitor

c)

Prepare the patient for thrombolytic therapy

d)

Administer morphine sulfate

28.

A patient presents with sudden slurred speech and right-sided weakness for 1 hour. Which nursing action is MOST critical before thrombolytic therapy?

a)

Obtain consent

b)

Check blood glucose level

c)

Insert a urinary catheter

d)

Administer aspirin

29.

A patient with renal calculi reports severe flank pain radiating to the groin. Which nursing intervention should be implemented FIRST?

a)

Encourage oral fluid intake

b)

Administer prescribed opioid analgesic

c)

Strain all urine

d)

Encourage ambulation

30.

A patient with severe COPD is receiving oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse notes increasing drowsiness and confusion. What is the nurse’s BEST action?

a)

Increase oxygen flow rate

b)

Discontinue oxygen therapy

c)

Assess arterial blood gases

d)

Place the patient in supine position

31.

A preterm neonate with respiratory distress syndrome develops worsening hypoxemia and metabolic acidosis despite oxygen therapy. Based on the pathophysiology of RDS, which intervention most directly addresses the underlying cause of the infant’s condition?

a)

Increasing glucose infusion to correct acidosis

b)

Administration of exogenous surfactant via endotracheal tube

c)

Limiting handling to reduce oxygen consumption

d)

Initiating broad-spectrum antibiotics for presumed sepsis

32.

A preterm infant is at increased risk for hypothermia despite being placed in a heated incubator. Which physiological characteristic most strongly explains this risk?

a)

Increased metabolic rate and oxygen consumption

b)

Immature hepatic enzyme activity

c)

Thin skin with deficient subcutaneous fat

d)

Inability to shiver effectively

33.

A newborn diagnosed with transposition of the great vessels (TGV) initially appears stable but becomes progressively cyanotic as the ductus arteriosus begins to close. Which intervention is most critical to maintain systemic oxygenation until definitive surgery can be performed?

a)

Administration of indomethacin to reduce pulmonary blood flow

b)

Continuous oxygen therapy via hood

c)

Initiation of prostaglandin E1 infusion

d)

Immediate surgical repair of the ventricular septum

34.

A child with a large ventricular septal defect (VSD) presents with tachypnea, poor weight gain, and recurrent respiratory infections. Which assessment finding best explains the child’s failure to thrive?

a)

Decreased pulmonary vascular resistance causing pulmonary hypertension

b)

Increased left-to-right shunting leading to high energy expenditure

c)

Reduced systemic blood flow due to left ventricular obstruction

d)

Chronic hypoxemia resulting from right-to-left shunting

35.

Immediately after birth, a newborn begins spontaneous respirations, leading to closure of the foramen ovale. Which physiological change is most directly responsible for this closure?

a)

Increased pulmonary vascular resistance and decreased pulmonary blood flow

b)

Increased systemic vascular resistance due to placental separation

c)

Increased left atrial pressure secondary to increased pulmonary blood flow

d)

Decreased right ventricular pressure caused by ductus arteriosus constriction

36.

A pregnant woman at 30 weeks of gestation complains of dizziness and nausea when lying flat on her back. Her blood pressure drops significantly in this position but improves when she turns to her side. Which physiological mechanism best explains this condition?

a)

Decreased cardiac output due to progesterone-induced vasodilation

b)

Compression of the inferior vena cava by the enlarged uterus

c)

Reduced plasma volume secondary to increased fetal demand

d)

Increased diaphragmatic elevation leading to reduced venous return

37.

A woman in her first trimester reports nausea, fatigue, and emotional lability. Which combination of physiological and psychological factors most accurately explains these findings?

a)

Increased progesterone levels and maternal role acceptance

b)

Elevated hCG levels and early pregnancy ambivalence

c)

Decreased blood glucose levels and altered body image

d)

Increased estrogen levels and fetal attachment development

38.

A woman at 34 weeks of gestation presents with painless, bright-red vaginal bleeding. Fetal heart sounds are easily detected, and ultrasound confirms placental attachment near the internal cervical os. What is the priority nursing intervention?

a)

Perform vaginal examination to assess cervical dilation

b)

Encourage ambulation to enhance circulation

c)

Maintain bed rest and avoid vaginal examinations

d)

Prepare for immediate oxytocin infusion

39.

A pregnant woman at 9 weeks of gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. Her β-hCG levels are rising but not doubling every 48 hours, and ultrasound shows no intrauterine pregnancy. Which diagnosis is most consistent with these findings?

a)

Threatened abortion

b)

Complete abortion

c)

Ectopic pregnancy

40.

During vaginal examination, the nurse notes the presenting part at station 0. How should this finding be interpreted?

a)

The fetal head is still above the pelvic inlet

b)

The presenting part is level with the ischial spines

c)

The fetus has completed descent through the pelvis

d)

Engagement has not yet occurred

41.

