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9.8 (i) Gastrointestinal Tract

Total questions: 175

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Instructions: Choose the single best answer (A–E) for each question. The digestive tract is also called the:

a)

Respiratory tract

b)

Urinary tract

c)

Gastrointestinal tract / alimentary canal

d)

Cardiovascular tract

e)

Endocrine tract

2.

Instructions: Choose the single best answer (A–E) for each question. Two important accessory organs mentioned are:

a)

Spleen and kidney

b)

Liver and pancreas

c)

Gallbladder and appendix

d)

Thyroid and adrenal

e)

Lung and heart

3.

Instructions: Choose the single best answer (A–E) for each question. The basic function of the digestive system is to provide continual supply of:

a)

Oxygen only

b)

Water, nutrients, and electrolytes

c)

ATP directly

d)

Red blood cells

e)

Antibodies only

4.

Instructions: Choose the single best answer (A–E) for each question. Gut physiology includes transportation, treatment, and:

a)

Filtration

b)

Absorption

c)

Ventilation

d)

Circulation

e)

Vision

5.

Instructions: Choose the single best answer (A–E) for each question. Digestion begins in the mouth mainly by:

a)

Gastric glands

b)

Masticating food and mixing with saliva

c)

Pepsin activation

d)

Bile secretion

e)

Pancreatic enzymes

6.

Instructions: Choose the single best answer (A–E) for each question. How many pairs of salivary glands are listed?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

7.

The three salivary gland pairs listed are:

a)

Parotid, submandibular, sublingual

b)

Thyroid, parathyroid, thymus

c)

Lacrimal, sweat, sebaceous

d)

Pancreatic, hepatic, gastric

e)

Tonsillar, thymic, splenic

8.

Salivation can be initiated by presence of food (taste) and also by:

a)

Pain only

b)

Temperature only

c)

Smell, sight, or thought

d)

Blood pressure changes only

e)

Exercise only

9.

Approximate saliva volume secreted per day is:

a)

0.2 L/day

b)

0.5 L/day

c)

1.2 L/day

d)

2.0 L/day

e)

5.0 L/day

10.

Saliva contains mostly mucus from glycoproteins called:

a)

Actins

b)

Keratins

c)

Mucins

d)

Collagens

e)

Elastins

11.

Mucins give saliva its:

a)

Acid production

b)

Lubricating action

c)

Oxygen transport

d)

Muscle contraction

e)

Bone strength

12.

Saliva contains large quantities of electrolytes including:

a)

Fe3+ and Mg2+ only

b)

Na+, Cl-, K+, and HCO3-

c)

Ca2+ only

d)

I- and F- only

e)

PO4 3- only

13.

Salivary amylase breaks down carbohydrates; starch becomes:

a)

Glucose

b)

Maltose

c)

Lactose

d)

Glycogen

e)

Cellulose

14.

Saliva contains a small amount of which lipase?

a)

Gastric lipase

b)

Pancreatic lipase

c)

Lingual lipase

d)

Hepatic lipase

e)

Lipoprotein lipase

15.

Saliva also contains:

a)

Antibodies

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Bile salts

d)

Pepsin

e)

Intrinsic factor

16.

Salivary glands have both sympathetic and parasympathetic:

a)

Blood supply

b)

Innervation

c)

Bone marrow

d)

Cartilage rings

e)

Alveoli

17.

Salivation is controlled by salivatory nuclei in the:

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Medulla oblongata

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Midbrain

e)

Spinal cord only

18.

In the slide, stimulation of parasympathetic system:

a)

Stops saliva secretion

b)

Speeds up saliva secretion

c)

Causes only bile release

d)

Causes only enzyme inhibition

e)

Has no effect

19.

The role of the sympathetic system in salivation is described as:

a)

Fully understood and dominant

b)

Unclear

c)

Absent

d)

Only hormonal

e)

Only mechanical

20.

Saliva contains two different secretions: mucus for lubrication and serous secretion containing:

a)

Pepsin

b)

Gastrin

c)

Salivary amylase

d)

HCl

e)

Intrinsic factor

21.

Saliva pH range given is:

a)

1.0-2.0

b)

2.0-3.0

c)

4.0-5.0

d)

6.0-7.4

e)

8.8-9.3

22.

This pH is optimal for action of:

a)

Pepsin

b)

Salivary amylase

c)

Pancreatic lipase

d)

Gastric lipase

e)

Trypsin

23.

