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TBL immuno 2526

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following cells is the most important link between innate and adaptive immunity?

a)

Neutrophil

b)

NK cell

c)

Dendritic cell

d)

Eosinophil

2.

Which molecule is primarily responsible for opsonisation of bacteria in early innate immune responses? 

a)

IgA

b)

IgG

c)

C3b

d)

C5a

3.

The part of an antigen that is specifically recognised by an antibody is known as the ...

a)

Hinge region

b)

Epitope

c)

Paratope

d)

Hapten

4.

Which immunoglobulin class is most efficient at activating the classical complement pathway?

a)

IgA

b)

IgE

c)

IgG

d)

IgM

5.

Which complement component is directly responsible for formation of the membrane attack complex (MAC)?

a)

C3a

b)

C3b

c)

C5a

d)

C5b

6.

Deficiency of C1 inhibitor most commonly leads to ...

a)

Recurrent bacterial infection

b)

Autoimmune disease

c)

Hereditary angioedema

d)

Severe combined immunodeficiency

7.

Agglutination reactions are most useful in the laboratory for detecting ...

a)

soluble antigens

b)

small haptens

c)

particulate antigens

d)

complement proteins

8.

The zone in which maximal antigen–antibody lattice formation occurs is known as the ...

a)

prozone

b)

postzone

c)

equivalence zone

d)

saturation zone

9.

Which cytokine is most strongly associated with fever and acute-phase response? 

a)

IL-2

b)

IL-4

c)

IL-10

d)

TNF-α

10.

IL-2 is essential primarily for

a)

B-cell class switching

b)

Activation and proliferation of T cells

c)

Inhibition of macrophages

d)

Induction of tolerance

11.

Which event occurs first during phagocytosis?

a)

Phagolysosome formation

b)

Opsonisation

c)

Chemotaxis

d)

Intracellular killing

12.

Defective oxidative burst in neutrophils is characteristic of ...

a)

leukocyte adhesion deficiency 

b)

Chediak–Higashi syndrome

c)

chronic granulomatous disease

d)

DiGeorge syndrome 

13.

The primary role of HLA molecules is to ...

a)

destroy infected cells

b)

produce antibodies

c)

present antigen to T lymphocytes

d)

mediate phagocytosis

14.

Exogenous antigens are typically presented via which pathway?

a)

HLA class I to CD8⁺ T cells

b)

HLA class II to CD4⁺ T cells

c)

HLA class II to CD8⁺ T cells

d)

HLA class I to CD4⁺ T cells

15.

CD8⁺ cytotoxic T cells primarily eliminate infected cells by

a)

Antibody-dependent cytotoxicity

b)

Complement activation

c)

Perforin and granzyme release

d)

Phagocytosis 

16.

Which infection is best controlled by cell-mediated immunity? 

a)

Extracellular bacteria

b)

Helminth infection

c)

Viral infection

d)

Encapsulated bacteria

17.

The main function of plasma cells is to ...

a)

present antigen

b)

produce cytokines

c)

kill infected cells

d)

produce antibodies

18.

Which immunoglobulin is most abundant in mucosal secretions? 

a)

IgA

b)

IgE

c)

IgG

d)

IgM

19.

Which immune mechanism is most important against extracellular bacteria?

a)

Cytotoxic T cells

b)


Antibody-mediated opsonisation

c)

Type I interferons

d)

Granuloma formation

20.

Type I interferons mainly function to ...

a)

Enhance antibody class switching 

b)

Inhibit viral replication

c)

Suppress macrophages

d)

Promote tolerance

21.

Anaphylaxis is best classified as which type of hypersensitivity?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

22.

Which hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by immune complexes?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

23.

Central tolerance primarily occurs in the ...

a)

Tonsils 

b)

Spleen

c)

Lymph nodes 

d)

Thymus and bone marrow

24.

Failure of self-tolerance may result in: 

a)

Immunodeficiency 

b)

Autoimmune disease

c)

Graft rejection

d)

Tumour immunity

25.

Which immune cell plays a major role in early anti-tumour immunity without prior sensitisation?

a)

CD4⁺ T cells

b)

Cytotoxic T cells

c)

B cells

d)

NK cells

26.

Tumour cells may evade immune responses by ...

a)

increasing MHC expression 

b)

producing IL-2

c)

downregulating HLA class I

d)

activating complement

27.

The most important antigen system in graft rejection is ...

a)

ABO blood group

b)

Rh system

c)

HLA system

d)

Complement system

28.

Hyperacute graft rejection is mainly mediated by: 

a)

Cytotoxic T cells

b)

NK cells

c)

Pre-existing antibodies

d)

Immune complexes

29.

A child presents with recurrent Neisseria (gram negative bacteria with capsule) infections. Which immune defect is most likely?

a)

IgA deficiency

b)

C5–C9 deficiency

c)

T-cell deficiency

d)

IL-2 deficiency

30.

A patient develops a delayed skin reaction 48 hours after a tuberculin test. This reaction is mediated mainly by:

a)

IgE 

b)

Immune complexes

c)

CD4⁺ Th1 cells

d)

Cytotoxic T cells