wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

VIII RECAP

Total questions: 216

Worksheet time: 2hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In which season does this crop is cultivated

a)

rainy

b)

winter

c)

summer

d)

spring

2.

what is done last in agricultural practices

a)

irrigation

b)

sowing

c)

storage

d)

harvesting

3.

which of following picture is a tool for sowing

a)
b)
c)
d)
4.

process of seperation of grain and chaff is

a)

winnowing

b)

harvesting

c)

threshing

5.

2,4-d is a

a)

weedicide

b)

fertiliser

c)

pesticide

d)

manure

6.

what are tools used for preparation of soil

a)
b)
c)
d)
7.

Bacteria present in root of leguminous plants are called as:

a)

Lactobacillus

b)

Rhizobium

c)

Azotobactor

d)

Cyanobacteria

8.

Which of the following should be used by a farmer with a large farm to harvest his crops quickly and efficiently?

a)

Winnowing machine

b)

Combine

c)

Sickle

d)

Seed drill

9.

Compost is a

a)

manure

b)

pesticide

c)

weedicide

d)

Fertilizer

10.

Seed drill is used for

a)

sowing

b)

weeding

c)

harvesting

d)

cleaning the seed

11.

The chemical substances rich in nutrients are called

a)

weedicide

b)

pesticides

c)

fertiliser

d)

herbicides

12.

Supply of water to crops at appropriate intervals is called

a)

harvesting

b)

irrigation

c)

sowing

d)

cultivation

13.

Arrange the following agricultural practices in the order in which they are followed.


Harvesting

Sowing

Storage

Irrigation

Preparation of soil

a)

5→2→4→1→3

b)

2→1→3→5→4

c)

1→2→3→4→5

d)

5→3→4→1→2

14.

The process of loosening and turning the soil is known as:

a)

Ploughing

b)

Winnowing

c)

Threshing

d)

Harvesting

15.

Rhizobium bacteria in the root nodules of leguminous plants help in fixing:

a)

Oxygen

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Sulphur

16.

Which of the following is a rabi crop?

a)

Mustard

b)

Soyabean

c)

Rice

d)

Maize

17.

BHC (Benzene hexachloride) is a......

a)

fertiliser

b)

pesticides

c)

weedicide

d)

fungicide

18.

Nitrogen is absorbed by the plants in the form of

a)

Nitrates

b)

Ammonium

c)

Nitrites

d)

All

19.

Nitrogen fixation is the conversion of

a)

N2 to N

b)

N2 to NO3–

c)

N2 to urea

d)

N2 to NH3

20.

Ammonification is the formation of

a)

Ammonia from amino acids

b)

Ammonia from nitrates by nitrogen fixers

c)

Ammonia from nitrogen

d)

Ammonia from nitrates by decomposers

21.

Rabi Crops are grown in _______ season

a)

Winter

b)

Summer

c)

Spring

d)

rainy

22.

What is a crop?

a)

A house plant

b)

A cultivated plant that is grown on a large scale

c)

A succulent

d)

None of the above

23.

Which of the following is neither a kharif crop nor a rabi crop?

a)

Paddy

b)

Wheat

c)

Maize

d)

Watermelon

24.

Why is it necessary to maintain distance between two crops while the sowing of seeds?

a)

To prevent overcrowding

b)

To prevent competition between the crops for sunlight, nutrients, water, etc.

c)

Because its fun

d)

To protect it from weeds

25.

Harvesting is the process of

a)

separating grains from stalk

b)

preparing soil for sowing seeds

c)

collecting ripened crops from the field

d)

removing undesired plants from the crop field

26.

Transplantation is done in the case of

a)

Wheat

b)

Paddy

c)

Maize

d)

Barley

e)

Rice

27.

Weeds can be defined as

a)

Useful plants present in the field

b)

Undesirable plants present in the field

c)

Plants that cannot be used at all

d)

Undesirable insects present in the field.

28.

Manures are

a)

Organic in nature

b)

Inorganic in nature

c)

Organic as well as inorganic in nature

d)

None of above

29.

_________________ is the process of loosening and turning of the soil.

a)

Threshing

b)

Ploughing

c)

Levelling

d)

Manuring

30.

The practice of leaving the field uncultivated is called ____________

a)

wheat

b)

harvesting

c)

fallowing

d)

weeding

31.

Manure obtained by the decomposition of dead plants and animals is called __________

a)

winnowing

b)

green manure

c)

farmyard manure

d)

compost

e)

horse manure

32.