The pharynx is also known as:

a)

Voice box

b)

Throat

c)

Windpipe

d)

Diaphragm

e)

Colon

24.

The pharynx is a common passageway for:

a)

Food only

b)

Air only

c)

Food, liquids, and air

d)

Blood and lymph

e)

Urine

25.

Food is prevented from entering the trachea by the:

a)

Uvula

b)

Epiglottis

c)

Vocal cords

d)

Tongue

e)

Pylorus

26.

The process of swallowing is called:

a)

Defecation

b)

Deglutition

c)

Perforation

d)

Filtration

e)

Emulsification

27.

Stage 1 of swallowing is:

a)

Oesophageal involuntary stage

b)

Pharyngeal involuntary stage

c)

Voluntary swallowing process involving the tongue

d)

Gastric mixing stage

e)

Duodenal stage

28.

Stage 2 of swallowing is:

a)

Voluntary tongue stage

b)

Pharyngeal involuntary reflex stage

c)

Small intestine segmentation

d)

Pyloric relaxation

e)

Enterogastric reflex

29.

Stage 3 of swallowing involves food bolus moved by:

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Peristalsis

d)

Ciliary beating

e)

Gravity only

30.

Peristalsis is best described as:

a)

Random muscle twitching

b)

Contraction above a bolus with relaxation below

c)

Contraction below a bolus with relaxation above

d)

Only longitudinal muscle contraction

e)

Only circular muscle relaxation

31.

Peristalsis occurs in:

a)

Oesophagus, stomach, and small intestine

b)

Heart and blood vessels only

c)

Trachea only

d)

Kidney tubules only

e)

Bone marrow

32.

Peristalsis is under control of the:

a)

Somatic nervous system only

b)

Autonomic nervous system

c)

Endocrine system only

d)

Skeletal system

e)

Immune system

33.

In the GIT structure diagram, the outer covering shown is:

a)

Serosa/visceral peritoneum

b)

Epidermis

c)

Pleura

d)

Pericardium

e)

Dermis

34.

The main layers listed in general GIT structure include mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and:

a)

Cartilage

b)

Bone

c)

Serosa

d)

Nephron

e)

Alveolus

35.

The mucosa includes epithelium and:

a)

Lamina propria with lymph nodes (as shown)

b)

Hyaline cartilage

c)

Compact bone

d)

Myelin sheath

e)

Osteons

36.

Muscularis mucosa is composed of:

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Smooth muscle

c)

Cardiac muscle

d)

Elastic cartilage

e)

Bone

37.

Submucosa inner tissue is:

a)

Smooth circular muscle

b)

Connective tissue

c)

Stratified squamous epithelium

d)

Mesothelium

e)

Neurons only

38.

Muscularis externa includes:

a)

Smooth circular and smooth longitudinal layers

b)

Only circular

c)

Only longitudinal

d)

Only skeletal

e)

Only cardiac

39.

Serosa outer tissue is:

a)

Mesothelium

b)

Keratin

c)

Transitional epithelium

d)

Bone matrix

e)

Striated muscle

40.

The oesophagus is a hollow muscular tube extending from:

a)

Mouth to duodenum

b)

Pharynx to stomach

c)

Stomach to colon

d)

Ileum to cecum

e)

Liver to pancreas

41.

The upper third of oesophagus has:

a)

Smooth muscle only

b)

Striated muscle (plus smooth) in muscularis and stratified squamous epithelium

c)

Cardiac muscle only

d)

No muscle

e)

Simple columnar epithelium

42.

The lower third of oesophagus has:

a)

Striated muscle only

b)

Smooth muscle only

c)

Bone support

d)

Cartilage rings

e)

Ciliated epithelium

43.

Approximate length of oesophagus given is:

a)

5 cm

b)

10 cm

c)

25 cm

d)

50 cm

e)

75 cm

44.

Approximate diameter of oesophagus at widest point is:

a)

0.5 cm

b)

1 cm

c)

2 cm

d)

5 cm

e)

10 cm

45.

The oesophagus enters abdominal cavity at the oesophageal hiatus opening in the:

a)

Liver

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Stomach wall

d)

Colon

e)

Pancreas

46.

A hiatus hernia is defined as:

a)

Excess saliva secretion

b)

Abnormal exit of tissue/organ through the wall of its cavity

c)

Inflammation of appendix

d)

Infection of pancreas

e)

Bleeding of gums

47.

