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Test 2 737MAX PAJ

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The amber TR UNIT light illuminates when:

a)

TRU 3 fails in flight only

b)

TRU 2 fails in flight only

c)

TRU 1 fails in flight only

d)

AC power is not available

2.

The TR Unit BITE test is performed from:

a)

P8 overhead panel

b)

P6 circuit breaker panel

c)

P5-13 electrical panel

d)

CDU maintenance pages

3.

The amber DRIVE light illuminates when:

a)

The generator is overloaded

b)

The IDG oil pressure is low or temperature is high

c)

The bus is unpowered

d)

The generator breaker is open

4.

The EPC contactor is located in the:

a)

Flight deck

b)

FWD compartment

c)

Main electrical power panel

d)

Battery compartment

5.

To reconnect an IDG, the aircraft must be:

a)

In flight

b)

On ground with engine running

c)

On ground with engine shutdown

d)

Powered by GPU only

6.

The amber BAT DISCHARGE light illuminates when:

a)

Battery temperature is high

b)

Battery is supplying excessive current

c)

Battery voltage is normal

d)

Battery charger is operating

7.

The primary function of the BPCU is to:

a)

Control TR units

b)

Monitor battery charging and protection

c)

Control IDG operation

d)

Control external power

8.

When external power is connected, which system controls battery charging?

a)

TR Unit

b)

Generator Control Unit

c)

BPCU

d)

EPC

9.

A failed TR unit will result in:

a)

Loss of all AC power

b)

Reduced DC power redundancy

c)

Loss of battery protection

d)

Generator disconnect

10.

Which bus is normally powered by the battery?

a)

AC Transfer Bus

b)

DC Ground Service Bus

c)

Battery Bus

d)

Standby AC Bus

11.

The Fuel Quantity Processor Unit (FQPU) is located in the:

a)

Flight deck

b)

Cargo compartment

c)

EE compartment

d)

Wheel well

12.

The INSUFFICIENT FUEL indication appears when:

a)

Fuel temperature is low

b)

Fuel quantity is below dispatch requirements

c)

Fuel imbalance exists

d)

Fuel pumps fail

13.

The FUEL DISAGREE message indicates:

a)

Fuel differences is detected by FMC

b)

Left and right fuel indications differ beyond limits

c)

Fuel temperature disagreement

d)

Refuel valve failure

14.

The USING RSV FUEL message indicates:

a)

Center tank fuel is being used

b)

Main tank fuel is depleted

c)

Reserve fuel is being consumed

d)

Fuel pumps are off

15.

The FQIS BITE test is performed from:

a)

P5 overhead panel

b)

P6 circuit breaker panel

c)

CDU maintenance pages

d)

EEC test panel

16.

Fuel quantity is measured using:

a)

Flow meters

b)

Pressure sensors

c)

Capacitance probes

d)

Temperature sensors

17.

A failure of the FQPU will result in:

a)

Fuel leak warning

b)

Fuel quantity blanking

c)

Engine shutdown

d)

Crossfeed inoperative

18.

Fuel temperature is primarily used to:

a)

Control fuel pumps

b)

Correct fuel density calculations

c)

Control engine thrust

d)

Detect contamination

19.

The APU can supply pneumatic air up to approximately:

a)

FL100

b)

FL170

c)

FL200

d)

FL250

20.

The APU ECU is located in the:

a)

Flight deck

b)

Tail cone

c)

EE compartment

d)

Wheel well

21.

The Data Memory Module (DMM) stores:

a)

Flight data

b)

APU maintenance fault history

c)

Navigation databases

d)

Engine trend data

22.

APU bleed air is Controlled by:

a)

EEC

b)

ECU

c)

IASC

d)

Fuel system

23.

The APU ECU is located:

a)

FWD Compartment

b)

AFT Cargo Compartment

c)

E/E Compartment

d)

Cockpit

24.

An APU shutdown may be caused by:

a)

Low oil pressure

b)

Overspeed

c)

High EGT

d)

All of the above

25.

The main engine modules include:

a)

Fan, Core and LP Modules

b)

Fan and exhaust only

c)

Gearbox and accessories only

d)

Fuel and ignition systems

26.

The High Pressure Compressor (HPC) has:

a)

5 stages

b)

8 stages

c)

10 stages

d)

12 stages

27.

The High Pressure Turbine (HPT) has:

a)

One stage

b)

Two stages

c)

Three stages

d)

Four stages

28.

The Low Pressure Turbine (LPT) has:

a)

Two stages

b)

Five stages

c)

Six stages

d)

Eight stages

29.

The engine has how many main bearings?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

7

d)

9

30.

Ball bearings are primarily used to:

a)

Carry axial loads

b)

Carry radial loads only

c)

Reduce oil pressure

d)

Drive accessories

31.

Roller bearings are primarily used to:

a)

Carry axial loads

b)

Carry radial loads

c)

Balance the rotor

d)

Drive the fan

32.

Engine balance weights are installed on the:

a)

Fan blades

b)

Platform front shroud

c)

Rotating shafts

d)

Turbine blades

33.

The Accessory Gearbox (AGB) drives:

a)

Fuel pump, oil pump, IDG

b)

Fan only

c)

Turbine only

d)

Starter only

34.

The AGB is driven by the:

a)

Fan shaft

b)

LPC shaft

c)

HP shaft

d)

Gear train only

35.

Each engine has how many EGT sensors?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

12

d)

18

36.

Engine vibration is calculated using inputs from:

a)

N1 and N2 sensors

b)

N1 Bearing Accelerometer

c)

N1 Bearing Accelerometer

d)

All of the above

37.