Supplying water to crops in the fields at specific intervals is called ________

a)

crop rotation

b)

fertilizing

c)

weeding

d)

irrigation

33.

Often water must be treated to become _______, safe to drink

a)

pathogen

b)

potable

c)

clarified

d)

bonifide

34.

Process used in water treatment process where water is pushed through screens, sand, gravel and coal to remove organisms and trash

a)

filtration

b)

chlorination

c)

coagulation

d)

bioreactors

35.

Which of the following is NOT a residential use of water>

a)

cooking and drinking

b)

washing dishes and clothes

c)

washing cars and watering the lawn

d)

watering the crops

e)

showers and toilets

36.

What is the best way to CONSERVE water use in an agricultural setting...

a)

low flow toilets

b)

reuse cooling water

c)

drip irrigation

d)

high power overhead irrigation

37.

The image here is how humans control rivers for the last few hundred years. This is

a)

diverting water thru canels

b)

create an aquaduct

c)

damming a river

d)

desalination plant

38.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of dams and reservoirs?

a)

man made lakes used for drinking water, recreation and industry

b)

hydroelectric power

c)

existing ecosystems changed, displacing species and humans

d)

flood control

39.

While expensive and inefficient now, the removal of salt from ocean water may help create more potable water in the future

a)

water transport

b)

towing icebergs

c)

desalination plants

d)

xeriscaping

40.
Plants absorbing groundwater and pumping it into the atmosphere is called
a)
Transpiration
b)
Sublimation
c)
Evaporation
d)
None of the above
41.

When two forces act in opposite directions, then net force acting is the

a)

sum of two forces

b)

difference between two forces

c)

both of these

d)

none of these

42.

The force exerted by a charged body on another charged or uncharged body is called

a)

gravitational force

b)

electrostatic force

c)

non-contact force

d)

contact force

43.

Two boys A and B are applying force on a block. If the block moves towards the boy A, which one of the following statements is correct?

a)

Magnitude of force applied by A is greater than that of B.

b)

Magnitude of force applied by A is smaller than that of B.

c)

Net force on the block is towards B.

d)

Magnitude of force applied by A is equal to that of B.

44.

Opening a door is an example of a

a)

(a) contact force

b)

(b) non-contact force

c)

(c) muscular force

d)

both (a) and (c)

45.

Force changes the

a)

motion of body

b)

speed of body

c)

shape of body

d)

all of these

46.

The pressure which is exerted by air around us is known as

a)

force

b)

atmospheric pressure

c)

muscular force

d)

friction

47.

Force acting on per unit area is called

a)

non-contact forces

b)

contact forces

c)

force

d)

pressure

48.

The force exerted by the earth to pull the object towards itself is called

a)

electrostatic force

b)

gravitational force

c)

muscular force

d)

contact force

49.

The strength of force is expressed by its

a)

weight

b)

mass

c)

magnitude

d)

longitudinal force

50.

A container is filled with water as shown in the given figure. Which of the following statements is correct about pressure of water?

a)

Pressure at A > Pressure at B > Pressure at C

b)

Pressure at A = Pressure at B = Pressure at C

c)

Pressure at A < Pressure at B > Pressure at C

d)

Pressure at A < Pressure at B < Pressure at C

51.

What is the SI unit of force?

a)

Newton

b)

Galileo

c)

Einstein

d)

Pascal

52.

Which of the following is proper example(s) to explain that force on an object may change its shape

a)

A ball of dough rolled into chapati

b)

Pressing a rubber ball kept on table

c)

Making model using clay

d)

All of the above

53.

A ball rolling on the ground slows down and finally stops. This is because of

a)

Force

b)

Less force applied

c)

Friction

d)

None of the above

54.

If In a tug-of-war, when two teams are pulling a rope, and the rope does not move towards any team, it implies that

a)

Equal force is being applied in the same direction

b)

Equal Force is being applied in opposite direction

c)

No force is applied in any direction

d)

Cannot be explained

55.

An example of a non- contact force is

a)

Force exerted by us to lift a bucket

b)

Push a stationary car

c)

Force exerted by magnet

d)

Hit a cricket ball for a 6 run

56.

The SI unit of force is (a)  

57.

The (a)   force can be used to gather iron pins scattered on the floor.

58.

If two forces applied to an object are equal and act in opposite directions, the net force acting on the object will be (a)  

59.