Hiatus hernia may arise when the stomach pushes into the thorax through the:

a)

Pyloric sphincter

b)

Oesophageal opening in the diaphragm

c)

Ileocecal valve

d)

Anal canal

e)

Trachea

48.

The stomach is described as a dilated part of the alimentary canal where food is retained for:

a)

Respiration

b)

Physical and chemical treatment

c)

Blood filtration

d)

Bone growth

e)

Urine formation

49.

The stomach is a C-shaped organ high on the:

a)

Right side

b)

Left side

c)

Midline only

d)

Pelvic floor

e)

Thorax

50.

The stomach is partially hidden by the:

a)

Spleen

b)

Liver

c)

Pancreas

d)

Kidney

e)

Gallbladder

51.

Anatomically the stomach is divided into four regions but histologically into:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

52.

The three main histological regions listed are:

a)

Cardiac; fundus & body; pyloric

b)

Cecum; colon; rectum

c)

Duodenum; jejunum; ileum

d)

Oral; pharyngeal; anal

e)

Esophageal; ileal; rectal

53.

Entry to the short upper cardiac region is by a weak:

a)

Pyloric sphincter

b)

Gastroesophageal sphincter

c)

Ileocecal valve

d)

Anal sphincter

e)

Sphincter of Oddi

54.

Inner foldings in most of fundus and body are called:

a)

Villi

b)

Rugae

c)

Haustra

d)

Teniae coli

e)

Crypts

55.

Fundus and body form the major region with gastric glands that secrete:

a)

Bile salts and bilirubin

b)

Enzymes and hydrochloric acid

c)

Insulin and glucagon

d)

Salivary amylase

e)

Mucins only

56.

Gastric glands are best developed at the base of deep tubular glands in mucosa called:

a)

Intestinal villi

b)

Gastric pits

c)

Brunner's glands

d)

Peyer's patches

e)

Lacteals

57.

The base of a gastric pit has between one and seven:

a)

Pancreatic acini

b)

Gastric glands

c)

Liver lobules

d)

Nephrons

e)

Alveoli

58.

In muscularis externa of stomach there is an additional layer of:

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Oblique muscle inside the circular layer

c)

Cartilage layer

d)

Bone layer

e)

Ciliated epithelium

59.

The pyloric stomach has deep irregular gastric pits and terminates in the:

a)

Cardiac sphincter

b)

Pyloric sphincter

c)

Oesophageal hiatus

d)

Ileocecal valve

e)

Epiglottis

60.

Gastric juice is mainly formed from secretions of which two cell types?

a)

Mucous + stem

b)

Parietal + chief

c)

G-cells + stem

d)

Goblet + Paneth

e)

Alpha + beta

61.

Parietal (oxyntic) cells secrete:

a)

Pepsin

b)

HCl

c)

Gastrin

d)

Mucus

e)

Salivary amylase

62.

Parietal cells are described as large rounded cells with:

a)

Microvilli brush border

b)

Intracellular canaliculus system

c)

Cilia

d)

Keratin layer

e)

Myelin sheath

63.

Chief (zymogen) cells secrete:

a)

HCl

b)

Pepsin

c)

Gastrin

d)

Mucus

e)

Bicarbonate

64.

Chief cells are clustered towards the:

a)

Neck of gland

b)

Base of gland

c)

Surface epithelium only

d)

Submucosa

e)

Serosa

65.

Mucous cells cover the luminal surface and extend into:

a)

Blood vessels

b)

Glands

c)

Serosa only

d)

Bone marrow

e)

Cartilage

66.

Enteroendocrine cells (G-cells) at base of gland particularly in pylorus secrete:

a)

Secretin

b)

Gastrin

c)

CCK

d)

Insulin

e)

Pepsinogen

67.

Stem cells are found in the:

a)

Base of pit only

b)

Neck of the gland

c)

Serosa

d)

Muscularis externa only

e)

Submucosa only

68.

Stem cells differentiate to:

a)

Become neurons only

b)

Replace all other gastric gland cell types

c)

Form cartilage

d)

Form bone

e)

Form red blood cells

69.

In pyloric stomach, deep irregular pits are lined mostly with:

a)

Parietal cells

b)

Chief cells

c)

Mucous cells

d)

G-cells only

e)

Stem cells only

70.