Which laboratory result is most consistent with a post-renal cause of acute kidney failure?

a)

BUN-to-creatinine ratio of 20:1

b)

Urine osmolality measuring 200 mOsm/kg

c)

Urinary sodium concentration of 15 mEq/L

d)

Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) to creatinine ratio of 10:1

42.

The client is exhibiting sinus bradycardia, is complaining of syncope and weakness, and has a BP of 98/60. Which collaborative treatment should the nurse anticipate being implemented?

a)

Prepare for insertion of a pacemaker

b)

Administer a thrombolytic medication

c)

Assess the client's cardiovascular status

d)

Obtain a permit for synchronized cardioversion

43.

A patient of Acute Kidney Injury is oliguric. Which of the following nursing diagnosis should have the PRIORITY for his condition?

a)

Disturbed sleep pattern related fragmented sleep

b)

Excess fluid volume related to kidney dysfunction

c)

Imbalance nutrition less than body requirements related to anorexia

d)

Deficit knowledge related to lack of previous exposure to information

44.

Which of the following is the most important action the nurse should do before and after suctioning a client?

a)

Evaluating for clear breath sounds

b)

Placing the client in a supine position

c)

Hyperventilating the client with 100% oxygen

d)

Making sure that suctioning takes only 10–15 seconds

45.

A patient has a chest tube for treatment of a pneumothorax in the left lung. Which of the following finding during your assessment requires immediate nursing intervention?

a)

The water seal chamber has intermittent bubbling

b)

The patient has slight tracheal deviation to the right side

c)

The patient complains of tenderness at the chest tube insertion site

d)

The water seal chamber fluctuates while the patient inhales and exhales

46.

A nurse educator said to a new nurse "Our hospital provides the highest level of specialist healthcare in an integrated educational and research setting" Which of the following aspects of the hospital's strategic plan is indicated by this statement?

a)

Vision

b)

policy

c)

values

d)

mission

47.

An incident occurred in the ICU that needed immediate response; the nurse manager decided to solve the incident immediately alone without seeking assistance from others. In this scenario, what is the decision-making strategy the manager followed?

a)

Delegative

b)

Optimizing

c)

Democratic or consultative

d)

Autocratic or authoritative

48.

The statement, “the university hospital aims to provide patient-centered care in a total healing environment” refers to which of the following?

a)

Goal

b)

Vision

c)

Mission

d)

Philosophy

49.

In which type of organizational charts does it include a few administrative layers?

a)

Flat chart

b)

Circle chart

c)

Matrix chart

d)

Vertical chart

50.

When a manager tries to design an organizational structure that allows communication to flow in all directions and involves workers in decision-making. Which form of organizational structure is this?

a)

Matrix

b)

Informal

c)

Centralized

d)

Decentralized

51.

You teach a community about disaster preparedness on how to find shelter during and after a disaster situation. This is an example of what kind of prevention?

a)

Tertiary

b)

Primary

c)

Secondary

d)

Health promotion

52.

A community health nurse in local state Assess the barriers to accessing health services for a homeless people. This assessment refers to which of the following level of prevention?

a)

Primary

b)

Tertiary

c)

Secondary

d)

Health promotion

53.

The community healthcare Facility observed low response for immunization activities. Then it decided to teach people about immunization and the importance of applying it. What would improve the effect of response?

a)

Modify immunization program schedule

b)

Provide more health teaching programs

c)

Do nothing, it is the patient’s choice

d)

Force the patients to be immunized

54.

Which of the following is an advantage of a home visit?

a)

It allows the nurse to provide nursing care to a greater number of people

b)

It provides an opportunity to do first hand appraisal of the home situation

c)

It allows sharing of experience among people with similar health problems

d)

It develops the family's initiative in providing for health needs of its members

55.

The nurse notes that a client has been previously married and participates in raising the current spouse's children from a previous marriage. How should the nurse document this family type?

a)

Extended

b)

Single-parent

c)

Nuclear family

d)

Reconstituted

56.

A nurse researcher plans a study involving children aged 5 and 9 years old. The parents of both children have given their consent for the study. Based on ethical guidelines for vulnerable populations, what additional step must the researcher take regarding the 9-year-old child's participation?

a)

Only parental consent is required for both children

b)

The 9-year-old must also give assent to participate

c)

The researcher must obtain a court order

d)

An external ethics committee must interview the 9-year-old

57.

A researcher studying burnout among nurses guarantees that the data collection method ensures no one, including the researcher, will be able to link the survey responses back to the individual participants because no identifying information is collected. This ethical protection, where deletion of any identifying information prevents subject identification, is known as which of the following?

a)

Informed consent

b)

Anonymity

c)

Confidentiality

d)

Assent

58.

A researcher has decided on the overall plan and structure for a study to answer a specific research question, including what variables to collect and how to analyze them. Next, they need to choose the specific techniques for data gathering, such as using a survey or conducting interviews. The "overall plan and structure" represents the Study Design, while the specific "techniques for data gathering" represent which of the following?

a)

Study Population

b)

Study Outcome

c)

Study Variables

d)

Study Methods

59.