Which one among the following is not a type of non-contact forces?

a)

Muscular force

b)

Magnetic force

c)

Gravitational force

d)

Electrostatic force

60.

The pressure exerted by a liquid (a)   with depth.

61.

Atmospheric pressure (a)   with increasing height.

62.

The SI unit of pressure is (a)  

63.

A pressure of 10Pa acts on an area of 0.3 m2. The force acting on the area will be

a)

.03 N

b)

30 N

c)

3 N

d)

300 N

64.

friction is a _________ force

a)

Non contact

b)

Contact

c)

magnetic

d)

electrostatic

65.

Effects of Force are _____

a)

It may make an object move from rest.

b)

It may change the speed of an objecti if it is moving.

c)

It may change the direction of motion

of an object.

d)

It may bring about a change in the

shape of an object.

e)

It may cause some or all of these effects

66.

A rocket has been fired upwards to launch a satellite in its Orbit name the forces acting downwards on the rocket immediately after leaving the launching pad

a)

Propelling force of gases emitted by combustion of fuel

b)

magnetic force of Earth

c)

gravitational force of Earth

d)

no force acting downwards

67.

Identify the agent exerting the force while taking out paste from a toothpaste tube

a)

toothpaste tube

b)

toothpaste filled in the tube

c)

muscles of our fingers

d)

no force required

68.

Which type of force is force of gravity

a)

contact force and attraction

b)

non contact force and attraction

c)

contact force and repulsive

d)

Non contact force and repulsive

69.

Which of the following is a non contact force

a)

muscular force

b)

frictional force

c)

magnetic force

d)

mechanical force

70.

If we release a magnet held in our hand it falls to the ground the force responsible for this is

a)

magnetic force

b)

Electrostatic force

c)

Muscular force

d)

Gravitational force

71.
What is the unit of measurement for pressure?
a)
pascal
b)
grams
c)
milliters
d)
meters
72.

When you increase your depth under water, the water pressure on your body

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

73.

How do you Calculate Pressure

a)

Force(N)/Area(m2)

b)

Force(kg)/Area(mi2)

c)

Area(m2)/Force(N)

74.

Why won't you sink in mud if you wear boots?

a)

Because the surface area is larger creating less pressure.

b)

Has air in it to keep you floating.

c)

Because the mud won't want you.

75.

Diagram shows the design of a dam. Why does the thickness of the dam increase with its depth?

a)

The design of this structure is stronger.

b)

Water pressure increases with depth.

c)

The cost of construction is lower.

d)

Water pressure acts uniformly in all directions.

76.

Watch the tyres of tractor rolling. Rear tyres are broader because

a)

It looks good.

b)

Broader tyres lessen the muscular Force required.

c)

Broader tyres lessen the pressure on ground.

d)

Broader tyres lessen the friction on ground.

77.
The amount of force pushing on an area is the definition of....
a)
Fluid
b)
Viscosity
c)
Barometer
d)
Pressure
78.
Which of these animals would probably cause the greatest pressure on the ground?
a)
A fat cow with big feet
b)
A fat cow with small feet
c)
 A calf with big feet
d)
A calf with small feet
79.
Where would you find the largest pressure?
a)
At the bottom of the ocean
b)
At the top of Mt Everest
c)
Close to ground on the Scotch oval
d)
In a rockpool on the Great Barrier Reef
80.

This is an example of the everyday application of pressure in:

a)

Solids

b)

Liquids

c)

Gases

d)

Plasma

81.
Force the opposes motion between 2 surfaces
a)
force
b)
Newton
c)
friction
d)
net force
82.
What are 2 factors that determine the amount of friction between 2 objects?
a)
Force and roughness between surfaces
b)
hills and valleys and how smooth or rough the surface is
c)
Amount of force and amount of surface the comes in contact
d)
The force and the weight exerted on the surfaces
83.
Which of the following is an example of friction that is helpful?
a)
Brakes used on a bike
b)
Tires from a car on the road
c)
Tread on the bottom of your shoes
d)
All are examples that are helpful
84.
Which of the following is an example of friction that is harmful?
a)
Pencil marking on paper
b)
Engine parts wearing out
c)
sand placed on ice in the winter
d)
Using an eraser to erase marks
85.
Which would NOT be a way of reducing friction?
a)
making the surfaces smoother
b)
using lubricants such as waxes, oils, or grease
c)
changing from sliding friction to rolling friction using ball bearings
d)
Using kitty litter on snow and ice to help your car gain traction
86.
How does friction affect speed?
a)
more friction decreases speed
b)
more friction increases speed
c)
less friction decreases speed
d)
less friction doesn't affect speed
87.
Friction is a force that acts in an ___________ direction of movement.
a)
similar
b)
opposite
c)
parallel
d)
west
88.
A type of friction that occurs when air pushes against a moving object causing it to decelerate.
a)
surface area
b)
air resistance
c)
velocity
d)
gravity 
89.
What does friction produce?
a)
light
b)
sound
c)
heat
d)
gravity
90.
What is the bowling alley lane coated with to reduce friction?
a)
oil
b)
wood
c)
paint
d)
sand
91.

