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2nd year UHS - day 3

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which category of chemical messenger primarily targets the same cell that secreted it, typically utilizing a local feedback mechanism?

a)

Endocrine

b)

Paracrine

c)

Autocrine

d)

Neurotransmitter

2.

A patient is treated with a hormone-based medication for a chronic inflammatory condition. If this medication is a lipid-soluble messenger, its receptor is most likely located:

a)

On the external surface of the plasma membrane

b)

Within the cell cytoplasm or nucleus

c)

Embedded within the lysosomal membrane

d)

In the mitochondrial matrix

3.

Peptide hormones (e.g., Insulin, ADH) are water-soluble and cannot easily cross the cell membrane. Their action inside the cell is typically mediated by the activation of:

a)

Nuclear receptors that directly bind to DNA

b)

G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) or enzyme-linked receptors

c)

Ribosomes for immediate protein synthesis

d)

Endoplasmic reticulum for calcium storage

4.

The synthesis of second messengers, such as cyclic AMP (cAMP), is the characteristic signaling pathway for which class of membrane receptors?

a)

Tyrosine Kinase receptors

b)

G protein-coupled receptors (Gs subunit)

c)

Ligand-gated ion channels

d)

Intracellular receptors

5.

Which type of chemical signaling involves a substance being released into the synaptic cleft by a neuron to affect a neighboring nerve, muscle, or gland cell?

a)

Endocrine

b)

Neurocrine (Neurotransmission)

c)

Juxtacrine

d)

Autocrine

6.

Cortisol and Thyroid hormones both exert their primary actions by regulating gene expression. What key characteristic allows these hormones to utilize intracellular receptors?

a)

They are synthesized from amino acids

b)

They are transported freely (unbound) in the blood

c)

They are lipid-soluble

d)

They have very short half-lives

7.

A drug is developed that inhibits the enzyme phosphodiesterase. This drug would be expected to prolong the effect of hormones that primarily use which second messenger?

a)

IP3 (Inositol Triphosphate)

b)

DAG (Diacylglycerol)

c)

cAMP (Cyclic AMP)

d)

Ca2+ (Calcium Ion)

8.

The duration of action of lipid-soluble hormones, compared to water-soluble peptide hormones, is typically:

a)

Shorter, due to rapid enzymatic degradation

b)

Shorter, due to faster renal excretion

c)

Longer, due to plasma protein binding and genomic action

d)

The same, as both are cleared by the liver

9.

Which of the following is an example of a chemical messenger acting via a paracrine mechanism?

a)

Insulin acting on distant muscle cells

b)

Thyroid hormone acting on liver cell receptors

c)

Somatostatin inhibiting insulin release from adjacent pancreatic cells

d)

Testosterone binding to its receptor within the same Leydig cell that secreted it

10.

A receptor that, upon ligand binding, directly catalyzes the phosphorylation of intracellular proteins is classified as a(n):

a)

G protein-coupled receptor (GPCR)

b)

Ion Channel receptor

c)

Enzyme-linked receptor (e.g., Tyrosine Kinase)

d)

Intracellular receptor

11.

A 40-year-old patient with undiagnosed primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease) is hospitalized. Which electrolyte imbalance, resulting from mineralocorticoid deficiency, is critical to monitor?

a)

Hypocalcemia

b)

Hypernatremia

c)

Hyperkalemia

d)

Hypophosphatemia

12.

A patient presents with signs of Cushing's syndrome (Cortisol excess). A key metabolic consequence of this condition is:

a)

Decreased gluconeogenesis and hypoglycemia

b)

Increased protein synthesis and muscle mass

c)

Increased blood glucose and insulin resistance

d)

Decreased FFA mobilization from adipose tissue

13.

In a case of severe, uncorrected hypothyroidism, the body's Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) is significantly lowered. This reduction is primarily due to the decreased synthesis of which cellular components normally promoted by thyroid hormones?

a)

Na+-K+ ATPase and other metabolic enzymes

b)

Structural proteins like collagen

c)

Cell membrane phospholipids

d)

Nuclear DNA

14.

A pituitary tumor causes panhypopituitarism. The deficiency of which hormone leads to the inability to concentrate urine and severe polyuria/polydipsia?

a)

Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

b)

Growth Hormone (GH)

c)

Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)

d)

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) / Vasopressin

15.

Chronic stress causes sustained high levels of Cortisol. This elevated Cortisol acts as a potent negative feedback signal primarily on which two anatomical structures?

a)

Adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla

b)

Hypothalamus and anterior pituitary

c)

Posterior pituitary and thyroid gland

d)

Kidney tubules and liver

16.

