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MTTC 084 Study Guide

Total questions: 134

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An isthmus can best be described as:

a)

long, narrow inlet of the sea with steep cliffs on each side.

b)

narrow strip of land connecting two larger bodies of land.

c)

low plain built up by mud deposited at the mouth of a river.

d)

narrow waterway connecting two larger bodies of water.

2.

Earthquakes are likely to occur most frequently in geological regions:

a)

where the earth's crust is extremely thin.

b)

that have been stable for a long period of time.

c)

where two tectonic plates converge.

d)

located near the edge of a continental landform.

3.

Which of the following geographic factors is the main reason why the coasts of Norway are ice-free in winter?

a)

the northward movement of the Gulf Stream

b)

Norway's large numbers of fjords

c)

the structure of the Scandinavian Mountains

d)

Norway's long periods of sunshine in the summer

4.

Which of the following responses best describes the relationship between human societies and the physical environment?

a)

Human societies are intimately linked to the physical environment in ways that have proven mutually beneficial.

b)

The physical environment limits and provides opportunities for human initiatives, which in turn shape the environment.

c)

Unlike earlier eras, when environmental factors severely limited human activities, there are no constraints today on how people can shape the environment.

d)

Human activities have little impact on the physical environment, but environmental factors place severe limits on human activities

5.

Which of the following responses best describes one likely consequence of the destruction of tropical rain forests?

a)

reduced carbon dioxide levels in regional atmospheres

b)

increased precipitation in areas where forest cutting occurred

c)

decreased regional surface and air temperatures

d)

accelerated soil erosion in areas where forest cutting occurred

6.

Which of the following responses best matches a region of the United States with the predominant form of agricultural land use in that region?

a)

Gulf Coast: range livestock

b)

Great Lakes: dairy farming

c)

New England: feed grains and livestock

d)

Great Basin: mixed farming

7.

The employment environments described below best exemplify which of the following processes? Service workers in India handle customer inquiries for European and U.S. financial institutions. Central American factory workers assemble parts made in the United States into products that are returned to the United States to be sold. Scotland's Silicon Glen is home to the production facilities of a broad range of domestic and international firms.

a)

cultural convergence

b)

sustainable development

c)

expansion diffusion

d)

economic globalization

8.

Between 1750 and 2000, the world's population increased more than sixfold from less than one billion people to over six billion people. Which of the following developments was the most important reason for this increase?

a)

improvements in techniques to produce goods cheaply in large quantities

b)

advances in medicine, public health, and food storage

c)

population movement from developing to developed countries

d)

improvements in techniques used to extract energy resources

9.

Relations among the major countries of Western Europe during the second half of the twentieth century best illustrate how:

a)

shared economic interests can provide a basis for overcoming traditional national differences.

b)

similar belief systems can provide a basis for promoting a region-wide religious revival.

c)

similar forms of government can provide a basis for integrating military systems.

d)

shared cultural traditions can provide a basis for establishing common legal systems.

10.

The information presented below best describes which of the following world regions? The region's varied population contains hundreds of ethnic groups. In addition to Islam, a blending of Christianity and traditional beliefs can be found in many parts of the region. People of the region speak more than a thousand languages and dialects.

a)

Sub-Saharan Africa

b)

North Africa

c)

Central Asia

d)

Southwest Asia

11.

Which of the following responses is the best definition of concurrent powers?

a)

powers not stated in a national constitution that nation-states have always exercised

b)

powers exercised by state or provincial governments that are denied to national governments

c)

powers that have been expressly defined in a national constitution

d)

powers that can be exercised by state and provincial governments as well as national governments

12.

Athenian democracy during the Age of Pericles was based on the belief that:

a)

community interests should be subordinated to individual rights.

b)

political parties were essential to good government.

c)

governmental functions should be limited to maintaining social order.

d)

all citizens had an obligation to participate in the governing process.

13.

Through his political writings, the Baron de Montesquieu did much to popularize the idea that:

a)

human beings form governments to protect their individual interests.

b)

government should be based on a separation of powers.

c)

protecting individual rights is the most important function of government.

d)

citizens have a right to overthrow unpopular governments.

14.