Without friction, an object in motion would never stop.

a)

true

b)

false

92.
Rougher surfaces have ...
a)
greater friction
b)
less friction
c)
the same level of friction
93.
The rougher the surface, the faster an object will travel over the surface.
a)
True
b)
False
94.
Wheels on a skateboard most likely experiences-
a)
Rolling Friction
b)
Sliding Friction
c)
Fluid Friction
d)
Static Friction
95.
Sally experiences-
a)
Rolling Friction
b)
Sliding Friction
c)
Fluid Friction
d)
Static Friction
96.
Wheels of a shopping cart experience-
a)
Rolling Friction
b)
Sliding Friction
c)
Fluid Friction
d)
Static Friction
97.
Swimming fish experience-
a)
Rolling Friction
b)
Sliding Friction
c)
Fluid Friction
d)
Static Friction
98.

The amount of sliding friction depends on which things?

a)

acceleration

b)

type of surface

c)

weight of the moving object

d)

the rotundness of the man on the pogo stick

99.

What is static friction?

a)

the friction between two objects that are not moving

b)

friction between a rolling object and the surface that it is rolling on

c)

friction is friction where an object rubs against another surface

d)

friction of something going through any type of liquid or air

100.

What is sliding friction?

a)

friction between two surfaces that aren't moving relatively to each other

b)

friction between a rolling object and the surface that it is rolling on

c)

friction where an object rubs against another surface

d)

friction of something going through any type of liquid or air

101.

The process of transfer of charges from a charged object to the earth is called

a)

earthing

b)

lightning

c)

oscillation motion

d)

electron movement

102.

The power of an earthquake is expressed on a scale called

a)

seismic scale

b)

iron scale

c)

Richter scale

d)

large scale

103.

Which instrument is used to measure earthquake?

a)

Richter scale

b)

Seismograph

c)

Polygraph

d)

None of these

104.

Which is not a natural phenomena?

a)

Earthquakes

b)

Cyclones

c)

Lightning

d)

Earthing

105.

How many types of charges are gained by rubbing objects?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

106.

Where is the lightning rod attached to protect the building from lightning?

a)

On the top of the building

b)

On the bottom of the building

c)

In the middle of the building

d)

All of these

107.

Lightning always follows

a)

rain pour

b)

a thunder

c)

the easiest path

d)

a straight path

108.

Tsunami means

a)

earthquake

b)

floods

c)

earthquake under the sea

d)

eruption of volcano in a sea

109.

The waves produced on the earth’s surface is called

a)

seismic wave

b)

longitudinal wave

c)

Micro wave

d)

Radio wave

110.

Which is the surest test of charge on a body?

a)

Repulsion

b)

Lightning

c)

Combustion

d)

Insulation

111.

Which of the following occurs during lightning?

a)

Acid rain

b)

Nitrogen fixation

c)

Green house effect

d)

Earthing

112.

Which of the following can be charged with static electricity ?

a)

Metal

b)

alloy

c)

Semiconductor

d)

Insulator

113.

Which of the following can be charged by rubbing?

a)

Ebonite

b)

Plastic

c)

Amber

d)

All the above

114.

When two bodies are rubbed against each other, they acquire

a)

equal and like charges

b)

unequal and like charges

c)

equal and unlike charges

d)

unequal and unlike charges

115.

It is a convention to call the charge acquired by a glass rod when it is rubbed with silk as __________

a)

Negative

b)

Positive

c)

Neutral

d)

Can be any one

116.

A device used to test whether an object is carrying charge or not is called ______.

a)

Electrometer

b)

Charge meter

c)

Electroscope

d)

 Chargoscope

117.