A high concentration of Iodine in the blood can temporarily inhibit the synthesis and release of thyroid hormones. This mechanism is known as the:

a)

Reverse T3 effect

b)

Wolff-Chaikoff effect

c)

T4 conversion blockade

d)

TSH receptor desensitization

17.

The acute effect of Cortisol excess on circulating white blood cells includes:

a)

Increased eosinophils and lymphocytes

b)

Decreased neutrophils and monocytes

c)

Decreased eosinophils and lymphocytes

d)

Increased erythrocytes

18.

Which hypothalamic hormone is responsible for stimulating the release of Growth Hormone (GH) from the somatotropes of the anterior pituitary?

a)

Somatostatin (Growth Hormone Inhibitory Hormone)

b)

Prolactin-Inhibiting Hormone (PIH)

c)

Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone (TRH)

d)

Growth Hormone-Releasing Hormone (GHRH)

19.

A patient with hyperthyroidism (Graves' disease) often presents with increased heart rate and palpitations. This is attributed to the synergistic action of thyroid hormone with:

a)

Glucocorticoids, enhancing ADH receptors

b)

Catecholamines (Epinephrine/Norepinephrine), increasing β-adrenergic receptors

c)

Aldosterone, enhancing sodium channels

d)

Insulin, promoting glucose metabolism

20.

The production of Catecholamines (Epinephrine and Norepinephrine) in the adrenal medulla is primarily regulated by:

a)

Hypothalamic releasing hormones

b)

Direct sympathetic nervous system stimulation

c)

Circulating levels of ACTH

d)

Negative feedback from Cortisol

21.

In an individual with a deficiency of the enzyme 21-hydroxylase (a common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia), there will be inadequate synthesis of Cortisol and Aldosterone. This leads to the shunting of precursors toward the overproduction of:

a)

ADH

b)

Glucagon

c)

Sex steroids (Androgens)

d)

PTH

22.

Which part of the adrenal cortex is responsible for synthesizing Aldosterone, the mineralocorticoid?

a)

Zona Fasciculata

b)

Zona Reticularis

c)

Zona Glomerulosa

d)

Adrenal Medulla

23.

The function of the TBG (Thyroxine-Binding Globulin) protein in thyroid hormone transport is to:

a)

Decrease the half-life of T4 and T3

b)

Decrease the free (active) fraction of the hormones

c)

Protect the hormones from breakdown and maintain a stable reservoir

d)

Both B and C

24.

The secretion of Prolactin from the anterior pituitary is primarily under the tonic inhibitory control of which hypothalamic substance?

a)

Prolactin-Releasing Peptide (PRP)

b)

Dopamine (PIH)

c)

TRH

d)

Oxytocin

25.

ADH (Vasopressin) acts on the principal cells of the renal collecting tubules to increase water reabsorption. Its mechanism of action involves the insertion of which water channel into the luminal membrane?

a)

ENaC (Epithelial Na+ Channel)

b)

Na+-K+ ATPase

c)

Aquaporin-2

d)

SGLT2 (Sodium-Glucose Cotransporter 2)

26.

The excessive secretion of Growth Hormone (GH) in an adult (Acromegaly) causes significant growth of bones, but primarily in the thickness of the bones rather than the length. This is because GH and IGF-1 stimulate the growth of:

a)

Articular cartilage

b)

Epiphyseal plates (which are closed in adults)

c)

Membranous bone and soft tissues

d)

Periosteal bone

27.

ACTH primarily stimulates the adrenal cortex. However, high levels of ACTH can also lead to hyperpigmentation of the skin due to the co-secretion of which related peptide?

a)

β-Lipotropin (β-LPH)

b)

Melanocyte-Stimulating Hormone (MSH)

c)

Endorphins

d)

Thyrotropin-Releasing Hormone (TRH)

28.

A patient is diagnosed with Hashimoto's thyroiditis, an autoimmune cause of hypothyroidism. The feedback loop would show:

a)

Low TSH, Low T4

b)

High TSH, Low T4

c)

High TSH, High T4

d)

Normal TSH, Low T4

29.

The most potent stimulus for the release of Aldosterone is:

a)

A decrease in plasma Sodium concentration

b)

An increase in plasma Potassium concentration

c)

The presence of Angiotensin I

d)

Direct neural stimulation from the hypothalamus

30.

Which of the following is an effect of Thyroid Hormone on the cardiovascular system?

a)

Decreased heart rate

b)

Decreased cardiac output

c)

Increased sensitivity to catecholamines

d)

Decreased strength of heart contraction

31.

In Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM), the lack of insulin leads to enhanced lipolysis in adipose tissue. This primary metabolic shift results in the liver producing large quantities of:

a)

Lactic acid.

b)

Urea.

c)

Glycogen.

d)

Ketone bodies.

32.

The process of insulin secretion from the pancreatic β cell is initiated when glucose enters the cell and is metabolized, leading to the closing of which channel?

a)

Voltage-gated Ca2+ channel.

b)

ATP-sensitive K+ channel.

c)

Na+–K+ ATPase.

d)

Chloride channel.

33.

Glucagon, the hormone secreted by α cells, increases blood glucose concentration primarily by stimulating which two hepatic processes?

a)

Glycogenolysis and glycolysis.

b)

Glycolysis and lipolysis.

c)

Glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.

d)

Fatty acid synthesis and amino acid uptake.

34.

In Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM), a major characteristic is insulin resistance. At the cellular level, this resistance is most closely associated with the impaired translocation of which glucose transporter to the cell membrane?

a)

GLUT1.

b)

GLUT2.

c)

GLUT3.

d)

GLUT4.

35.

A key difference between Type 1 and Type 2 Diabetes is the presence of endogenous insulin secretion. Which measurable substance is often used clinically to assess the residual secretion of insulin by the β cells?

a)

HbA1c.

b)

Glucagon.

c)

C-peptide.

d)

Proinsulin.

36.

Severe hypoglycemia triggers the release of several counter-regulatory hormones. Which combination represents the most potent hormones mobilized to raise blood glucose quickly?

a)

Somatostatin and GH.

b)

Insulin and Glucagon.

c)

Glucagon, Epinephrine, and GH.

d)

Cortisol and TSH.

37.

The paracrine action of Somatostatin within the Islets of Langerhans primarily serves to:

a)

Stimulate the release of PP (Pancreatic Polypeptide).

b)

Promote blood flow to the α and β cells.

c)

Dampen/inhibit the secretion of both insulin and glucagon.

d)

Enhance the GLUT4 translocation in β cells.

38.

The severe dehydration seen in Hyperosmolar Hyperglycemic State (HHS) in T2DM is caused by the osmotic diuretic effect of glucose, which leads to excessive water loss in the:

a)

Proximal tubule of the kidney.

b)

Loop of Henle.

c)

Collecting duct of the kidney.

d)

Glomerulus.

39.

Insulin promotes the net storage of energy substrates. Its effect on the liver includes:

a)

Increasing the activity of phosphorylase.

b)

Inhibiting the enzyme glucokinase.

c)

Promoting the conversion of excess glucose to fatty acids.

d)

Stimulating glucose output.

40.

Chronic, untreated insulin deficiency (as in T1DM) leads to the wasting of body tissues and weight loss, primarily because:

a)

Fatty acid synthesis is stimulated.

b)

Amino acid transport into cells is inhibited, leading to protein catabolism.

c)

Glucose uptake in the brain is impaired.

d)

Glucagon secretion is completely suppressed.

41.

A patient with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) develops Secondary Hyperparathyroidism. This condition is primarily driven by the kidneys' reduced ability to:

a)

Excrete phosphate, causing hyperphosphatemia.

b)

Convert Vitamin D to its active form (Calcitriol).

c)

Reabsorb calcium from the renal tubules.

d)

Excrete PTH.

42.

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) achieves its rapid effect on raising plasma calcium concentration primarily by stimulating:

a)

Slow, long-term remodeling of compact bone.

b)

Fast, short-term movement of Ca2+ from the bone fluid pool.

c)

Increased renal excretion of phosphate.

d)

Decreased Ca2+ absorption from the small intestine.

43.

The most critical and potent function of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (Active Vitamin D) in calcium homeostasis is to:

a)

Directly inhibit osteoclasts.

b)

Increase Ca2+ absorption from the gastrointestinal tract.

c)

Increase Ca2+ deposition in bone.

d)

Decrease renal Ca2+ reabsorption.

44.

A woman is pregnant. The hormone responsible for maintaining the corpus luteum and preventing menstruation during the first few months is secreted by the developing placenta and has a structure similar to LH:

a)

FSH.

b)

Progesterone.

c)

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG).

d)

Human Placental Lactogen (hPL).

45.

Which hormone surge is the direct and immediate trigger for the process of ovulation in the female menstrual cycle?

a)

FSH.

b)

Estrogen.

c)

LH.

d)

Progesterone.

46.

Estrogens exert a crucial role in the skeletal system by:

a)

Directly stimulating bone resorption.

b)

Inhibiting the activity and life span of osteoclasts.

c)

Increasing the renal loss of calcium.

d)

Promoting the growth of the epiphyseal plates throughout life.