During the seventeenth century, as parliamentary monarchy became the established form of government in England, royal absolutism grew in France. A major reason for these divergent patterns of development was that:

a)

religious factors had little effect on the evolution of government in England.

b)

political stability was much greater in England than in France.

c)

England had strong traditions of political liberty and representative government.

d)

England's landed elite was less powerful than its French counterpart.

15.

The excerpt below from the Michigan Constitution best illustrates the state's commitment to which of the following principles? "All political power is inherent in the people. Government is instituted for their equal benefit, security and protection."

a)

equal protection of the law

b)

limited government

c)

individual liberty

d)

popular sovereignty

16.

Which of the following Supreme Court decisions or congressional debates best illustrates the conflict between democratic values and democratic practice in the United States?

a)

the U.S. Supreme Court decision in Plessy v. Ferguson

b)

the congressional debate over the Sherman Antitrust Act

c)

the congressional debate over the Environmental Protection Act

d)

the U.S. Supreme Court decision in United States v. Nixon

17.

Which of the following best matches a U.S. political party system with an issue that influenced the creation of that system?

a)

First Party System (1796–1828): economic differences over the role of corporations in U.S. society

b)

Second Party System (1828–1856): political differences over the power of the judicial branch of government

c)

Third Party System (1856–1896): sectional differences over the expansion of slavery

d)

Fourth Party System (1896–1932): class differences over worker participation in the political process

18.

Which of the following responses best describes a major power of the Michigan state legislature?

a)

calling out and supervising the National Guard during emergencies

b)

initiating proceedings to enforce compliance with constitutional mandates

c)

appropriating funds for the operation of state government

d)

granting pardons, reprieves, and commutations of criminal sentences

19.

Compared with statutory and case law, constitutional law is more likely to perform which of the following functions of law?

a)

limiting governmental power

b)

controlling crime

c)

promoting the general welfare

d)

resolving conflict

20.

Which of the following responses best describes the role of the National Security Council in the formulation and implementation of U.S. foreign policy?

a)

to draft and enforce treaties between the United States and other countries

b)

to coordinate government agencies and departments involved with national security and foreign affairs

c)

to conduct covert operations in support of U.S. foreign policy objectives

d)

to implement U.S. foreign policy and conduct diplomatic relations with U.S. allies and adversaries

21.

Information presented in the list below best describes which of the following components of the United Nations? • Its permanent members have a veto power to protect their vital interests. • It is responsible for organizing interventions in international conflicts. • It rules on applications from countries seeking to join the United Nations.

a)

Secretariat

b)

International Court of Justice

c)

Security Council

d)

General Assembly

22.

The concept of scarcity can best be used to explain:

a)

why some firms are more efficient than other firms.

b)

how businesses determine what to produce.

c)

how societies deal with the problem of unemployment.

d)

why people are forced to make economic choices.

23.

A circular flowchart showing the movement of goods and services in product markets and the movement of production inputs in factor markets can best be used to illustrate which of the following characteristics of a free market economic system?

a)

economic incentives

b)

freedom of enterprise

c)

voluntary exchanges

d)

competitive markets

24.

Compared with free market economies, command economies are more likely to:

a)

take advantage of economies of scale.

b)

produce goods for sale in international markets.

c)

suffer from high unemployment.

d)

base economic decisions on national goals.

25.

Which of the following responses best describes a major characteristic of an oligopolistic market structure?

a)

production of a single product

b)

little or no nonprice competition between firms

c)

significant barriers to entry

d)

limited control by firms over product prices

26.

Marginal analysis can best be used to:

a)

assess the cost and benefits of economic decisions.

b)

explore the diverse uses of personal economic resources.

c)

determine the optimum return on investments.

d)

identify ways to conserve personal economic resources.

27.

In personal financial planning, which of the following analyses would be the most effective way of determining an individual's solvency and ability to pay debts?

a)

comparing liquid assets with gross income

b)

comparing cash assets with variable expenses

c)

comparing total assets with total liabilities

d)

comparing investment assets with net worth

28.

Which of the following responses best describes a common feature of both savings and loan associations and mutual savings banks?

a)

Home mortgages tend to account for a large proportion of their consumer loans.

b)

They are required to obtain charters from the federal government.

c)

Interest rates on loans are generally lower than the rates charged by traditional banks.

d)

They offer a broader range of services than other financial institutions.