From the table, parietal/oxyntic cells are located mainly in:

a)

Cardiac region

b)

Fundic region

c)

Pyloric region

d)

Oesophagus

e)

Duodenum

71.

From the table, chief/zymogen cells are located mainly in:

a)

Cardiac

b)

Fundic

c)

Pyloric

d)

Pharynx

e)

Colon

72.

From the table, mucous cells occur in:

a)

Only fundic region

b)

Cardiac, fundic, and pyloric regions

c)

Only pyloric region

d)

Only cardiac region

e)

Only oesophagus

73.

Enteroendocrine cells (gastrin) are located in:

a)

Fundic

b)

Pyloric

c)

Cardiac only

d)

Oesophagus

e)

Small intestine only

74.

Food is moved in the stomach by peristaltic waves at approximately:

a)

1/min

b)

3/min

c)

10/min

d)

30/min

e)

60/min

75.

In the stomach, food is turned into a liquid paste called:

a)

Bolus

b)

Chyme

c)

Micelle

d)

Feces

e)

Plasma

76.

Gastric juices contain two enzymes:

a)

Trypsin and amylase

b)

Pepsin and gastric lipase

c)

Secretin and CCK

d)

Insulin and glucagon

e)

Rennin and bile salts

77.

Pepsin primarily digests:

a)

Fats

b)

Proteins

c)

Starch

d)

DNA

e)

Vitamins

78.

Gastric lipase digests:

a)

Proteins

b)

Fats

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic acids

e)

Electrolytes

79.

Pepsin is secreted as inactive precursor called:

a)

Trypsinogen

b)

Pepsinogen

c)

Chymotrypsinogen

d)

Procarboxypeptidase

e)

Prolipase

80.

Pepsinogen is converted to active pepsin by:

a)

Alkaline conditions only

b)

Acid conditions and active pepsin present

c)

Bile salts only

d)

Insulin

e)

Oxygen

81.

Pepsin is described as an endopeptidase with preference for peptide bonds of:

a)

Basic amino acids only

b)

Aromatic amino acids

c)

Glycine only

d)

Proline only

e)

Any bond equally

82.

The resultant peptides average about:

a)

2 residues

b)

4 residues

c)

7 residues

d)

20 residues

e)

100 residues

83.

Gastric lipase is described as:

a)

Very active

b)

Not a very active enzyme

c)

Only active in alkaline pH 9

d)

A hormone

e)

A mucus component

84.

Rennin in adult humans is:

a)

Present in high levels

b)

Not found

c)

Main protein enzyme

d)

Secreted by parietal cells

e)

Secreted by G-cells

85.

Rennin is thought to be present in newborns to:

a)

Digest starch

b)

Clot milk

c)

Neutralize acid

d)

Absorb fats

e)

Produce bile

86.

Mechanism of HCl production by parietal cells is described as:

a)

Fully understood and simple

b)

Poorly understood; involves intracellular canaliculi

c)

Done by chief cells

d)

Done by mucous cells

e)

Done by G-cells

87.

H+ ions are actively transported into the lumen of the:

a)

Blood vessels

b)

Canaliculi

c)

Submucosa

d)

Serosa

e)

Oesophagus

88.

Gastric juice secretion rate is about:

a)

0.5 L/day

b)

1.0 L/day

c)

2.0 L/day

d)

5.0 L/day

e)

10 L/day

89.

Gastric juice pH is approximately:

a)

6-7.4

b)

4-5

c)

2-3

d)

8-9

e)

12-13

90.

One mechanism initiating gastric juice secretion is neurogenic via:

a)

Optic nerve

b)

Vagus (X) pathway

c)

Femoral nerve

d)

Phrenic nerve only

e)

Sciatic nerve

91.

When food enters the stomach it causes distension detected by:

a)

Chemoreceptors in lungs

b)

Stretch receptors in stomach lining

c)

Photoreceptors

d)

Baroreceptors in aorta

e)

Pain receptors in skin

92.

Signals from distension are sent to the brain, triggering release of:

a)

Respiratory gases

b)

Digestive hormones for sustained stimulation

c)

Antibodies

d)

Red blood cells

e)

Urine

93.

Hormonal mechanism involves pyloric enteroendocrine cells secreting:

a)

Secretin

b)

Gastrin

c)

Insulin

d)

Salivary amylase

e)

Bile salts

94.

Gastrin is carried in blood to gastric glands in fundus and body to stimulate release of:

a)

Saliva

b)

Gastric acids

c)

Bile

d)

Pancreatic insulin

e)

Mucus only

95.