The study, which is used to test a hypothesis and measure the magnitude of association between a suspected risk factor and an outcome, is best classified as which of the following?

a)

Descriptive study design

b)

Exploratory study design

c)

Analytic study design

d)

Qualitative study design

60.

A researcher is investigating the link between occupational exposure to certain chemicals and the development of a rare cancer. The researcher identifies individuals who have been recently diagnosed with cancer and then collects information about their employment history and past chemical exposures over the last 20 years using patient records and interviews. This method of sampling individuals and collecting information about their past is characteristic of which type of study?

a)

Prospective study

b)

Experimental study

c)

Cross-sectional study

d)

Retrospective study

61.

Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

a)

Hallucinations

b)

Delusions

c)

Blunted affect

d)

Disorganized speech

62.

Which of the following disturbances is the basic defect in mania?

a)

Elation

b)

Ideas of reference

c)

Delusion of guilt

d)

Delusion of poverty

63.

A patient newly admitted to the psychiatric unit is diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder. Which correctly stated nursing diagnosis takes priority?

a)

High risk for Anxiety.

b)

Sleep pattern disturbance.

c)

Ineffective individual coping.

d)

Impaired verbal communication

64.

A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder has a nursing diagnosis of low self-esteem R/T negative view of self. Which cognitive nursing intervention would be appropriate to deal with this client’s problem?

a)

Teach assertiveness skills by role-playing situations.

b)

Encourage the client to journal to uncover underlying feelings.

c)

Focus on strengths and accomplishments to minimize failures.

d)

Promote attendance in group therapy to assist the client in socializing.

65.

Case Scenario 1: Acute Stroke (Critical Thinking) — A 68-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his family after suddenly developing slurred speech, right-sided facial drooping, and weakness of the right arm and leg 90 minutes ago. He has a history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and smoking. On arrival: blood pressure 190/100 mmHg, heart rate 92 bpm, respiratory rate 20/min, oxygen saturation 95% on room air, and blood glucose 60 mg/dL. A non-contrast CT scan of the brain is ordered. Identify the priority problem in this patient on arrival and justify why it must be addressed immediately before further stroke management.

a)

Hypoglycemia requiring immediate correction to prevent neurologic injury.

b)

Severely elevated blood pressure requiring urgent antihypertensive therapy.

c)

Hypoxemia requiring immediate oxygen escalation.

d)

Respiratory depression requiring emergent airway intubation.

66.

Case Scenario 1: Acute Stroke (Critical Thinking) — A 68-year-old male presents with slurred speech, right-sided facial drooping, and right-sided weakness. On arrival: blood pressure 190/100 mmHg, heart rate 92 bpm, respiratory rate 20/min, oxygen saturation 95% on room air, and blood glucose 60 mg/dL. A non-contrast CT scan of the brain is ordered. Explain the clinical significance of ordering a non-contrast CT scan of the brain in this patient.

a)

To differentiate ischemic from hemorrhagic stroke and identify acute bleeding for safe treatment decisions.

b)

To enhance visualization of cerebral vessels with contrast to plan endovascular therapy.

c)

To screen for brain tumors as a routine step before thrombolysis.

d)

To measure cerebral perfusion only, without assessing for bleeding.

67.

Case Scenario 1: Acute Stroke (Critical Thinking) — A 68-year-old male arrives 90 minutes after onset of slurred speech, right-sided facial drooping, and right-sided weakness. Vitals: blood pressure 190/100 mmHg, heart rate 92 bpm, respiratory rate 20/min, oxygen saturation 95% on room air, and blood glucose 60 mg/dL. A non-contrast CT scan is ordered. Discuss the immediate nursing interventions required during the first hour of care for this patient and provide the rationale for each.

a)

Correct hypoglycemia promptly with IV dextrose to prevent further neurologic injury.

b)

Perform continuous neurological assessment to detect deterioration.

c)

Maintain airway, breathing, and circulation to ensure adequate oxygenation.

d)

Monitor blood pressure to maintain cerebral perfusion while avoiding hemorrhagic transformation.

e)

Prepare for possible thrombolytic therapy if imaging confirms ischemic stroke.

68.

Analyze how the patient’s medical history contributes to the development of his current condition and influences long-term nursing care.

a)

Hypertension contributes to vascular damage and increases stroke risk, necessitating strict blood pressure control.

b)

Type 2 diabetes accelerates atherosclerosis and endothelial dysfunction, requiring glycemic management.

c)

Smoking promotes vasoconstriction and thrombosis, making smoking cessation a priority.

d)

Long-term nursing care should emphasize blood pressure control, glycemic management, smoking cessation, medication adherence, and lifestyle modification to prevent recurrent stroke.

e)

Thrombolytic therapy is indicated regardless of hemorrhage risk and should be routinely given.