29.

Which of the following responses best describes a common feature of a business cycle's contraction phase?

a)

The length of the average workweek declines.

b)

Interest rates increase.

c)

The length of time required for deliveries increases.

d)

Store inventories decline.

30.

After gathering data on consumption expenditure, investment expenditure, government expenditure on goods and services, and net exports, an economist adds the totals for each category and divides the resulting figure by total population. This process best describes how economists determine:

a)

gross domestic product

b)

GDP per capita

c)

net national income

d)

disposable personal income

31.

Government transfer payments act as built-in stabilizers during recessions primarily by:

a)

preventing sharp drops in disposable income.

b)

encouraging banks to lower interest rates.

c)

lowering the prices of basic commodities.

d)

providing incentives for business investments.

32.

A social studies teacher wants to begin a unit on international economics by exploring the concept of comparative advantage. Which of the following additional economic concepts would be most important for the teacher to introduce to the students?

a)

scarcity

b)

opportunity cost

c)

competition

d)

productivity

33.

A social scientist has chosen a topic for research. The most appropriate next step in the research process is to:

a)

formulate a hypothesis.

b)

review the existing literature on the topic.

c)

select a research design.

d)

establish a system for data organization.

34.

A social science researcher would most likely conduct a survey for which of the following purposes?

a)

to obtain standardized information about the social characteristics of a population

b)

to compile demographic information on a population

c)

to compile a detailed record of social behavior in a community

d)

to examine the relations between two social groups under controlled conditions

35.

Social science researchers can best develop an effective file system for organizing notes by first:

a)

separating primary and secondary source notes.

b)

making a list of major topics to be covered in the study.

c)

preparing a bibliography of sources consulted.

d)

classifying notes according to their relative importance.

36.

Use the map below to answer the question that follows. The map shows the continents of the eastern hemisphere. The letter A is located in the northeastern area of Africa. The letter B is located northwest of the Indian subcontinent. The letter C is located on the southwestern chain of islands between Southeast Asia and Australia. Which of the following responses best describes a shared characteristic of the three lettered areas on the map?

a)

Islamic religion

b)

monarchical government

c)

caste system

d)

traditional economy

37.

The effect of changes in altitude on people's lives in the Andean region of South America is most apparent in the:

a)

types of building materials used to construct homes.

b)

mineral resources available to regional manufacturers.

c)

social organization of towns and villages.

d)

agricultural options available to regional farmers.

38.

An analysis of which of the following historical developments would most require an integration of economic, geographic, and political science concepts and content?

a)

the origins and spread of the Protestant Reformation

b)

the development of the scientific method and its application to the study of the physical world

c)

the development of absolutism in early modern Europe

d)

the growth of European imperialism and its consequences for colonized peoples

39.

Which of the following excerpts from the U.S. Constitution can best be used to illustrate the core democratic value of limited government?

a)

"Congress shall make no law . . . abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people to peaceably to assemble . . ."

b)

"The enumeration in the Constitution of certain rights shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people."

c)

"No state shall make or enforce any law which shall . . . deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law . . ."

d)

"The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or the people."

40.

The members of a local citizens group are considering updating their city's land use policies. The most appropriate first step in the problem-solving process would be to:

a)

gather and analyze information concerning the problem.

b)

develop a plan for resolving the problem.

c)

break the problem into smaller, more manageable parts.

d)

propose practical solutions to the problem.

41.

Sixteenth-century Protestants and Catholics differed most over which of the following issues?

a)

whether the Bible was the sole authority on religious doctrine

b)

whether churches had the authority to excommunicate members

c)

whether the Lord's Supper was a legitimate sacrament

d)

whether churches should be allowed to acquire property

42.

Which of the following responses best describes a major aim of Enlightenment thinkers?

a)

establishing an equitable basis for distributing property and wealth

b)

removing obstacles to direct democracy

c)

devising a broadly acceptable synthesis of secular and religious thought

d)

creating a science of society capable of explaining the human condition

43.

Major technological innovations of the early Industrial Revolution focused on the processes required to:

a)

turn raw cotton into finished cloth.

b)

expand agricultural production.

c)

convert leather into boots and shoes.

d)

combine iron with stronger metals.

44.