During lightning actually _____________ takes place

a)

Electric discharge

b)

Electric charging

c)

Electric charge accumulation

d)

All of the above

118.

During a thunderstorm which action may be done?

a)

Using Telephone having cord

b)

Switching on / off electric lights

c)

Using a mobile phone

d)

None of the above

119.

During thunderstorm it is safer to

a)

Carry an open umbrella

b)

Take shelter under short trees

c)

Take shelter under tall trees

d)

Stand in open fields

120.

To protect tall buildings from the damage of lightning, what can be done?

a)

Not to build tall buildings

b)

Install lightning conductors

c)

Install many TV antennas

d)

Have a roof top garden with tall trees

121.

Which part of human ear converts sound vibrations into electrical signals

a)

Hammer

b)

Stirrup

c)

Tympanic membrane

d)

Cochlea

122.

Speed of sound depends upon

a)

temperature of medium

b)

pressure of medium

c)

Temperature of source producing sound

d)

. Temperature and pressure of medium

123.

Which characteristic is this? We can distinguish between sound having same pitch and loudness.

a)

tone

b)

pitch

c)

amplitude

d)

timber

124.

Loud sound can travel a larger distance, due to

a)

Higher amplitude

b)

Higher energy

c)

High frequency

d)

High speed

125.

what are transverse waves ?

a)

In these waves the individual particles of the medium move in a direction parallel to the direction of propagation of the disturbance

b)

In these waves the individual particles of the medium move in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the disturbance

c)

both 1st and 2nd options

d)

none of above

126.

longitudinal waves are?

a)

In these waves the individual particles of the medium move in a direction perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the disturbance

b)

In these waves the individual particles of the medium move in a direction parallel to the direction of propagation of the disturbance

c)

both 1 and 2

d)

none of these

127.

sound is a ..............

a)

transverse wave

b)

longitudinal wave

c)

both a and b

d)

none of these

128.

click the right match.

a)

low pitch (frequency of sound) - small wavelength

b)

high pitch(frequency of sound) - long wavelength

c)

high pitch(frequency of sound) - small wavelength

d)

none of the above

129.

The hearing range of human ear is

a)

20 Hz to 20,000 Hz

b)

Less than 20 Hz

c)

More than 20,000 Hz

d)

20 Hz to 25,000 Hz

130.

If the speed of sound in water is 1500 m/s, then what is the depth of the sea?

a)

6000

b)

1500

c)

3000

d)

15000

131.

On increasing the temperature, the speed of sound in air:

a)

decrease

b)

remain same

c)

increase

d)

decrease just half the speed

132.

Sound of frequency below …………… is called infrasonic sound

a)

2000 hZ

b)

200 Hz

c)

20,000 Hz

d)

20 Hz

133.

Part of the ear which collects sound from surroundings_____

a)

Cochlea

b)

Pinna

c)

Ear drums

d)

Stapes

134.

What is a tool that makes sounds louder called?

a)

pitch

b)

wavelength

c)

amplifier

d)

outer ear

135.

If you increased the tension on a guitar string the pitch would 

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

d)

the string would be silent

136.

What do dolphins, bats and porpoise use

a)

Ultrasound

   

b)

Infrasound

c)

Both a and b

d)

None of them

137.

How does the speed of sound change with the change in medium?

a)

It increases with the change in medium

b)

It remains constant in all mediums

c)

It changes due to the difference in the density and elasticity of the medium.

d)

It decreases with the change in medium

138.

Define echo and explain how it is produced.

a)

An echo is the reflection of sound off a surface. It is produced when sound waves bounce off a surface and return to the listener's ears.

b)

An echo is caused by the refraction of sound waves

c)

An echo is produced by the interference of two sound waves

d)

An echo is the result of a sound wave being absorbed by a surface

139.

Explain the working principle of a sonar.

a)

Sonar works by detecting electromagnetic waves from underwater objects.

b)

Sonar works by analyzing the temperature of the water to locate underwater objects.

c)

Sonar works by sending sound waves and receiving their echoes to determine the distance and shape of underwater objects.

d)

Sonar works by using light waves to determine the distance and shape of underwater objects.

140.

How does the sound produced by a vibrating body reach our ears?

a)

Through the movement of air particles

b)

Through the transmission of electrical signals

c)

Through the reflection of light waves

d)

Through the propagation of sound waves

141.
If you want to change the pitch of a sound, you have to change the ___
a)
frequency
b)
amplitude
c)
speed
d)
volume
142.
A student holds two vibrating objects.  Object A is vibrating faster than object B.  Which statement is true?
a)
A is louder than B
b)
B is louder than A
c)
A will have a higher pitch than B
d)
B will have a higher pitch than A
143.
What is B?
a)
crest
b)
trough
c)
compression
d)
rarefaction
144.

