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Metasmart Final Test

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Insulin is secreted by which cells of the pancreas?

a)

Alpha cells

b)

Beta cells

c)

Delta cells

d)

PP cells

2.

Type 2 diabetes is primarily characterized by:

a)

Absolute insulin deficiency

b)

Autoimmune destruction of beta cells

c)

Insulin resistance with relative insulin deficiency

d)

Excess glucagon secretion alone

3.

Incretin hormones are secreted from:

a)

Pancreas

b)

Liver

c)

Intestine

d)

Adrenal gland

4.

Which is a microvascular complication of diabetes?

a)

Stroke

b)

Coronary artery disease

c)

Diabetic retinopathy

d)

Peripheral arterial disease

5.

Diabetic nephropathy is best detected early by:

a)

Serum creatinine

b)

Blood urea

c)

Microalbuminuria

d)

Renal ultrasound

6.

Diabetic foot ulcers are mainly due to:

a)

Hyperglycemia alone

b)

Neuropathy and ischemia

c)

Infection only

d)

Insulin deficiency

7.

Which macrovascular complication has the highest mortality in diabetes?

a)

Stroke

b)

Peripheral arterial disease

c)

Coronary artery disease

d)

Retinopathy

8.

Erectile dysfunction in diabetes is due to:

a)

Psychological stress only

b)

Hormonal imbalance only

c)

Vascular and autonomic nerve damage

d)

Excess insulin

9.

Metformin primarily reduces blood glucose by:

a)

Increasing insulin secretion

b)

Reducing hepatic glucose production

c)

Delaying gastric emptying

d)

Increasing renal glucose excretion

10.

Sulfonylureas act by:

a)

Increasing insulin sensitivity

b)

Closing K+K^+ channels in beta cells

c)

Activating GLP-1 receptors

d)

Inhibiting DPP-4 enzyme

11.

DPP-4 inhibitors work by:

a)

Increasing insulin resistance

b)

Destroying GLP-1

c)

Prolonging endogenous incretin action

d)

Inhibiting SGLT-2

12.

SGLT-2 inhibitors reduce blood glucose independent of:

a)

Insulin secretion

b)

Kidney function

c)

Glucose load

d)

Calorie loss

13.

Pioglitazone improves insulin sensitivity via:

a)

PPAR-γ activation

b)

GLP-1 stimulation

c)

Insulin secretion

d)

Alpha-glucosidase inhibition

14.

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors mainly affect:

a)

Fasting glucose

b)

Post-prandial glucose

c)

Night glucose

d)

HbA1c only

15.

Combination therapy in diabetes is aimed at:

a)

Increasing pill burden

b)

Targeting multiple pathophysiological defects

c)

Avoiding lifestyle changes

d)

Replacing insulin

16.

Semaglutide primarily acts by:

a)

Increasing insulin resistance

b)

Enhancing glucose-dependent insulin secretion

c)

Blocking insulin receptors

d)

Increasing glucagon secretion

17.

A key effect of Semaglutide on appetite is mediated via:

a)

Liver

b)

Kidney

c)

Brain (hypothalamus)

d)

Pancreas only

18.

Bioavailability of oral semaglutide is improved by:

a)

Food intake

b)

SNAC carrier

c)

High-fat meals

d)

Enteric coating

19.

Semaglutide has which pharmacokinetic feature?

a)

Short half-life

b)

Once-daily injection

c)

Long half-life allowing once-weekly dosing

d)

Continuous infusion

20.

Which effect is NOT seen with semaglutide?

a)

HbA1c reduction

b)

Weight loss

c)

Increased hypoglycemia risk (monotherapy)

d)

CV risk reduction

21.

The SUSTAIN trials primarily evaluated:

a)

Insulin therapy

b)

Metformin combinations

c)

Injectable semaglutide

d)

Oral antidiabetics only

22.

SUSTAIN-6 demonstrated benefit in:

a)

Renal failure reversal

b)

Cardiovascular outcomes

c)

Neuropathy reversal

d)

Beta cell regeneration

23.

Typical starting dose of injectable semaglutide is:

a)

1 mg weekly

b)

0.5 mg weekly

c)

0.25 mg weekly

d)

2 mg weekly

24.

Most common side effects of semaglutide are:

a)

Hypotension

b)

GI symptoms (nausea, vomiting)

c)

Renal failure

d)

Hypoglycemia

25.

Semaglutide is contraindicated in patients with:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Type 2 diabetes

c)

Medullary thyroid carcinoma

d)

Obesity

26.

Oral semaglutide should be taken:

a)

With food

b)

At bedtime

c)

Fasting with water only

d)

After breakfast

27.

Semaglutide-induced weight loss is primarily due to:

a)

Diuresis

b)

Fat malabsorption

c)

Appetite suppression and satiety

d)

Muscle breakdown

28.

Compared to insulin, semaglutide has:

a)

Higher hypoglycemia risk

b)

Weight gain

c)

Glucose-dependent action

d)

Need for titration based on SMBG

29.