The maximum EGT limit is monitored during

a)

Cruise only

b)

Start and takeoff

c)

Shutdown

d)

Taxi

38.

The ENG FAIL message indicates

a)

Engine fire

b)

Loss of thrust or severe malfunction

c)

Fuel leak

d)

EGT exceedance only

39.

Engine vibration data is processed by the

a)

ADIRS

b)

EEC

c)

FCC

d)

FDR

40.

Excessive vibration may result in

a)

Maintenance message only

b)

Engine shutdown

c)

Autothrottle disconnect

d)

All of the above

41.

The engine fuel pump contains:

a)

One pump only

b)

Low pressure pump only

c)

Low- and high-pressure pumps

d)

Electric pumps only

42.

The PMA provides electrical power when:

a)

Engine is shut down

b)

N2 reaches a minimum speed

c)

Battery voltage is low

d)

Generator fails

43.

The Data Entry Plug is located on the:

a)

Engine case

b)

EEC

c)

Flight deck

d)

Pressure sub-system

44.

The function of the Data Entry Plug is to:

a)

Store engine trust configuration

b)

Control fuel flow

c)

Measure vibration

d)

Control ignition

45.

P3B pressure input is used to:

a)

Control oil pressure

b)

Control Start scheduling

c)

Control ignition timing

d)

Monitor Engine Bleed Air

46.

The ALTN light on the EEC indicates:

a)

Backup channel mode operation

b)

Engine shutdown

c)

Fire detection

d)

ADIRU Data Lost

47.

The ENGINE CONTROL light indicates:

a)

Normal operation

b)

EEC fault or non-dispatchable fault

c)

Fire detection

d)

Fuel imbalance

48.

The PMA begins supplying power at approximately:

a)

8.5% N2

b)

12.5% N2

c)

32% N2

d)

51% N2

49.

The MTC function is to:

a)

Control thrust reverser

b)

Colds HPT first stage

c)

Control fuel temperature

d)

Control oil pressure

50.

The TBV controls:

a)

HPC airflow

b)

LPC airflow

c)

Fuel flow

d)

Oil flow

51.

The SB/BAI position is sensed by:

a)

Pressure switches

b)

LVDT

c)

RVDT

d)

Proximity switches

52.

SB/BAI actuators use which fluid?

a)

Hydraulic

b)

Oil

c)

Electrical

d)

Fuel

53.

The EEC receiving the ODMS signal is:

a)

EEC A only

b)

EEC B only

c)

Both EECs

d)

Neither EEC

54.

The Sump Eductor uses air from the:

a)

HPC 7th stage air

b)

Bleed air system

c)

Core exhaust

d)

Ram air

55.

In normal operation, standby ignition powers:

a)

Igniter A only

b)

Igniter B only

c)

Both igniters

d)

Neither igniter

56.

The EEC calculates motoring time using:

a)

N1 only

b)

N2 and EGT

c)

T3 and TCF

d)

Fuel flow

57.

During motoring, the EEC controls:

a)

Fuel flow

b)

Ignition

c)

Starter and air flow

d)

Thrust reverser

58.

The starter valve closes at approximately:

a)

35% N2

b)

41% N2

c)

56% N2

d)

63% N2

59.

Thrust reverser movement is controlled by the:

a)

EEC

b)

TCM

c)

Hydraulics only

d)

FCC

60.

REVERSER LIMITED indicates:

a)

Reverser fully deployed

b)

Limited reverser operation

c)

Reverser stowed

d)

Engine shutdown

61.

The PTU function is to:

a)

Transfer fuel

b)

Transfer electrical power

c)

Transfer hydraulic power

d)

Cool hydraulic fluid

62.

The PTU activates when:

a)

Both systems are pressurized

b)

EDP B pressure drops

c)

Engine is shut down

d)

Parking brake is set

63.

The landing gear lever contains how many microswitches?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Ten

d)

Five

64.

Opening the manual gear extension panel causes:

a)

Gear to extend

b)

Selector valve to bypass mode

c)

Hydraulics to shut down

d)

Gear lever lock

65.

The Broken Cable Compensator is part of the:

a)

Landing gear

b)

NW steering system

c)

Brake system

d)

Flap system

66.

FLAP SKEW occurs when:

a)

One flap corner moves faster

b)

Left and right flap positions differ

c)

Slats fail

d)

Asymmetry protection activates

67.

TAKEOFF CONFIG warning occurs when:

a)

Aircraft speed is low

b)

Configuration is unsafe for takeoff

c)

Engine fails

d)

Autopilot is engaged

68.

The IASC contains separate sections for:

a)

Air supply and air conditioning

b)

Fuel and bleed air

c)

Cooling only

d)

Pressurization only

69.

The duct pressure indication is provided by:

a)

Pressure transmitter (PM)

b)

Temperature sensor (TM)

c)

Pressure transmitter 2 (PM2)

d)

CPC

70.

The DVV opens at approximately:

a)

20 psi

b)

100 psi

c)

148 psi

d)

70 psi

71.

The ZONE TEMP light illuminates when duct temperature exceeds:

a)

Normal range

b)

190F

c)

80 C

d)

100F

72.

Cabin altitude warning occurs at approximately:

a)

8,000 ft

b)

10,000 ft

c)

12,500 ft

d)

14,000 ft

73.

The NGS controller is located in the:

a)

Flight deck

b)

EE compartment

c)

Cargo compartment

d)

Tail cone

74.

The equipment cooling smoke detection will result in:

a)

Advisory only

b)

Automatic cooling reconfiguration

c)

Fire warning

d)

System shutdown