Very little absorption occurs in stomach except a few highly lipid-soluble substances such as:

a)

Glucose and amino acids

b)

Alcohol and some drugs

c)

Proteins

d)

Starch

e)

Minerals only

96.

Liquid chyme may remain in stomach for up to:

a)

30 minutes

b)

1 hour

c)

2 hours

d)

4 hours

e)

12 hours

97.

Chyme enters the small intestine intermittently a few millilitres at a time due to relaxation of:

a)

Gastroesophageal sphincter

b)

Pyloric sphincter

c)

Anal sphincter

d)

Epiglottis

e)

Ileocecal valve

98.

Control of chyme release is due to inhibitory feedback signals from the:

a)

Oesophagus

b)

Duodenum

c)

Colon

d)

Pharynx

e)

Liver

99.

The nervous inhibitory reaction from duodenum is called:

a)

Swallowing reflex

b)

Enterogastric reflex

c)

Salivation reflex

d)

Cough reflex

e)

Micturition reflex

100.

90% of recurrent ulcers are caused by a bacterium called:

a)

E. coli

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Helicobacter pylori

d)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

e)

Salmonella typhi

101.

Which slide page contains the learning outcomes for the lecture?

a)

Page 2

b)

Page 4

c)

Page 10

d)

Page 16

e)

Page 28

102.

What are the two main accessory organs of the digestive system mentioned in the slides?

a)

Liver and pancreas

b)

Kidneys and spleen

c)

Lungs and heart

d)

Gallbladder and appendix

e)

Thyroid and adrenal glands

103.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three main gut physiological processes listed?

a)

Transportation (ingestion)

b)

Physical and chemical treatment

c)

Absorption

d)

Respiration

e)

Secretion

104.

Which of the following best describes the function of the digestive system given in the slides?

a)

Provide a continual supply of water, nutrients and electrolytes to the body

b)

Pump blood throughout the body

c)

Filter wastes from the blood

d)

Coordinate voluntary movement

e)

Produce hormones for growth

105.

Which slide shows an image of the alimentary canal with labeled components?

a)

Page 4

b)

Page 6

c)

Page 8

d)

Page 12

e)

Page 16

106.

How many pairs of major salivary glands are described in the slides?

a)

One

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Two

e)

Five

107.

Approximately how much saliva is produced per day according to the slides?

a)

0.5 litres

b)

0.8 litres

c)

1.2 litres

d)

1.6 litres

e)

2.0 litres

108.

Which enzyme in saliva begins the digestion of starch into maltose?

a)

Salivary amylase

b)

Pepsin

c)

Gastric lipase

d)

Lingual lipase

e)

Pancreatic amylase

109.

Which ion is present in large quantities in saliva and helps buffer pH?

a)

Ca2+

b)

Mg2+

c)

PO43−PO4^3-

d)

HCO3-

e)

Fe2+

110.

Which of these is NOT listed as a component of saliva?

a)

Mucins (mucus)

b)

Electrolytes (Na+, Cl-, K+, HCO3-)

c)

Salivary amylase

d)

Lingual lipase (small amount)

e)

Pepsin

111.

What is the main role of mucus in saliva?

a)

Digest proteins

b)

Activate pepsinogen

c)

Provide lubrication

d)

Buffer gastric acid

e)

Transport bile salts

112.

Salivation is primarily controlled by which part of the nervous system?

a)

Somatic nervous system

b)

Autonomic nervous system

c)

Enteric only

d)

Central nervous system without autonomic input

e)

Peripheral sensory nerves only

113.

Which salivary secretion contains salivary amylase?

a)

Mucous secretion

b)

Seromucous only

c)

Serous secretion

d)

Lymphatic secretion

e)

Endocrine secretion

114.

What is the optimal pH range for salivary amylase activity mentioned in the slides?

a)

4.0–5.0

b)

6.0–7.4

c)

7.5–8.5

d)

2.0–3.0

e)

9.0–10.0

115.

What structure prevents food entering the trachea during swallowing?

a)

Uvula

b)

Soft palate

c)

Tongue base

d)

Epiglottis

e)

Palatine tonsil

116.

Which stage of deglutition is voluntary?

a)

First stage (involving the tongue)

b)

Pharyngeal involuntary stage

c)

Oesophageal involuntary stage

d)

Enteric reflex stage

e)

Gastric stage

117.