Which of the following responses best describes the primary goal of Mohandas Gandhi's campaign of nonviolent disobedience in India during the 1920s and 1930s?

a)

ending conflict between Muslims and Hindus

b)

abolishing laws that discriminated against ethnic minorities

c)

reforming India's caste system

d)

securing Indian independence from British rule

45.

Which of the following responses best describes the significance of a major battle of World War II?

a)

The British victory at El Alamein forced Germany to withdraw from positions throughout the Mediterranean region.

b)

As a result of planes destroyed in the Battle of Britain, Germany lost air superiority over Europe.

c)

German losses at Stalingrad enabled the Soviets to assume the offensive on the eastern front.

d)

During the Battle of the Bulge, many of the United States' most experienced and battle-tested army units were destroyed.

46.

Which of the following responses best describes a major cause of armed conflict in the Balkans during the 1990s?

a)

cultural differences among ethnic groups in the region

b)

ideological disputes between the United States and the Soviet Union

c)

economic competition among countries of the region

d)

political disputes between socialist and conservative parties

47.

Which of the following developments was a major cause of increased environmental degradation around the world during the late twentieth and early twenty-first centuries?

a)

changes in global migration patterns

b)

the rise of increasing numbers of people into the middle class

c)

innovations in military technology

d)

the increased incidence of regional conflicts and civil wars

48.

In the quarter-century after World War II, Cold War rivalries had the greatest influence on decolonization and postcolonial development in which of the following regions?

a)

Southeast Asia

b)

South Asia

c)

Sub-Saharan Africa

d)

North Africa

49.

The South Korean economic miracle of the second half of the twentieth century was largely based on policies that:

a)

attempted to remove all barriers to the free play of market forces.

b)

focused on the creation of a strong consumer market within South Korea.

c)

combined government assistance and entrepreneurial initiative.

d)

promoted the establishment of foreign-owned businesses in South Korea.

50.

Which of the following responses best describes the main objective of the North American voyages of Jacques Cartier and Henry Hudson?

a)

to collect ethnographic information on American Indians

b)

to evaluate the timber and mineral resources of North America

c)

to discover a northwest passage to Asian markets

d)

to find suitable places for the settlement of surplus population

51.

Which of the following responses accurately describes the operation of one component of the triangular trade of the eighteenth century?

a)

Boston merchants exchanged lumber and fish in the West Indies for molasses and sugar, which were sold in Great Britain to pay for manufactured goods that were shipped back to Boston.

b)

New York merchants exchanged flour and rum in the West Indies for salt and rice, which were sold in Great Britain to pay for tea and rum that were shipped back to New York.

c)

Philadelphia merchants exchanged tobacco and wheat in the West Indies for cotton and coffee, which were sold in Great Britain to pay for manufactured goods that were shipped back to Philadelphia.

d)

Charleston merchants exchanged enslaved Africans in the West Indies for grain and meat, which were sold in Great Britain to pay for tea and rum that were shipped back to Charleston.

52.

A major Antifederalist objection to the U.S. Constitution was that it:

a)

made inadequate provision for the promotion of economic development.

b)

gave too much power to the national government at the expense of state governments.

c)

made inadequate provision for the protection of frontier areas.

d)

gave too much power to the federal judiciary at the expense of Congress.

53.

Which of following political developments most influenced the emergence of the Democratic-Republican Party during the 1790s?

a)

the American Indian policy initiatives of George Washington

b)

the trade policies of John Adams

c)

the judicial decisions of the U.S. Supreme Court under John Jay

d)

the economic program of Alexander Hamilton

54.

Which of the following was a major aim of the Monroe Doctrine?

a)

to restrict population movement from Europe to the Americas

b)

to prevent European intervention in the affairs of independent nations of the Americas

c)

to strengthen commercial ties among the independent nations of the Americas

d)

to promote the formation of democratic governments in Latin America

55.

The Mexican War, the Kansas-Nebraska Act, and the Dred Scott decision all intensified disputes over which of the following questions?

a)

Should slaves be counted for purposes of representation in Congress?

b)

Should the international slave trade be reopened?

c)

Should slavery be allowed in the western territories of the United States?

d)

Should fugitive slaves be returned to their owners?

56.

