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WorksheetsProcess of Care Hesi Review/Bootcamp
Total questions: 79
Worksheet time: 40mins
Which step is first in the ADPIED process used for dental patient care planning?
Assessment of patient status and history
Diagnosis of oral conditions and risks
Implementation of the selected interventions
Planning treatment goals and sequencing
Evaluation of outcomes and modifications
A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life fits which ASA Physical Status Classification?
ASA II mild systemic disease stable
ASA V moribund not expected to survive
ASA III severe systemic disease stable
ASA I healthy without systemic disease
ASA IV severe systemic disease constant threat
During caries charting, which G.V. Black Classification corresponds to pit-and-fissure lesions on occlusal surfaces of premolars and molars?
Class V cervical third smooth surface
Class IV proximal lesions incisal edge
Class III proximal surfaces anterior teeth
Class I pit-and-fissure occlusal lesions
Class II proximal surfaces posterior teeth
Which component of ADPIED focuses on systematic collection, analysis, and documentation of oral and general health status?
Planning goals using patient values and evidence
Assessment of health status and patient needs
Implementation delivering services to minimize risk
Diagnosis through identifying oral health problems
Dental hygiene diagnosis is best described as which of the following?
Identification of existing or potential oral health problems
Scheduling recall appointments for continuing care
Selection of instruments for plaque removal procedures
Recording of treatment provided and recommendations
Which ADPIED component establishes goals and outcomes based on patient needs, expectations, values, and current scientific evidence?
Planning of goals and expected outcomes
Evaluation documenting outcomes throughout care
Implementation delivering services from care plan
Assessment collecting and analyzing patient data
During implementation, the primary emphasis is to deliver care in what manner?
Maximizing documentation for legal compliance
Setting goals based on patient expectations
Identifying potential oral health problems
Minimizing risk while optimizing oral health
Evaluation within ADPIED occurs at what point in care?
Only when complications arise during treatment
Before assessment to establish baseline goals
Only after completion of the final appointment
Throughout the process, reviewing and documenting outcomes
Documentation in the ADPIED process requires which action?
Selecting appropriate preventive instruments and materials
Complete and accurate recording of all data and care
Establishing evidence-based goals and expected outcomes
Identifying patient fears and motivation for treatment
Which statement best defines the legal expectation for a dental record?
Handwritten notes without test results
Only radiographs and treatment plans
Selective summaries when time allows
Complete, accurate, and legible documentation
Which item is an example of objective data in a dental record?
Patient states brushing twice daily
Patient recalls past dental anxiety
Clinician observes gingival bleeding sites
Patient reports jaw soreness at night
Which component is typically included in the parts of a patient record?
Appointment reminder frequency
Only billing and insurance forms
Marketing consent preferences
Dental and periodontal chart entries
Which approach most effectively gathers comprehensive health history information?
Conduct interview without documentation
Use questionnaire and interview together
Ask about medications only
Rely solely on a short questionnaire
Which statement distinguishes signs from symptoms in assessment?
Signs are test results; symptoms are legal requirements
Signs are historical notes; symptoms are radiographic images
Signs are patient feelings; symptoms are clinician observations
Signs are observable findings; symptoms are reported experiences
A medical history review may indicate the need for which action before dental treatment?
Deferring radiographs indefinitely
Skipping vital signs measurement
Immediate extraction without consent
Antibiotic or anti‑anxiety premedication
Which limitation is commonly associated with using only a questionnaire?
It can be impersonal and inflexible
It requires complex lab equipment
It always misrecords allergies
It guarantees faster rapport building
Which trade‑off is a known drawback of the interview method?
It is time consuming and may cause embarrassment
It excludes medical consult needs
It prevents rapport and consistency
It cannot capture objective findings
Which statement best defines ASA I physical status in dental assessment?
Severe systemic disease limiting activity
Healthy patient without systemic disease
Mild systemic disease with minimal effects
Incapacitating disease posing constant threat
A patient with controlled hypertension and no systemic effects is classified as which ASA level?
ASA IV physical status
ASA III physical status
ASA II physical status
ASA I physical status
Which example aligns with ASA III physical status?