What term describes the coordinated contraction above and relaxation below a food bolus?

a)

Segmentation

b)

Peristaltic reflex

c)

Peristalsis

d)

Mass movement

e)

Pendular movement

118.

Peristalsis occurs in which parts of the GI tract as stated in the slides?

a)

Mouth and pharynx only

b)

Oesophagus, stomach and small intestine

c)

Large intestine only

d)

Stomach and large intestine only

e)

Oesophagus only

119.

Which layer of the gut contains villi and is primarily responsible for absorption?

a)

Mucosa

b)

Submucosa

c)

Muscularis externa

d)

Serosa

e)

Adventitia

120.

Which of these is NOT a layer of the GI wall shown in the slides?

a)

Mucosa

b)

Submucosa

c)

Muscularis externa

d)

Tunica adventitia (as a separate named layer)

e)

Serosa

121.

According to the general structure table, what tissue composes the serosa?

a)

Epithelium

b)

Smooth muscle

c)

Connective tissue

d)

Lamina propria

e)

Loose connective tissue with mesothelium (serosa)

122.

Which of the following best describes the mucosa according to the general structure table?

a)

Epithelium with lamina propria and lymph nodes

b)

Connective tissue with mesothelium

c)

Loose connective tissue only

d)

Smooth circular muscle layer

e)

Fatty tissue layer

123.

What type of epithelium lines the oesophagus?

a)

Simple columnar

b)

Stratified squamous

c)

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar

d)

Transitional epithelium

e)

Keratinized squamous only

124.

Approximately how long is the oesophagus as given in the slides?

a)

~25 cm

b)

~10 cm

c)

~50 cm

d)

~5 cm

e)

~100 cm

125.

Which third of the oesophagus contains mostly striated muscle?

a)

Upper third

b)

Middle third

126.

Which of the following statements about the oesophageal muscular composition is correct?

a)

The entire oesophagus is skeletal muscle

b)

Upper third has striated and smooth muscle; lower third smooth only

c)

The lower third has striated muscle only

d)

The muscularis mucosa is striated throughout

e)

There is no difference along its length

127.

Which of the following best describes the location of the oesophageal hiatus?

a)

In the cervical region

b)

Within the stomach wall

c)

At the ileocecal junction

d)

Opening in the diaphragm where oesophagus passes to abdomen

e)

Between the jejunum and ileum

128.

What is a hiatus hernia?

a)

Inflammation of the diaphragm

b)

Perforation of the oesophagus

c)

Stomach pushing into thorax through oesophageal opening

d)

Enlarged spleen pressing on stomach

e)

Herniation of the small intestine into the chest

129.

Which region of the stomach is entered through the gastroesophageal sphincter?

a)

Cardiac region

b)

Fundus

c)

Body

d)

Pyloric antrum

e)

Duodenum

130.

What are rugae?

a)

Glands that secrete HCl

b)

Inner foldings of the stomach mucosa

c)

Sphincters between stomach and duodenum

d)

Specialized parietal cells

e)

Submucosal nerve plexuses

131.

Histologically, into how many regions is the stomach divided according to the slides?

a)

Two

b)

Four

c)

Three

132.

Which of the following is described as a dilated part of the alimentary canal where food undergoes treatment?

a)

Esophagus

b)

Duodenum

c)

Stomach

d)

Jejunum

e)

Cecum

133.

Where are gastric glands best developed?

a)

At the base of deep tubular glands (gastric pits) in fundus/body

b)

In the serosa layer

c)

Only in the pyloric region

d)

In the submucosa

e)

On the surface epithelium only

134.

Which extra muscle layer is found in the stomach’s muscularis externa?

a)

Transverse muscle

b)

Circular only

c)

Longitudinal only

d)

Oblique muscle

e)

Diagonal muscle

135.

Which part of the stomach contains most gastric glands secreting enzymes and HCl?

a)

Pyloric antrum

b)

Fundus and body

c)

Cardia only

d)

Serosa surface

e)

Rugae tips only

136.

Which page includes the histology image of the stomach cross-section?

a)

Page 18

b)

Page 19

c)

Page 21

d)

Page 22

e)

Page 24

137.

Which two cell types mainly form gastric juice?

a)

Mucous cells and stem cells

b)

Parietal (oxyntic) and chief (zymogen) cells

c)

Enteroendocrine cells and mucous cells

d)

Stem cells and G-cells

e)

Goblet cells and Peyer’s patch cells

138.

