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Med surg Neuro Part 25 min

Total questions: 17

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a common cardiovascular sign of autonomic dysreflexia?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Hypertension

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Bradycardia

2.

Which procedures or situations may precipitate autonomic dysreflexia in a susceptible client? (Select all that apply)

a)

Bladder catheterization

b)

Rectal examination

c)

IV cannulation in the hand

d)

Frequent turning and repositioning

3.

A client with a spinal cord injury at T4 develops sudden severe headache, flushing above the level of injury, and sweating. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Place the client flat in bed

b)

Raise the head of the bed and remove the triggering stimulus

c)

Administer IV fluids rapidly

d)

Restrain the client’s extremities

4.

Multiple sclerosis is primarily caused by:

a)

Degeneration of dopamine-producing neurons

b)

Autoimmune demyelination of neurons in the CNS

c)

Depletion of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions

d)

Infection of peripheral nerves

5.

A client with a spinal cord injury at T4 suddenly develops severe hypertension, pounding headache, flushed face, and sweating above the level of injury. The nurse suspects autonomic dysreflexia. What is the priority nursing action?

a)

Place the client flat in bed and monitor vital signs

b)

Assess for bladder distention and catheterize if necessary

c)

Restrain the client’s extremities to prevent injury

d)

Administer antihypertensive medication

6.

A client is suspected of having bacterial meningitis. Which of the following are common signs and symptoms? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Negative Kernig’s sign

b)

Severe headache

c)

Stiff neck (nuchal rigidity)

d)

Negative Brudzinski’s sign

e)

Nausea and vomiting

7.

Which statement by the client indicates correct understanding of trigger avoidance in trigeminal neuralgia?

a)

“I will chew only on the affected side to exercise the muscles.”

b)

“I should massage the painful area to reduce discomfort.”

c)

“I should avoid very hot or very cold foods.”

d)

“I will brush my teeth with a firm-bristled toothbrush.”

8.

Which statement by a student nurse indicates a need for further teaching about lumbar puncture positioning?

a)

“The client can be on their side with knees to the chest.”

b)

“The client may sit up and lean over a table if side-lying is not possible.”

c)

“After the procedure, the client should be supine for several hours.”

d)

“The client should remain in Trendelenburg position after the procedure.”

9.

The nurse places a client in the side-lying, fetal position during a lumbar puncture. What is the primary purpose of this positioning?

a)

To increase cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) production

b)

To widen the spaces between vertebrae for needle insertion

c)

To prevent aspiration during the procedure

d)

To decrease post-procedure headache

10.

A client with glaucoma reports difficulty seeing objects to the side, describing it as seeing through “a tunnel” but states central vision is intact. The nurse recognizes this as:

a)

Cataracts

b)

Retinal detachment

c)

Open-angle glaucoma

d)

Macular degeneration

11.

Which of the following is the treatment for open-angle glaucoma? (Select all that apply)

a)

Beta-blocker eye drops (e.g., timolol)

b)

Oral antibiotics

c)

Corticosteroid eye drops

d)

Carbonic Anhydrase inhibitors (CAIs)

12.

A client reports seeing floaters, flashes of light, and a shadow or curtain over part of the visual field. The nurse recognizes these findings as characteristic of:

a)

Cataracts

b)

Retinal detachment

c)

Glaucoma

d)

Macular degeneration

13.

A client with a 15-year history of diabetes mellitus asks why they need regular eye exams. Which explanation by the nurse is most accurate?

a)

“High blood sugar can damage the small blood vessels in your retina, causing diabetic retinopathy.”

b)

“Your blood sugar can increase intraocular pressure, leading to glaucoma.”

c)

“Diabetes can cloud your lens, causing cataracts overnight.”

d)

“Retinal detachment is the only eye problem you need to worry about.”

14.

A client with Meniere’s disease asks how to prevent or reduce episodes of vertigo. Which instruction is most appropriate?

a)

“Avoid sudden head movements and get plenty of rest.”

b)

“Engage in strenuous exercise daily.”

c)

“Increase salt intake to retain fluids.”

d)

“Sleep with your head elevated on multiple pillows.”

15.

Which dietary modification should a client with Meniere’s disease follow?

a)

Low-sodium restricted fluid diet

b)

High-sugar diet

c)

High-caffeine diet

d)

Increased fluid

16.

Which lifestyle measure is recommended for a client with Meniere’s disease?

a)

Avoid alcohol, nicotine, and caffeine

b)

Increase salt and sugar intake

c)

Perform heavy lifting daily

d)

Sleep with excessive pillows to elevate the head

17.

Which auditory symptom should the nurse assess for in Meniere’s disease?

a)

Tinnitus and fullness in the ear

b)

Complete deafness from birth

c)

Hearing improvement

d)

Ear pain