Imminent multi‑organ failure risk
Unstable angina with acute symptoms
No psychiatric or physiologic disturbance
Stable angina with activity limitation
In dental settings, patients with incapacitating systemic disease posing a constant threat to life are typically treated where?
Hospital dental setting
Urgent care office
Outpatient dental clinic
Home with telehealth
Which scenario represents ASA V physical status?
Poorly controlled hypertension only
Morbid obesity with stable angina
Imminent risk of death within 24 hours
Controlled diabetes without complications
Which condition most appropriately fits ASA II examples?
Bronchospasm with intermittent symptoms
Sepsis with hemodynamic instability
Symptomatic congestive heart failure
Cigarette smoking without COPD
A patient reports nausea but clinical notes show normal vitals. Which terms apply?
Normal vitals are subjective feelings
Nausea is an objective sign
Nausea is a subjective symptom
Normal vitals are subjective impressions
Which finding is considered an objective sign in dental assessment?
Patient’s impression of fatigue
Probing depth measurements
Feeling of flushing skin
Attitudes about treatment
Which ASA level corresponds to symptomatic COPD requiring caution?
ASA IV classification
ASA II classification
ASA V classification
ASA III classification
A morbidly obese patient with poorly controlled hypertension and prior myocardial infarction most likely fits which ASA class?
ASA III due to severe disease
ASA I due to good exercise tolerance
ASA II due to mild disease
ASA IV due to incapacitating disease
Which statement best defines systolic blood pressure during the cardiac cycle?
Pressure when atria are relaxing and refilling
Pressure when arteries are dilating at rest
Pressure when veins are constricting during return
Pressure when ventricles are contracting and ejecting
Which method involves listening for Korotkoff sounds when measuring blood pressure?
Auscultation with a stethoscope
Palpation of the radial pulse
Percussion of the chest wall
Inspection of the brachial artery
Diastolic pressure is recorded when the heart is in which state?
Under autonomic stimulation only
At peak muscular tension
Contracting and forcing blood out
Relaxing at rest allowing blood in
What is the typical relationship between systolic and diastolic pressures?
Systolic is the highest; diastolic the lowest
Diastolic is the highest; systolic the lowest
Both increase only during inspiration
Both are equal during normal cycles
A patient has BP 128/84 mm Hg. How should this be classified?
Prehypertension category range
Hypertension Stage 1
Normal category range
Hypertension Stage 2
Which systolic range indicates Hypertension Stage 1?
120–139 mm Hg systolic
140–159 mm Hg systolic
≥160–179 mm Hg systolic
Greater than 180 mm Hg systolic
A reading of 166/104 mm Hg should be categorized as which stage?
Hypertension Stage 2 moderate
Hypertension Stage 1 initial
Prehypertension transitional
Stage 3 severe hypertension
Which diastolic value meets criteria for Stage 3 (severe) hypertension?
80–89 mm Hg diastolic
Less than 80 mm Hg diastolic
Greater than 110 mm Hg diastolic
90–99 mm Hg diastolic
Which respiratory rate is normal for a healthy adult at rest?
20–28 breaths per minute
8–12 breaths per minute
12–20 breaths per minute
28–36 breaths per minute
A toddler’s pulse is best palpated at which artery?
Radial artery at the wrist
Brachial artery inside upper arm
Femoral artery in the groin
Carotid artery along trachea
Tachypnea is defined as which breathing pattern?
Abnormally rapid breathing rate
Abnormally slow breathing rate
Irregular deep then shallow breaths
Breathing with long pauses
Which pulse range is expected for adolescents and typical adults at rest?
100–160 beats per minute
70–120 beats per minute
60–100 beats per minute
45–60 beats per minute
During an emergency assessment of an unresponsive adult, which site is commonly used to check the pulse?
Radial on thumb side wrist
Brachial inside upper arm
Carotid along edge of trachea
Temporal in front of ear
Which respiratory rate range is typical for infants?
30–60 breaths per minute
20–30 breaths per minute
14–26 breaths per minute
12–20 breaths per minute
A well‑trained endurance athlete presents for prophylaxis. Which resting pulse range is most consistent with training adaptations?
70–120 beats per minute
100–160 beats per minute
45–60 beats per minute
60–100 beats per minute
When taking a routine pulse in a dental clinic for most adult patients, which artery and location are typically used?