If the direction of the vibration of particles is parallel to the direction of the propagation of wave, then the wave is a ...

a)

transverse wave

b)

longitudinal wave

c)

electromagnetic wave

d)

All the above.

145.
A disturbance that transfers energy from one place to another without transferring energy
a)
wave
b)
trough
c)
pitch
d)
sound
146.
You and your father inspect an empty house with the hopes of buying it. You walk through the rooms talking to one another, and you notice that your voices and footsteps are echoing in the big, empty house. What causes the echo?
a)
sound waves reflecting off smooth, flat surfaces throughout the house
b)
sound waves moving around the large rooms
c)
sound waves moving slowly through air
d)
sound waves refracting around corners in the empty rooms
147.
A disturbance that travels through a medium as a longitudinal wave
a)
sound
b)
wavelength
c)
pitch
d)
frequency
148.
The number of wavelengths that pass a point each second
a)
frequency
b)
wavelength
c)
pitch
d)
amplitude
149.

Speed of light in air is:

a)

5100 m s-1

b)

3*108m s-1

c)

330 m s-1

d)

3*1010 m s-1

150.

The speed of sound in air at 0oC is nearly:

a)

330m s-1

b)

1450 m s-1

c)

5100 m s-1

d)

450-1

151.
Which of the following would you hear as a low pitched sound? 
a)
sound wave with a frequency of 50 Hz
b)
sound wave with frequency of 10,000 Hz
c)
sound wave with an intensity of 10 dB
d)
sound wave with an intensity of 100 dB
152.
Sound does not travel in space because
a)
Space is too far away.
b)
There is no matter in space.
c)
Space is the final frontier
d)
Space has planets.
153.
You stand outside a room that has the doors and windows closed. Why can you still hear sounds made inside the room?
a)
Vibrations are absorbed in the doors and windows
b)
Vibrations are reflected inside the room
c)
Vibrations travel through the door and the window
d)
Vibrations echo in the room
154.

_____________ is the highness or lowness of a sound.

a)

Amplitude

b)

Pitch

c)

Volume

d)

Vibration

155.
High pitch sounds are caused by a ______ vibration
a)
fast 
b)
slow
c)
hard
d)
soft
156.

As the temperature of a medium increases, the sound waves will travel ____________.

a)

Faster

b)

Slower

c)

As the same speed

157.

State two properties of the medium on which the speed of the sound depends

a)

Elasticity

b)

Density

c)

Both A and B

d)

None

158.

What is Ultrasound

a)

Sound of frequency above 20kHz

b)

Sound of frequency below 20kHz

c)

Sound of frequency above 50kHz

d)

None

159.

Choose the Properties of Ultrasound that makes it useful to us

a)

High energy content

b)

High directivity

c)

Both A and B

d)

None

160.

Can you hear he sound produced due to vibrations of seconds pendulum?

a)

Yes

b)

No

161.

The hearing range of human ear is

a)

20 Hz to 20,000 Hz

b)

Less than 20 Hz

c)

More than 20,000 Hz

d)

20 Hz to 25,000 Hz

162.

In which part of the wave does the motion of the vibration move away from the compression and the particles spread apart again?

a)

compression

b)

frequency

c)

rarefaction

d)

wavelength

163.
The range of normal person able to hear is called
a)
Infrasound
b)
Ultrasound
c)
Audible frequency
164.

Sonar makes use of

a)

Infrasonic sound

b)

Ultrasound

c)

light

d)

Ordinary sound

165.

The heart of a man Beats 75 times a minute. What is its (A)Frequency (B)Time period?

a)

1.25 s-1, 0.8 s

b)

(a) 1.25 s-1 (b) 0.7 s

c)

(a) 1.26 s-1 (b) 0.7 s

d)

(a) 1.28 s-1 (b) 0.8 s

166.

A man can hear the sound of frequency:

a)

1 Hz

b)

1000 Hz

c)

200 Hz

d)

5MHz

167.

Name the subjective property of light related to its wavelength.

a)

refractive index

b)

frequency

c)

colour

d)

velocity

168.