47.

Testosterone is secreted primarily by which cells in the testes?

a)

Sertoli cells.

b)

Interstitial cells of Leydig.

c)

Germinal cells.

d)

Spermatocytes.

48.

In the male, Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) acts directly on the Sertoli cells to:

a)

Stimulate testosterone synthesis.

b)

Promote the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT).

c)

Support and regulate spermatogenesis.

d)

Provide negative feedback to the hypothalamus.

49.

The transformation of a dominant ovarian follicle into the corpus luteum occurs during which phase of the menstrual cycle?

a)

Follicular phase.

b)

Ovulatory phase.

c)

Luteal phase.

d)

Proliferative phase.

50.

Which hormone is released from the posterior pituitary in response to sucking/nursing and causes the milk-ejection (let-down) reflex?

a)

Prolactin.

b)

Oxytocin.

c)

PRH.

d)

TRH.

51.

The primary mechanism by which PTH promotes the excretion of phosphate by the kidney is through:

a)

Inhibiting Na+-phosphate co-transporters in the renal tubules.

b)

Stimulating phosphate transport into bone.

c)

Increasing the glomerular filtration rate.

d)

Decreasing plasma Ca2+.

52.

Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) is a more potent androgen than Testosterone in certain tissues. The enzyme responsible for converting Testosterone to DHT is:

a)

Aromatase

b)

5α-reductase

c)

17β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

d)

Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)

53.

A clinical presentation of hypercalcemia (e.g., bone pain, kidney stones) is most commonly associated with a disorder of which gland?

a)

Thyroid gland (Calcitonin-secreting cells)

b)

Adrenal gland

c)

Pancreas

d)

Parathyroid gland

54.

GnRH (Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone) must be secreted in a pulsatile manner by the hypothalamus to stimulate the release of FSH and LH. Continuous, non-pulsatile administration of GnRH (or its analogs) would lead to:

a)

Increased FSH and LH secretion (positive feedback)

b)

Sustained suppression of FSH and LH release (receptor down-regulation)

c)

Selective increase in FSH over LH

d)

No change in pituitary hormone release

55.

The corpus luteum secretes which hormone in large quantities to prepare the uterus for implantation and maintain the secretory phase of the endometrium?

a)

Progesterone

b)

Prolactin

c)

FSH

d)

Relaxin

56.

Calcitonin acts as an antagonist to PTH. Its main target is the bone, where it acts to:

a)

Stimulate osteoblasts to deposit calcium

b)

Inhibit the resorptive activity of osteoclasts

c)

Increase renal reabsorption of calcium

d)

Increase intestinal calcium absorption

57.

Inhibin is secreted by the Sertoli cells in males (and granulosa cells in females). Its primary feedback role is the selective inhibition of:

a)

Hypothalamic GnRH release

b)

Pituitary LH release

c)

Pituitary FSH release

d)

Testicular Testosterone synthesis

58.

Which physiological process involves a positive feedback loop driven by a hormone, leading to an explosive increase in its own effects?

a)

Regulation of Cortisol by ACTH

b)

Regulation of Thyroid hormone by TSH

c)

Oxytocin release during labor

d)

Insulin regulation by glucose

59.

A patient with Hypoparathyroidism (low PTH) is expected to exhibit which laboratory profile?

a)

High serum Ca2+ and Low serum PO43−

b)

Low serum Ca2+ and High serum PO43−

c)

Low serum Ca2+ and Low serum PO43−

d)

High serum Ca2+ and High serum PO43−

60.

The hormone Prolactin's primary physiological role in the female is to:

a)

Stimulate ovarian follicle development

b)

Stimulate the milk-ejection reflex

c)

Promote the development of the breast secretory apparatus and milk synthesis

d)

Trigger the conversion of androgens to estrogen

61.

A patient with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) develops Secondary Hyperparathyroidism. This condition is primarily driven by the kidneys' reduced ability to:

a)

Excrete phosphate, causing hyperphosphatemia

b)

Convert Vitamin D to its active form (Calcitriol)

c)

Reabsorb calcium from the renal tubules

d)

Excrete PTH

62.

Parathyroid Hormone (PTH) achieves its rapid effect on raising plasma calcium concentration primarily by stimulating:

a)

Slow, long-term remodeling of compact bone

b)

Fast, short-term movement of Ca2+ from the bone fluid pool

c)

Increased renal excretion of phosphate

d)

Decreased Ca2+ absorption from the small intestine

63.