What do parietal (oxyntic) cells secrete?

a)

Pepsinogen

b)

Mucus

c)

Hydrochloric acid (HCl)

d)

Gastrin

e)

Intrinsic factor only

139.

Where are chief (zymogen) cells located within the gastric gland?

a)

Clustered towards the base of the gland

b)

Lining the gastric pit surface

c)

In the neck region only

d)

In the serosal layer

e)

Within the muscularis externa

140.

Which nerve plexus is visible near the muscularis in the gastric gland illustration?

a)

Submucosal (Meissner) plexus

b)

Auerbach’s only

c)

Vagal nuclei in medulla

d)

Enteric subserosal plexus

e)

Myenteric (Auerbach) plexus shown near muscle layer

141.

Which cell type secretes gastrin?

a)

Parietal cells

b)

Chief cells

c)

Mucous cells

d)

Enteroendocrine (G) cells

e)

Stem cells

142.

Which cells line the deep irregular pits in the pyloric stomach?

a)

Parietal cells

b)

Mostly mucous cells

c)

Chief cells

d)

Smooth muscle cells

e)

Stem cells only

143.

What is the primary function of stem cells in gastric glands?

a)

Secrete HCl

b)

Produce mucus

c)

Differentiate into all other gland cell types

d)

Secrete pepsinogen

e)

Form the muscularis mucosa

144.

Which region contains most enteroendocrine G-cells?

a)

Fundus

b)

Body

c)

Pylorus

145.

Which cell type covers the luminal surface of the stomach and extends into the glands?

a)

Parietal cells

b)

Mucous cells

c)

Chief cells

d)

Enteroendocrine cells

e)

Stem cells

146.

Which of the following is true about the pyloric stomach?

a)

Has deep irregular gastric pits lined mostly by mucous cells

b)

Contains many parietal cells secreting HCl

c)

Is the main site of protein digestion by pepsin

d)

Has an extra longitudinal muscle layer only

e)

Is located superior to the fundus

147.

Which cell type secretes mucus in the stomach?

a)

Mucous cells

b)

Parietal cells

c)

Chief cells

d)

G-cells

e)

Stem cells

148.

Match the cell type to secretion: parietal/oxyntic cells — ?

a)

HCl

b)

Pepsin

c)

Mucus

d)

Gastrin

e)

Bile

149.

Which structure in the gastric gland increases surface area of parietal cells (visible on EM)?

a)

Microvilli of chief cells

b)

Villi in mucosa

c)

Rugae folds

d)

Intracellular canaliculi of parietal cells

e)

Pyloric pits

150.

Which page contains images and reference to TEM and LS of gastric glands (electron microscopy)?

a)

Page 18

b)

Page 19

c)

Page 21

d)

Page 22

151.

Which enzyme is secreted as an inactive zymogen called pepsinogen?

a)

Gastric lipase

b)

Pepsin

c)

Salivary amylase

d)

Pancreatic protease

e)

Rennin

152.

Pepsin preferentially hydrolyses peptide bonds of which type of amino acids?

a)

Aliphatic amino acids

b)

Basic amino acids

c)

Acidic amino acids

d)

Aromatic amino acids

e)

Sulfur-containing only

153.

How often do peristaltic waves occur in the stomach, as stated?

a)

1 per minute

b)

3 per minute

c)

10 per minute

d)

Once every 10 minutes

e)

Continuous without rhythm

154.

What is the average length of peptides produced by pepsin digestion as stated?

a)

2 amino acids

b)

4 amino acids

c)

10 amino acids

d)

20 amino acids

e)

About 7 amino acids

155.

Which of the following is a mechanism by which pepsinogen is activated to pepsin?

a)

Acidic conditions in the stomach and presence of active pepsin

b)

Alkaline conditions in the duodenum

c)

Pancreatic enzymes alone

d)

Presence of bile salts

e)

Exposure to saliva

156.

What happens to chyme during gastric digestion according to the slides?

a)

Becomes solidified into feces

b)

Turned into a liquid paste by peristaltic waves

c)

Immediately absorbed into bloodstream

d)

Coagulates into clot-like mass

e)

Evaporates into gas

157.

Which of the following is TRUE about pepsin described in the slides?

a)

It is secreted as active enzyme from parietal cells

b)

It digests lipids primarily

c)

It is an endopeptidase that digests proteins

d)

It functions best at alkaline pH

e)

It mainly generates free amino acids only

158.