Ulnar artery on little‑finger wrist
Carotid artery along trachea
Radial artery on thumb side wrist
Brachial artery inside upper arm
Which G.V. Black class involves pits and fissures on occlusal surfaces of molars and premolars?
Class I fissure lesions on occlusal
Class V gingival third smooth
Class II proximal surfaces posterior
Class III proximal surfaces anterior
Decay on the proximal (mesial or distal) surfaces of premolars and molars corresponds to which class?
Class II posterior proximal lesions
Class I occlusal pit involvement
Class VI incisal edge defects
Class III anterior proximal lesions
Which class is proximal decay on incisors and canines without incisal edge involvement?
Class III anterior proximal only
Class I pits and fissures posterior
Class IV anterior proximal with edge
Class V gingival third smooth areas
What distinguishes Class IV from Class III caries?
Presence of occlusal pits and fissures
Incisal edge or angle involvement
Radiographs not required for diagnosis
Location only on posterior teeth
Decay in the gingival third of a facial or lingual surface on any tooth is classified as:
Class I occlusal pits and fissures
Class II posterior proximal decay
Class V smooth surface lesions
Class VI occlusal surface abrasion
Lesions on incisal edges of anterior teeth and occlusal surfaces of posterior teeth due to wear and defects are:
Class IV incisal edge with proximal
Class VI abrasion-related lesions
Class I pits and fissures only
Class V gingival third smooth areas
Which illustration best represents Class II decay?
Red on gingival third of canine
Red on incisal edge of incisor
Red on occlusal pits of molar
Red on mesial and distal of molar
Identify the surface type for Class I lesions.
Pits and fissures surfaces
Smooth gingival third surfaces
Proximal anterior surfaces
Incisal edge and angle surfaces
Which class typically requires radiographs for detection due to limited visual access?
Class II posterior proximal decay
Class I occlusal pit lesions
Class V smooth cervical lesions
Class VI incisal edge defects
A composite restoration is commonly chosen for esthetics in which anterior lesion class without edge involvement?
Class IV proximal with incisal edge
Class I pits and fissures posterior
Class III anterior proximal only
Class V smooth cervical areas
Class V lesions are also referred to as which type of surface decay?
Smooth surface cervical decay
Posterior proximal surface decay
Occlusal pits and fissures decay
Incisal edge wear-related decay
When an anterior proximal lesion extends to the incisal angle, how should it be classified?
Class IV with incisal involvement
Class III without incisal edge
Class I pits and fissures only
Class VI abrasion-related areas
In Class I (mesognathic) occlusion, which alignment is observed between the mandibular and maxillary first molars? Refer to the diagram showing a vertical mark on the buccal groove and a highlighted mesiobuccal cusp.
Mesiobuccal cusp lingual to buccal groove
Buccal groove aligns with mesiobuccal cusp
Buccal groove anterior to mesiobuccal cusp
Mesiobuccal cusp distal to buccal groove
Which term best describes the jaw relationship in Class II occlusion when using the first molars as the guide?
Retrognathic mandible relationship
Prognathic maxilla position
Mesognathic jaw relationship
Orthognathic balanced arches
In Class II occlusion, where is the buccal groove of the permanent mandibular first molar positioned relative to the maxillary first molar’s mesiobuccal cusp?
Posterior or distal to the cusp
Lingual or palatal to the cusp
Directly in line with the cusp
Anterior or mesial to the cusp
A patient’s molars show Class II division 1. Which incisor characteristic most commonly accompanies this molar relationship? Refer to the diagram where central incisors appear forward.
Maxillary centrals slightly protruded
Maxillary centrals markedly retruded
Mandibular centrals widely spaced
Mandibular laterals rotated lingually
When diagnosing occlusion with Angle’s system, which teeth serve as the primary clinical guide according to the diagrams?
Maxillary second premolars
Permanent first molars
Primary second molars
Permanent canines
Which occlusal classification is considered the most desirable permanent occlusion in the diagrams and notes?
Open bite malocclusion
Class II retrognathic type
Class I mesognathic pattern
Class III prognathic pattern
In Class II Division II malocclusion, which anterior tooth feature is characteristic?