Jyothi puts a pencil into a glass container having water and is surprised to see the pencil bend.Name the phenomenon responsible for the change.

a)

Reflection of light

b)

Refraction of light

c)

total internal reflection of light

d)

partial reflection and partial refraction

169.

As the ray of light passes from air to glass, state how the wavelength of light changes.

a)

wavelength increases

b)

wavelength decreases

c)

wavelength remains constant

d)

wavelength decreases and then increases

170.

A boy uses blue colour of light to find the refractive index of glass. He then repeats the experiment using red colour of light .How will the refractive index of glass be ?

a)

the same

b)

μ decreases

c)

μ increases

d)

same as speed of light

171.

When a ray of light enters from one medium to another having different optical densities it bends. beacuse

a)

of different optical densities

b)

speed of light changes

c)

obstruction of light changes

d)

frequency of light changes

172.

choose the conditions where light does not bend when entering a medium of different optical density,

a)

incident ray is normal to the refracting surface

b)

any obliquely incident ray

c)

angle of incidence is 90°

d)

angle of incidence is 0°

173.

Which colour of light travels fastest in any medium except air ?

a)

yellow

b)

red

c)

violet

d)

white

174.
Light has the highest velocity in which medium?
flint glass n=1.70
barium glass n=1.60
crown glass n=1.523
water n=1.33
diamond n=2.45
a)
diamond
b)
water
c)
flint glass
d)
barium glass
175.
The fact the two angles are the same is an example of....
a)
Refraction
b)
Angle of Incidence
c)
Law of reflection
d)
Magnification
176.
The velocity of light in vacuum is _______ m/s.
a)
3x108
b)
3x1012
c)
3x106
d)
3x1010
177.
The formula to calculate the refractive index is
a)
n=cv
b)
n=v/c
c)
n=c/v
d)
v=nc
178.
Absolute refractive index of any medium is always _______.
a)
less than 1
b)
greater than 1
c)
1
d)
0
179.
If a pulse of red light and a pulse of blue light travel in vacuum
a)
The red pulse travels faster because its index of refraction is smaller
b)
The blue pulse travels faster
c)
The two pulses travel at the same speed
d)
The relative speed depends on the exact wavelengths of the red and blue pulses
180.

What happens to the light rays in a convex lens?

a)

Converge

b)

Diverge

c)

Surge

d)

Reflect

181.

In a lens diagram, what does "u" mean?

a)

Object distance

b)

Image distance

c)

Focal Point

d)

Focal Length

182.

Looking at the diagram, describe the object distance.

a)

u>2f

b)

u=2f

c)

u=f

d)

f<u<2f

183.

This happens when the eyeballs are too long or the eye lenses are too thick

a)

Hypermetropia

b)

Myopia

c)

Utopia

d)

Hyperion

184.

A ____ is formed when the sky is refracted on the road during hot sunny weather.

a)

Rainbow

b)

Halo

c)

Mirage

d)

Green flash

185.

As a hunter you see a fish in a river. Where should you aim your spear?

a)

Exactly at the fish

b)

Below the fish

c)

Above the fish

d)

Nevermind, you will miss anyway.

186.

What happens to the light when it travels from less dense to more dense medium?

a)

speed up

b)

slows down

c)

breaks

d)

parks

187.

When white light enters a prism, it gets split into its constituent colours. This is due to

a)

different refractive index for different wavelength of each colour

b)

each colours has same velocity in the prism.

c)

prism material have high density.

d)

Scattering of light

188.

The air layer of atmosphere whose temperature is less then the hot layer behave as optically

a)

denser medium

b)

rarer medium

c)

inactive medium

d)

either denser or rarer medium

189.

Refraction of light by the earth’s atmosphere due to variation in air density is called

a)

atmospheric reflection

b)

atmospheric dispersion

c)

atmospheric scattering

d)

atmospheric refraction

190.

The deflection of light by minute particles and molecules of the atmosphere in all direction is called ____________ of light.

a)

dispersion

b)

scattering

c)

interference

d)

tyndell effect

191.

One cannot see through the fog, because

a)

refractive index of the fog is very high

b)

light suffers total reflection at droplets

c)

fog absorbs light

d)

light is scattered by the droplets

192.

At noon the sun appears white as

a)

light is least scattered

b)

all the colours of the white light are scattered away

c)

blue colour is scattered the most

d)

red colour is scattered the most

193.

Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric

a)

dispersion of light by water droplets

b)

refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices

c)

scattering of light by dust particles

d)

internal reflection of light by clouds.

194.

The clear sky appears blue because

a)

blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere.

b)

ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere.

c)

violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colours by the atmosphere.

d)

light of all other colours is scattered more than the violet and blue colour lights by the atmosphere.

195.

The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour. These can be easily seen from a distance because among all other colours, the red light

a)

is scattered the most by smoke or fog

b)

is scattered the least by smoke or fog

c)

is absorbed the most by smoke or fog

d)

moves fastest in air

196.

The bluish colour of water in deep sea is due to

a)

the presence of algae and other plants found in water

b)

reflection of sky in water

c)

scattering of light

d)

absorption of light by the sea

197.

When white light enters a glass prism from air, the angle of deviation is least for

a)

blue light

b)

yellow light

c)

red light

d)

violet light

198.

When white light enters a glass prism from air, the angle of deviation is maximum for

a)

blue light

b)

yellow light

c)

red light

d)

violet light

199.

Which of the following is a natural phenomenon which is caused by the dispersion of sunlight in the sky?

a)

Twinkling of stars

b)

Stars seem higher than they actually are

c)

Rainbow

d)

Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset

200.

For which colour, refractive index of glass is maximum?

a)

red

b)

violet

c)

green

d)

yellow

201.

The broad wavelength range of visible spectrum is-The broad wavelength range of visible spectrum is

a)

(10000-20000) A

b)

(4000-7000) A

c)

(2000-4000) A

d)

None of these

202.
How does light behave as it enters these mediums?
a)
continue its path as straight line.
b)
bends toward the normal
c)
bends away from the normal
d)
reflects
203.
Which color of light is most refracted during dispersion by a prism?
a)
red
b)
yellow
c)
green
d)
violet
204.

When a beam of white light falls on a glass prism, the colour of light which will deviate least is:

a)

Violet

b)

Red

c)

Green

d)

Blue

205.

In which of the following cases will no dispersion take place when sunlight passes through it?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

206.

How will you use two identical prisms so

that a narrow beam of white light incident

on one prism emerges out of the second

prism as white light?

a)

(a) One placed inverted with respect to the other.

b)

(b) One placed on top of the other.

c)

(c) Just put them side by side.

d)

(d) Parallel to each other.

207.

Study the following diagram. In this diagram, the angle of incidence, the angle of emergence and the angle of deviation respectively have been represented by

a)

a) y, p, z

b)

b) x, q, z

c)

c) p, y, z

d)

d) p, z, y

208.

In which of the following diagrams is the

path of a ray of light passing through a

glass prism is shown correctly?

a)

(I)

b)

(II)

c)

(III)

d)

(IV)

209.

In the given figure, a light ray AB is incident normally on one face PQ of an equilateral glass prism. Find out the angles at faces PQ and PR.

a)

60°60\degree  

b)

30°30\degree  

c)

45°45\degree  

d)

90°90\degree  

210.

Which coloured light is most suitable to be used for headlights during a foggy weather?

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

Yellow

d)

White

211.
The velocity of light in vacuum is _______ m/s
a)
3x108
b)
3x1012
c)
3x106
d)
3x1010
212.

The splitting of light into its component colours is known as ___________ .

a)

scattering of light

b)

dispersion of light

c)

tyndall effect

d)

refraction of light

213.

Which of the following colours has the largest angle of deviation when light splits into seven colours?

a)

Blue

b)

Red

c)

Orange

d)

Yellow

214.

We see sky as blue because ________________ .

a)

red colour is scattered more in the atmosphere and only blue colour reaches our eyes

b)

blue colour rays have the highest wavelength that is why it gets scattered

c)

sky has a tendency to absorb the colour of the ocean

d)

blue colour is scattered more than the lights from other colours in the atmosphere

215.

Why does danger signals are always red in colour?

a)

Red colour has the least wavelength among all the seven colours

b)

Red colour is most scattered by the environment

c)

Red colour has the highest wavelength

d)

Red colour moves the fastest in the any medium

216.

Assertion (A): Rainbow forms after the rain. Reason (R): Sunlight gets refracted, dispersed and internally reflected in the molecules of water present in the atmosphere.

a)

A and R both are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b)

A and R both are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

c)

A is true and R is false

d)

A is false and R is true

Similar Resources on Wayground

Chemistry: Material Properties

215 questions

Chemistry: Material Properties

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th - 9th Grade