After the Civil War, most emancipated slaves regarded which of the following as the necessary requirement for true freedom?

a)

migration to the North

b)

membership in a black church

c)

acquisition of a skilled trade

d)

ownership of one's own land

57.

Which of the following developments most influenced urban growth in western areas of the United States during the late nineteenth century?

a)

increased immigration from East Asia

b)

the expansion of the railroad network

c)

increased immigration from Latin America

d)

the expansion of the agricultural frontier

58.

Which of the following best describes the legal content of the Jim Crow laws passed by Southern state legislatures during the late nineteenth century?

a)

establishment of a system of racial subordination in workplaces

b)

restriction of the movement of African Americans

c)

establishment of a system of racial segregation in public facilities

d)

restriction of the political activities of African Americans

59.

Which of the following responses best describes an important economic development in the United States during the 1920s?

a)

The rise of mass consumerism led to increased production and consumption.

b)

Organized labor established a solid foothold in major manufacturing industries.

c)

The personal savings accumulated during World War I provided the basis for general prosperity.

d)

Government spending helped prevent joblessness throughout much of the decade.

60.

Which of the following developments was the most significant consequence of war mobilization in the United States during World War II?

a)

Women obtained access to many jobs that traditionally had been reserved for men.

b)

The distribution of government contracts transformed numerous small businesses into major corporations.

c)

Organized labor lost many of the gains it had made during previous decades.

d)

The Northeast and upper Midwest became the country's leading centers of industrial production.

61.

As a consequence of the immigration reform legislation of the 1960s, immigration to the United States increased most rapidly from which of the following regions?

a)

Eastern Europe

b)

East Asia

c)

Sub-Saharan Africa

d)

Latin America

62.

A major goal of the American Indian Movement (AIM) of the 1960s and 1970s was to:

a)

consolidate the electoral influence of American Indians.

b)

compel government termination of the tribal status of American Indians.

c)

advance the self-determination of American Indians.

d)

force the federal government to reorganize the American Indian reservation system.

63.

Which of the following responses best describes a major U.S. goal in the Persian Gulf War of 1990–1991?

a)

to prevent Iraqi development of weapons of mass destruction

b)

to halt the spread of Islamic fundamentalism

c)

to promote the formation of democratic governments in the region

d)

to protect U.S. access to regional oil resources

64.

Which of the following activities is the best example of the concept of interdependence?

a)

German trade with Saudi Arabia

b)

European Union efforts to stabilize the currency of a member country

c)

U.S. economic aid to Israel

d)

United Nations intervention in a conflict between two countries

65.

Which of the following research tasks is the best application of the fundamental geographic theme of movement?

a)

studying migration flows from rural areas to cities in a region over a decade

b)

mapping the distribution of climate zones across a continent

c)

measuring elevation changes along a mountain range

d)

comparing the percentage of households with mobile phones in each province at a single point in time

66.

The main use of geographic information systems is to:

a)

show spatial relationships between different kinds of information related to a region.

b)

assess a region from diverse social and cultural perspectives.

c)

analyze changes occurring over time in the economic geography of a region.

d)

determine the exact location of specific places within a region.

67.

Which of the following activities is best designed to promote student understanding of the relevance of geographic thinking to everyday life?

a)

Have students draw mental maps of significant landmarks in the community and explain in writing why they included each of the landmarks on their maps.

b)

Have students research major global landforms, bodies of water, and important locations and locate them on a map.

c)

Have students brainstorm a list of occupations that require the use of geography and explain in writing how two of the occupations employ geographic knowledge.

d)

Have students use an environmental footprint calculator from an Internet Web page to assess their individual impact on global resources.

68.

Which of the following locations is the best example of a contemporary city-state?

a)

Singapore

b)

Copenhagen

c)

Tel Aviv

d)

Mexico City

69.

Which of the following statements, if inserted into the blank line below, would accurately complete the chronology of major events and developments in Michigan history? The Treaty of Paris ends the French colonial struggle in Michigan. American Indian nations cede over six million acres of land in the Treaty of Saginaw. Michigan establishes the first land grant university in the United States. William Hull is appointed the first governor of Michigan Territory. Completion of the Soo Locks links Lake Superior to the other Great Lakes. Michigan becomes the 26th state in the Union. Michigan's population passes the one million mark.

a)

The Treaty of Paris ends the French colonial struggle in Michigan.

b)

William Hull is appointed the first governor of Michigan Territory.

c)

Completion of the Soo Locks links Lake Superior to the other Great Lakes.

d)

Michigan becomes the 26th state in the Union.