The most critical and potent function of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (Active Vitamin D) in calcium homeostasis is to:

a)

Directly inhibit osteoclasts

b)

Increase Ca2+ absorption from the gastrointestinal tract

c)

Increase Ca2+ deposition in bone

d)

Decrease renal Ca2+ reabsorption

64.

A woman is pregnant. The hormone responsible for maintaining the corpus luteum and preventing menstruation during the first few months is secreted by the developing placenta and has a structure similar to LH:

a)

FSH

b)

Progesterone

c)

Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)

d)

Human Placental Lactogen (hPL)

65.

Which hormone surge is the direct and immediate trigger for the process of ovulation in the female menstrual cycle?

a)

FSH

b)

Estrogen

c)

LH

d)

Progesterone

66.

Estrogens exert a crucial role in the skeletal system by:

a)

Directly stimulating bone resorption

b)

Inhibiting the activity and life span of osteoclasts

c)

Increasing the renal loss of calcium

d)

Promoting the growth of the epiphyseal plates throughout life

67.

Testosterone is secreted primarily by which cells in the testes?

a)

Sertoli cells

b)

Interstitial cells of Leydig

c)

Germinal cells

d)

Spermatocytes

68.

In the male, Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH) acts directly on the Sertoli cells to:

a)

Stimulate testosterone synthesis

b)

Promote the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

c)

Support and regulate spermatogenesis

d)

Provide negative feedback to the hypothalamus

69.

The transformation of a dominant ovarian follicle into the corpus luteum occurs during which phase of the menstrual cycle?

a)

Follicular phase

b)

Ovulatory phase

c)

Luteal phase

d)

Proliferative phase

70.

Which hormone is released from the posterior pituitary in response to sucking/nursing and causes the milk-ejection (let-down) reflex?

a)

Prolactin

b)

Oxytocin

c)

PRH

d)

TRH

71.

The primary mechanism by which PTH promotes the excretion of phosphate by the kidney is through:

a)

Inhibiting Na+-phosphate co-transporters in the renal tubules

b)

Stimulating phosphate transport into bone

c)

Increasing the glomerular filtration rate

d)

Decreasing plasma Ca2+

72.

Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) is a more potent androgen than Testosterone in certain tissues. The enzyme responsible for converting Testosterone to DHT is:

a)

Aromatase

b)

5α-reductase

c)

17β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

d)

Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)

73.

A clinical presentation of hypercalcemia (e.g., bone pain, kidney stones) is most commonly associated with a disorder of which gland?

a)

Thyroid gland (Calcitonin-secreting cells)

b)

Adrenal gland

c)

Pancreas

d)

Parathyroid gland

74.

GnRH (Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone) must be secreted in a pulsatile manner by the hypothalamus to stimulate the release of FSH and LH. Continuous, non-pulsatile administration of GnRH (or its analogs) would lead to:

a)

Increased FSH and LH secretion (positive feedback)

b)

Sustained suppression of FSH and LH release (receptor down-regulation)

c)

Selective increase in FSH over LH

d)

No change in pituitary hormone release

75.

The corpus luteum secretes which hormone in large quantities to prepare the uterus for implantation and maintain the secretory phase of the endometrium?

a)

Progesterone

b)

Prolactin

c)

FSH

d)

Relaxin

76.

Calcitonin acts as an antagonist to PTH. Its main target is the bone, where it acts to:

a)

Stimulate osteoblasts to deposit calcium

b)

Inhibit the resorptive activity of osteoclasts

c)

Increase renal reabsorption of calcium

d)

Increase intestinal calcium absorption

77.

Inhibin is secreted by the Sertoli cells in males (and granulosa cells in females). Its primary feedback role is the selective inhibition of:

a)

Hypothalamic GnRH release

b)

Pituitary LH release

c)

Pituitary FSH release

d)

Testicular Testosterone synthesis

78.

Which physiological process involves a positive feedback loop driven by a hormone, leading to an explosive increase in its own effects?

a)

Regulation of Cortisol by ACTH

b)

Regulation of Thyroid hormone by TSH

c)

Oxytocin release during labor

d)

Insulin regulation by glucose

79.

A patient with Hypoparathyroidism (low PTH) is expected to exhibit which laboratory profile?

a)

High serum Ca2+ and Low serum PO43−

b)

Low serum Ca2+ and High serum PO43−

c)

Low serum Ca2+ and Low serum PO43−

d)

High serum Ca2+ and High serum PO43−

80.

The primary role of PTH on the kidney, in addition to stimulating Vitamin D activation, is to:

a)

Increase water reabsorption

b)

Increase renal excretion of Na+

c)

Increase renal reabsorption of Ca2+

d)

Decrease renal reabsorption of K+