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Networking Fundamentals Worksheet

Total questions: 47

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main difference between a centralized network and a peer-to-peer network?

a)

Centralized networks do not require hardware

b)

Peer-to-peer networks rely on a dedicated server

c)

Centralized networks rely on a central server

d)

Peer-to-peer networks are more secure

2.

Which is a disadvantage of a peer-to-peer network?

a)

High cost

b)

Difficult to manage security and backups

c)

Requires a server

d)

Limited scalability

3.

What device connects multiple networks together?

a)

Switch

b)

Hub

c)

Router

d)

Bridge

4.

Which device forwards traffic based on MAC addresses?

a)

Router

b)

Switch

c)

Firewall

d)

Modem

5.

A PAN typically connects devices within:

a)

A city

b)

A campus

c)

A room or personal space

d)

A country

6.

Which network type spans large geographic distances?

a)

LAN

b)

MAN

c)

WAN

d)

PAN

7.

A LAN is best described as:

a)

Internet-wide

b)

City-wide

c)

Personal

d)

Local and privately owned

8.

A converged network supports:

a)

Only data

b)

Only voice

c)

Voice, video, and data

d)

Wireless only

9.

What does fault tolerance allow a network to do?

a)

Increase speed

b)

Continue functioning during failures

c)

Encrypt data

d)

Reduce cost

10.

Reliability refers to a network’s ability to:

a)

Be upgraded

b)

Prevent unauthorized access

c)

Deliver data consistently

d)

Support wireless devices

11.

What does Quality of Service (QoS) control?

a)

Network authentication

b)

Packet encryption

c)

Traffic priority

d)

IP addressing

12.

Confidentiality ensures:

a)

Data is always available

b)

Data is not modified

c)

Only authorized users can access data

d)

Data travels faster

13.

Integrity ensures:

a)

Data is private

b)

Data remains unchanged

c)

Data is accessible

d)

Data is encrypted

14.

Availability ensures:

a)

Data is accurate

b)

Data is private

c)

Systems are accessible when needed

d)

Data is compressed

15.

Which connection is considered out-of-band?

a)

SSH

b)

Telnet

c)

Console

d)

HTTPS

16.

Which connection method is NOT secure?

a)

SSH

b)

Console

c)

Telnet

d)

HTTPS

17.

What is in-band management?

a)

Management over a separate physical connection

b)

Management over the production network

c)

Management without authentication

d)

Management using ROM

18.

What can you do in user EXEC mode?

a)

Configure interfaces

b)

View limited status information

c)

Change passwords

d)

Save configurations

19.

Which mode allows access to show running-config?

a)

User EXEC

b)

Privileged EXEC

c)

Global Configuration

d)

ROM Monitor

20.

Where do you configure device-wide settings?

a)

User EXEC

b)

Privileged EXEC

c)

Global Configuration

d)

Interface mode

21.

What does service password-encryption do?

a)

Encrypts traffic

b)

Encrypts stored passwords

c)

Enables SSH

d)

Encrypts startup-config

22.

RAM stores:

a)

Startup configuration

b)

Running configuration

c)

IOS permanently

d)

Bootstrap code

23.

NVRAM stores:

a)

Startup configuration

b)

Running configuration

c)

IOS permanently

d)

Session logs

24.

ROM contains:

a)

Startup-config

b)

Running-config

c)

Bootstrap and POST

d)

Interface configs

25.

IPv4 addresses are:

a)

64 bits

b)

128 bits

c)

32 bits

d)

16 bits

26.

IPv6 addresses use:

a)

Decimal

b)

Binary

c)

Hexadecimal

d)

Octal

27.

What skill is required for this exam?

a)

MAC filtering

b)

Decimal-to-binary conversion

c)

Packet sniffing

d)

Encryption

28.

TCP provides:

a)

Faster transmission

b)

No error checking

c)

Reliable, ordered delivery

d)

Broadcast only

29.

UDP is best for:

a)

File transfers

b)

Email

c)

Streaming and VoIP

d)

Authentication

30.

DNS is used to:

a)

Assign IPs

b)

Resolve MAC addresses

c)

Translate domain names

d)

Encrypt traffic

31.

ARP resolves:

a)

Hostnames to IPs

b)

IPs to MAC addresses

c)

Ports to protocols

d)

Frames to packets

32.

SLAAC is used with:

a)

IPv4

b)

TCP

c)

IPv6

d)

UDP

33.

How many layers are in the OSI model?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

34.

Which OSI layer handles encapsulation into frames?

a)

Network

b)

Transport

c)

Data Link

d)

Physical

35.

What PDU belongs to the Network layer?

a)

Bits

b)

Frames

c)

Packets

d)

Segments

36.

During de-encapsulation, data moves:

a)

Physical → Application

b)

Application → Physical

c)

Network → Transport

d)

Data Link → Physical

37.

A default gateway is:

a)

A switch

b)

A firewall

c)

A router interface

d)

A DNS server

38.

Latency refers to:

a)

Data speed

b)

Data size

c)

Delay

d)

Error rate

39.

Goodput measures:

a)

Total bandwidth

b)

Raw speed

c)

Useful data delivered

d)

Cable quality

40.

Which cable automatically adjusts transmit/receive pairs?

a)

Straight-through

b)

Crossover

c)

Rollover

d)

Auto-MDI-X

41.

Which cable connects PC to switch?

a)

Rollover

b)

Crossover

c)

Straight-through

d)

Fiber

42.

Which cable is used for console access?

a)

Fiber

b)

Crossover

c)

Straight-through

d)

Rollover

43.

Which cable supports the longest distance?

a)

Cat5e

b)

Cat6

c)

Copper

d)

Fiber optic

44.

Single-mode fiber is best for:

a)

Short distances

b)

LANs

c)

Long-distance WANs

d)

Home networks

45.

Wi-Fi uses which IEEE standard?

a)

802.3

b)

802.11

46.

Bluetooth uses:

a)

802.11

b)

802.15

c)

802.16

d)

802.3

47.

IoT devices commonly use:

a)

Fiber only

b)

Copper only

c)

Wireless signals

d)

Satellite only