70.

Which of the following statements best describes a long-term consequence of Napoleon's decision to create an empire that encompassed much of Europe?

a)

Mercantilist ideas spread throughout Europe.

b)

Movements for liberal reform dissolved in most parts of Europe.

c)

Nationalist ideas spread throughout Europe.

d)

Feudal institutions revived in most parts of Europe.

71.

For a unit on the Progressive Era in the United States, a teacher has students read and discuss excerpts from a dozen autobiographies written by people of that era. This activity is best designed to help students:

a)

distinguish between fact and opinion in historical writing.

b)

analyze major debates about U.S. history.

c)

evaluate various ideas and values among historical actors.

d)

recognize the influence of the past on subsequent periods of history.

72.

A major difference between primary sources and secondary sources is that primary sources:

a)

do not provide interpretation of historical events.

b)

cannot be used to formulate historical questions.

c)

are generally the most reliable type of historical evidence.

d)

provide firsthand historical information.

73.

A person researching history would most likely use an encyclopedia for which of the following purposes?

a)

to obtain contextual information concerning a historical event

b)

to assess the validity of a revisionist interpretation of a historical event

c)

to evaluate competing narratives of a historical event

d)

to identify relevant primary sources for the study of a historical event

74.

A historian who is seeking information about status relationships in an early eighteenth-century New England community would likely find which of the following sources most useful?

a)

sermons concerning the responsibilities of community members

b)

correspondence between town officials and the provincial government

c)

minutes of meetings of the board of selectmen

d)

records showing the seating arrangements in local churches

75.

A historian would most likely adopt a regional perspective for which of the following studies of U.S. economic development in the late nineteenth century?

a)

explaining how corporate leaders attempted to limit competition and maximize profits

b)

comparing the careers of prominent industrial leaders

c)

explaining how innovations in transportation and communication transformed the economy

d)

comparing ways in which businesses organized the work process

76.

Which of the following provided the foundation for the establishment of towns during the Neolithic age?

a)

the development of metalworking processes

b)

the production of agricultural surpluses

c)

the creation of record-keeping systems

d)

the establishment of tax collection procedures

77.

A shared characteristic of ancient Greek and Roman civilizations is that both civilizations:

a)

developed an extensive road system.

b)

placed a high value on manual labor.

c)

adopted similar approaches to art and literature.

d)

established egalitarian social structures.

78.

Which of the following responses best describes a major function of Confucianism in traditional Chinese society?

a)

to help people live in conformity with the dictates of nature

b)

to establish guidelines for proper social conduct

c)

to provide answers to questions about life after death

d)

to assist individuals facing major personal crises

79.

Which of the following individuals best fulfilled the Renaissance ideal of universal genius by demonstrating prowess in various areas of artistic and scientific endeavor?

a)

Dante Alighieri

b)

Raphael

c)

Leonardo da Vinci

d)

Petrarch

80.

Books that are published each year to express current information for consideration in the coming year.

a)

Encyclopedia

b)

Atlas

c)

Almanac

d)

Periodical

81.

Resources that cover a variety of topics broadly for the purpose of giving the reader an overview

a)

Almanac

b)

Bibliography

c)

Encyclopedia

d)

Periodical guide

82.

A list of resources used in composing a scholarly work

a)

Index

b)

Glossary

c)

Abstract

d)

Bibliographies

83.

A series of publications over time, usually in the form of magazines or journals

a)

Almanacs

b)

Periodicals

c)

Atlases

d)

Periodical Guides

84.

A resource that contains a list of important names to know about the given subject and a description of how they contributed to that field

a)

Encyclopedia

b)

Almanac

c)

Biographical Dictionaries

d)

Atlas

85.

Representations of land and territories that can display different factors

a)

Charts

b)

Maps

c)

Graphs

d)

Tables

86.

Objects created by humans

a)

Fossils

b)

Artifacts

c)

Landforms

d)

Ecosystems

87.

Biological, cultural, linguistic, archaeology

a)

Major branches of sociology

b)

Four divisions within anthropology

88.