Which of the following is NOT an active digestive enzyme in adult human stomach per the slides?

a)

Pepsin

b)

Gastric lipase (weak)

c)

Pepsinogen (inactive precursor)

d)

Intrinsic factor (not an enzyme)

e)

Rennin

159.

Which ion is actively transported into the lumen of parietal cell canaliculi?

a)

H+ (protons)

b)

Cl-

c)

Na+

d)

K+

e)

Ca2+

160.

Which of the following statements about gastric lipase is correct according to the slides?

a)

Gastric lipase is present but not very active

b)

Gastric lipase is the main fat-digesting enzyme in adults

c)

Gastric lipase converts pepsinogen to pepsin

d)

Gastric lipase is produced by parietal cells

e)

Gastric lipase is absent in humans

161.

Rennin is thought to be present in which population?

a)

Adult humans

b)

Newborns during first days of life

c)

Elderly only

d)

Non-mammalian species only

e)

Teenagers during adolescence

162.

Approximately how much gastric juice is secreted per day?

a)

0.5 litres/day

b)

1 litre/day

c)

2 litres/day

d)

5 litres/day

163.

Which nerve is involved in the neurogenic stimulation of gastric secretion?

a)

Facial (VII)

b)

Vagus (X)

c)

Glossopharyngeal (IX) only

d)

Phrenic

e)

Hypoglossal (XII)

164.

Which hormone stimulates gastric acid secretion and is produced by G-cells?

a)

Secretin

b)

Cholecystokinin (CCK)

c)

Gastrin

d)

Insulin

e)

Glucagon

165.

Which of the following statements about gastric secretion control is correct?

a)

It is mediated by neurogenic (vagus) and hormonal (gastrin) mechanisms

b)

Only hormonal control exists

c)

Only neural control from spinal cord exists

d)

Control is solely by the sympathetic nervous system

e)

There is no neural control

166.

What is the typical pH of gastric juice?

a)

6–7

b)

4–5

c)

2–3

d)

8–9

e)

Neutral (~7)

167.

Which substance is absorbed in significant amounts in the stomach?

a)

Alcohol (and some lipid-soluble drugs)

b)

Large peptides

c)

Monosaccharides

d)

Vitamins B12 in large quantities

e)

Amino acids extensively

168.

Chyme is released into the small intestine mainly through which structure?

a)

Gastroesophageal sphincter

b)

Ileocecal valve

c)

Pyloric sphincter

d)

Sphincter of Oddi

e)

Anal sphincter

169.

What feedback controls the release of chyme from the stomach into the duodenum?

a)

Positive feedback from gastric acid

b)

Inhibitory feedback signals from the duodenum

c)

Neural feedback from colon

d)

Direct stimulation by pancreatic enzymes

e)

Renal feedback mechanisms

170.

The enterogastric reflex and hormonal signals from the duodenum primarily inhibit what stomach activity?

a)

Secretion of saliva

b)

Emptying of chyme into the small intestine

c)

Production of pepsinogen

d)

Gastric peristalsis frequency

e)

Secretion of intrinsic factor

171.

Which of the following is true about the small intestine in the context of chyme handling?

a)

Chyme is stored there for days before absorption

b)

Chyme is admitted a few millilitres at a time from the stomach

c)

Chyme bypasses the duodenum entirely

d)

Small intestine relaxes to allow all chyme at once

e)

Pyloric sphincter does not regulate chyme flow

172.

Which bacterium is responsible for about 90% of recurrent peptic ulcers according to the slides?

a)

Helicobacter pylori

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Staphylococcus aureus

d)

Clostridium difficile

e)

Salmonella enterica

173.

How does Helicobacter pylori contribute to ulcer formation?

a)

By increasing gastric motility

b)

By directly producing excess acid

c)

By burrowing into gastric epithelium and damaging mucosal layer

d)

By blocking gastrin secretion

e)

By clogging the pyloric sphincter

174.

What is a common symptom time window for epigastric pain in peptic ulcer disease mentioned in the slides?

a)

Immediately after eating

b)

1 to 3 hours after eating

c)

Only at night

d)

Only on an empty stomach before waking

175.

What is the male:female ratio for gastric ulcers stated in the slides?

a)

1:1

b)

2:1

c)

3:2

d)

1:2

e)

5:1

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