The biggest clinical advantage of semaglutide is:

a)

Only glucose control

b)

Weight loss with CV benefit

c)

Cheap cost

d)

Replacement of lifestyle changes

30.

In Type 2 diabetes, fasting hyperglycemia is mainly driven by:

a)

Reduced peripheral glucose uptake

b)

Increased hepatic gluconeogenesis

c)

Delayed gastric emptying

d)

Reduced renal glucose clearance

31.

Advanced glycation end products (AGEs) cause tissue damage mainly by:

a)

Increasing insulin secretion

b)

Cross-linking proteins and activating inflammatory pathways

c)

Enhancing glucose oxidation

d)

Reducing oxidative stress

32.

The most common cause of hospitalization in diabetics is:

a)

Nephropathy

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Cardiovascular disease

d)

Retinopathy

33.

Metformin improves insulin sensitivity primarily by activating:

a)

AMPK pathway

b)

PPAR-γ receptors

c)

GLP-1 receptors

d)

SGLT-2 transporters

34.

Sulfonylureas cause hypoglycemia mainly because they:

a)

Increase insulin sensitivity

b)

Stimulate insulin release irrespective of glucose levels

c)

Reduce hepatic glucose output

d)

Delay carbohydrate absorption

35.

DPP-4 inhibitors have low hypoglycemia risk because they:

a)

Do not affect insulin secretion

b)

Increase insulin only during hyperglycemia

c)

Act mainly on kidneys

d)

Reduce insulin levels

36.

Which patient would benefit most from SGLT-2 inhibitors?

a)

Lean young diabetic

b)

Diabetic with recurrent UTIs

c)

Diabetic with heart failure

d)

Diabetic with frequent hypoglycemia

37.

A unique advantage of SGLT-2 inhibitors over other OADs is:

a)

Pancreatic beta cell protection

b)

Insulin-independent glucose lowering

c)

Central appetite suppression

d)

Reduction of gastric emptying

38.

Semaglutide differs from native GLP-1 mainly because it:

a)

Has higher receptor affinity only

b)

Is resistant to DPP-4 degradation

c)

Acts on insulin receptors

d)

Is rapidly cleared by kidneys

39.

Which structural modification allows semaglutide to have a long half-life?

a)

PEGylation

b)

Fatty acid side-chain enabling albumin binding

c)

Enteric coating

d)

Enzyme inhibition

40.

SUSTAIN-6 was designed primarily as a:

a)

Glycemic superiority trial

b)

Weight loss trial

c)

Cardiovascular outcomes trial

d)

Renal outcomes trial

41.

Which patient profile is MOST suitable for semaglutide?

a)

Lean Type 1 diabetic

b)

Obese Type 2 diabetic with CV risk

c)

Elderly with recurrent hypoglycemia

d)

Advanced renal failure patient

42.

Compared to insulin, semaglutide offers which major clinical advantage?

a)

Faster glucose reduction

b)

Weight loss with low hypoglycemia risk

c)

No need for titration

d)

Lower GI side effects

43.

Semaglutide should be avoided or used cautiously in patients with:

a)

Mild hypertension

b)

History of pancreatitis

c)

Dyslipidemia

d)

Obesity

44.

Why is semaglutide not a replacement for insulin in Type 1 diabetes?

a)

Ineffective on beta cells

b)

Causes ketoacidosis

c)

Requires endogenous insulin presence

d)

Short duration of action

45.

If semaglutide is stopped abruptly, the most likely outcome is:

a)

Severe hypoglycemia

b)

Rebound hyperglycemia and weight regain

c)

Ketoacidosis

d)

Permanent GI damage

46.

Time in Range (TIR) in CGM refers to the percentage of time glucose remains:

a)

Below 70 mg/dL

b)

Above 250 mg/dL

c)

Between 70–180 mg/dL

d)

Between 100–140 mg/dL

47.

HFpEF (Heart Failure with Preserved Ejection Fraction) is commonly associated with Type 2 diabetes because of:

a)

Reduced myocardial contractility

b)

Diastolic dysfunction due to myocardial stiffness

c)

Acute ischemic injury

d)

Valvular heart disease

48.

The hypothalamus contributes to glucose and weight regulation primarily by:

a)

Producing insulin

b)

Regulating appetite, satiety, and energy expenditure

c)

Increasing renal glucose excretion

d)

Controlling pancreatic beta-cell mass

49.

The SNAC carrier used in oral semaglutide mainly:

a)

Inhibits CYP450 enzymes

b)

Neutralizes gastric acid and enhances transcellular absorption

c)

Acts as an enzyme inhibitor

d)

Delays gastric emptying

50.

A bioequivalence study is primarily conducted to establish:

a)

Clinical efficacy superiority

b)

Safety in special populations

c)

Comparable rate and extent of absorption between two products

d)

Long-term cardiovascular outcomes