First people to invent the wheel, brought irrigation systems into use and cuneiform. Hanging Gardens, First library

a)

Assyrians

b)

Babylonians

c)

Sumerians

d)

Phoenicians

89.

Group of people who used the Code of Hammurabi

a)

Assyrians

b)

Sumerians

c)

Hittites

d)

Babylonians

90.

Group of people who developed horse-drawn chariots

a)

Persians

b)

Phoenicians

c)

Assyrians

d)

Egyptians

91.

What did the Phoenicians use to navigate

a)

Compasses

b)

Ocean currents

c)

Stars, seamarks

d)

Wind patterns

92.

The first recorded epic

a)

Iliad

b)

Odyssey

c)

Epic of Gilgamesh

d)

Aeneid

93.

Important three inventions by Han Dynasty

a)

Gunpowder, compass, printing

b)

Great Wall, paper money, silk

c)

Iron plow, canals, porcelain

d)

Paper, porcelain, gunpowder

94.

Modern day City-States

a)

Tokyo, Seoul, Beijing

b)

Singapore, Monaco, Vatican

c)

Rome, Paris, London

d)

Dubai, Doha, Riyadh

95.

City State in history

a)

Athens, Sparta

b)

Medieval Italy, Egypt area

c)

Persia, Mesopotamia

d)

China, India

96.

Influencing the availability and cost of money and credit to maximum employment, stable prices, and moderate long-term interest rates

a)

Role of Congress

b)

Role of Treasury Department

c)

Role of Federal Reserve

d)

Role of IMF

97.

biggest difference between new england and main colonies

a)

Climate

b)

Religion

c)

Economy

d)

New England focused on fishing, lumber, and ship building. Middle Colonies focused on agriculture

98.

Attitude after the 7 years war in New England

a)

Loyalty to Britain increased

b)

Resentment if British increased when more authority and taxes were given

c)

Neutral feelings toward Britain

d)

Desire to expand west

99.

Dollar-for-dollar amount taxpayers claim on their tax return to reduce the income tax they owe

a)

Tax deduction

b)

Sales tax

c)

Tax credit

d)

Tariff

100.

Spread of Christianity is an example of

a)

Acculturation

b)

Assimilation

c)

Cultural Diffusion

d)

Cultural isolation

101.

A store advertises bargains that do not really exist to lure customers in, in hopes that they will buy more expensive merchandise.

a)

Price discrimination

b)

False advertising

c)

Monopoly pricing

d)

bait and switch

102.

Transition from feudalism to capitalism. Rising capitalist class (bourgeoisie) overthrew the feudal aristocracy

a)

Liberal view on French Revolution

b)

Conservative view on French Revolution

c)

Marxist view on French Revolution

d)

Nationalist view on French Revolution

103.

What type of land is in South Africa and Australia?

a)

Rainforest

b)

Steppe

c)

Desert

d)

Tundra

104.

Body of water north of Iran

a)

Persian Gulf

b)

Red Sea

c)

Caspian Sea

d)

Black Sea

105.

Body of water south of Iran

a)

Caspian Sea

b)

Persian Gulf

c)

Red Sea

d)

Arabian Sea

106.

Body of water west of Saudi Arabia

a)

Persian Gulf

b)

Arabian Sea

c)

Mediterranean Sea

d)

Red Sea

107.

Body of water south of Iran at tip of land

a)

Strait

b)

Bay

c)

Gulf

d)

Canal

108.

Author POV, What website, author has to gain

a)

Evaluating credibility

b)

Fact checking

c)

Determining Bias

d)

Corroboration

109.

what would federal reserve do if prices stable but unemployment went up

a)

Tighten monetary policy

b)

Increase reserve requirements

c)

Ease monetary policy to stimulate economy and lower unemployment. Lower interest rates which encourage spending

d)

Raise interest rates

110.

Economic hardship, food shortages and govt. corruption

a)

Reason for French Revolution

b)

Reason for Russian Revolution

c)

Reason for Industrial Revolution

d)

Reason for Chinese Revolution

111.

emphasize groups are diverse and distinct, get perspectives

a)

Cultural assimilation lesson

b)

Historical reenactment

c)

how would you show students cultural differences in indigenous people

d)

Lecture-based instruction

112.