Protruded mandibular central incisors
Retruded mandibular lateral incisors
Retruded maxillary central incisors
Protruded maxillary central incisors
Which statement best defines the Class III molar relationship using permanent first molars?
Maxillary mesiobuccal cusp is anterior to mandibular buccal groove
Mandibular buccal groove is anterior to maxillary mesiobuccal cusp
Mandibular buccal groove aligns with maxillary mesiobuccal cusp
Mandibular buccal groove is posterior to maxillary distobuccal cusp
Using permanent canines as a guide, what describes Class I canine relationship?
Mandibular canine distal surface is one premolar width anterior
Mandibular canine distal surface is within one premolar width of maxillary canine mesial surface
Maxillary canine distal surface overlaps two premolar widths
Mandibular canine mesial surface is within two premolar widths
Which feature distinguishes Class II Division I from Division II?
Canines in end-to-end relation
Incisors tipped labially with protrusion
Molar relationship Class I
Incisors tipped lingually with retrusion
When assessing incisors, lingual inclination most commonly indicates which classification?
Class I canine relation
Class II Division I malocclusion
Class II Division II malocclusion
Class III molar relationship
A patient shows mandibular first molar buccal groove positioned mesial to the maxillary first molar mesiobuccal cusp. Which occlusion class is this?
Class I molar relationship
Class II Division II
Class II molar relationship
Class III molar relationship
In the diagram, which term describes the vertical overlap of maxillary incisors over mandibular incisors?
Crossbite involving posterior teeth
Open bite with no incisal contact
Overjet measured horizontally forward
Overbite measured vertically downward
Which statement best defines overjet?
Horizontal overlap of maxillary anterior teeth
Posterior teeth buccal–lingual displacement
Vertical extension of maxillary incisal edges
Anterior teeth lack of occlusal contact
A patient shows maxillary incisors excessively covering mandibular incisors. Which malocclusion is most consistent?
Posterior crossbite of molars only
Anterior open bite from tongue thrust
Increased overjet with horizontal protrusion
Deep overbite with increased vertical overlap
Using canines as a guide, Class II occlusion is identified when which relationship is present?
Maxillary canine distal to mandibular canine
Mandibular canine distal to maxillary canine
Mandibular canine mesial to maxillary canine
Canines in end‑to‑end contact
In the right-hand diagram of Class III, which canine relationship is illustrated?
Mandibular canine positioned mesial
Mandibular canine positioned distal
Canines aligned without offset
Maxillary canine displaced buccally
Which feature differentiates overbite from overjet in clinical description?
Direction of overlap: vertical vs horizontal
Measurement: millimeters vs percentage
Teeth involved: anterior vs posterior
Etiology: skeletal vs dental
A patient presents with anterior teeth that do not touch when biting, likely due to tongue thrust. Which condition is this?
Crossbite with buccal displacement
Overbite with deep coverage
Overjet with horizontal prominence
Open bite with anterior separation
Which scenario most suggests a posterior crossbite etiology?
Distal positioning of mandibular canines
Increased horizontal overlap of incisors
Maxillary arch constricted relative to mandible
Excessive vertical overlap of incisors
In a crossbite, one or more mandibular teeth are positioned how relative to their maxillary counterparts? Use the images to guide your choice.
Facial to the maxillary teeth counterparts
Occlusal to the maxillary incisal edges
Lingual to the maxillary teeth surfaces
Distal to the maxillary molar positions
Which skeletal growth imbalance most commonly leads to the crossbite pattern shown in the images?
Maxilla overgrows relative to mandible
Maxilla and mandible grow equally and symmetrically
Maxilla undergrows relative to mandible
Mandible overgrows relative to maxilla
In an open bite like the one pictured, which statement best describes the anterior–posterior occlusion?
Anterior teeth do not occlude; they remain open
Posterior teeth extrude and contact excessively
Anterior teeth overjet with normal contact
Posterior teeth do not contact during closure
Habit-related etiology: Which combination most strongly supports an anterior open bite as shown?
Cheek biting with Class III molar relationship
Mouth breathing with deep bite present
Bruxism with posterior crossbite present
Thumb sucking with tongue thrust present