Discontent with Shah's regime, economic hardships, strong backlash against western influence

a)

Reason for Cuban Revolution

b)

Reason for Iranian Revolution

c)

Reason for Arab Spring

d)

Reason for Chinese Communist Revolution

113.

Religion with life after death, no harm

a)

Hinduism

b)

Judaism

c)

Buddhism

d)

Confucianism

114.

What would increase supply of cotton shirt

a)

Increase wages

b)

Higher taxes

c)

Reducing production cost, increase efficiency, decline of cotton prices, raise in other products

d)

Trade embargo

115.

Investment in stocks and equities, venture capital and angel investments, mutual funds, IPOs, cryptocurrencies

a)

Safe investments

b)

Long-term savings

c)

Risky investments

d)

Fixed-income investments

116.

Lasting impact of Meiji Dynasty

a)

Isolation from world trade

b)

Decline of feudalism

c)

Japan = strong industrialized nation capable of resisting imperialism from West

d)

Collapse of monarchy

117.

Four Tigers

a)

Japan, China, India, Korea

b)

Hong Kong, Singapore, South Korea, Taiwan

c)

Thailand, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia

d)

Malaysia, Indonesia, Philippines, Brunei

118.

common features of democracy today

a)

Centralized power

b)

Free and fair elections, rule of law, human rights, free press

c)

State-controlled media

d)

Single-party systems

119.

The adoption of cultural traits, such as language, by one group under the influence of another.

a)

Cultural diffusion

b)

Acculturation

c)

Assimilation

d)

Ethnocentrism

120.

Where is Copper in South America

a)

Brazil

b)

Bolivia

c)

Chile and Peru

d)

Argentina

121.

why did us try to improve economic cooperation in latin america

a)

Expand territory

b)

Foster stability, counter rivals like China, create new opportunities

c)

Spread communism

d)

Increase military control

122.

Biggest consequence of Spanish-American War

a)

End of isolationism

b)

US emergence as global power

c)

Expansion of slavery

d)

Loss of European colonies

123.

A secret agreement between the Germans and the Russians that said that they would not attack each other

a)

Treaty of Versailles

b)

Munich Agreement

c)

Nazi Soviet Pact

d)

Potsdam Agreement

124.

Disease, Slave trade, new ideas transferred throughout world

a)

Effects of Industrial Revolution

b)

Effects of Imperialism

c)

Consequence of the Columbian Exchange

d)

Effects of globalization

125.

What direction did India and China get attacked from?

a)

East

b)

South

c)

Northwest and West

d)

North

126.

USed courts to fight Jim Crow and dismantle segregation. 1st black supreme court justice

a)

Malcolm X

b)

Martin Luther King Jr.

c)

Thurgood Marshall

d)

W.E.B. Du Bois

127.

Justinians effect on Byzantium

a)

Expansion of trade

b)

Military reforms

c)

Legal Reforms

d)

Religious schism

128.

Protests can achieve things as can non violence actions

a)

Sociologist takeaway

b)

Historian takeaway

c)

Political Scientist Takeaway from Gandhi

d)

Economic takeaway

129.

Vegetation in mountain changes drastically. What illustration does this show?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Erosion

c)

Transition

d)

Migration

130.

Soil and water conservation, increased land productivity, reduces runoff, erosion

a)

Benefits of crop rotation

b)

Benefits of irrigation

c)

Benefits of terrace farming

d)

Benefits of deforestation

131.

First permanent English Colony due to its rich climate and soil

a)

Plymouth

b)

Massachusetts

c)

Virginia

d)

Maryland

132.

Summers are hot and winters are cold. Rainfall is sparse

a)

Desert

b)

Tundra

c)

Steppe

d)

Tropical

133.

Long growing season, hot dry summer, mild winter. Sparse rainfall occurs mostly during winter

a)

Tropical rainforest

b)

Mediterranean

c)

Humid continental

d)

Marine west coast

134.

Religions from oldest to newest

a)

Judaism, Christianity, Islam, Buddhism, Hinduism

b)

Hinduism, Buddhism, Judaism, Christianity, Islam

c)

Hinduism, Judaism, Buddhism, Christianity, Islam

d)

Buddhism, Hinduism, Judaism, Christianity, Islam