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COMBINE QUES SET 2– Infection Control

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The pressure gradient in an operating theatre should be:

a)

Negative pressure inside OT

b)

Neutral pressure inside OT

c)

Positive pressure inside OT

d)

Variable pressure

2.

The recommended air changes per hour (ACH) for a conventional operating theatre is:

a)

6–8 ACH

b)

8–10 ACH

c)

12–15 ACH

d)

20–25 ACH

3.

Acceptable bacterial air count for a conventional OT is:

a)

<10 CFU/m³

b)

<25 CFU/m³

c)

<35 CFU/m³

d)

<100 CFU/m³

4.

Airflow direction in an operating theatre should be from:

a)

Ceiling to floor

b)

Floor to ceiling

c)

Door to ceiling

d)

Corridor to OT

5.

Air sampling in a newly renovated OT shows 70 CFU/m³. The immediate action is to:

a)

Continue OT with restriction

b)

Reduce number of staff

c)

Stop OT operation

d)

Repeat sampling after one week

6.

HEPA filters are mainly used to remove:

a)

Chemical vapours

b)

Large dust particles

c)

Microorganisms and fine particles

d)

Carbon dioxide

7.

The main purpose of positive pressure in OT is to:

a)

Reduce humidity

b)

Prevent entry of contaminated air

c)

Improve staff comfort

d)

Increase airflow

8.

Which investigation is conducted on completion of a new OT building?

a)

Surface swabbing

b)

Water sampling

c)

Air sampling

d)

In-use test

9.

Acceptable OT humidity level should be maintained between:

a)

10–20%

b)

20–30%

c)

40–60%

d)

70–90%

10.

The best intervention when repeated air sampling remains >35 CFU/m³ is to:

a)

Allow dirty cases only

b)

Change HEPA filter

c)

Increase OT cases

d)

Ignore the result

11.

The primary PPE used during insertion of a central venous line is:

a)

Patient gown

b)

Sterile gown

c)

Isolation gown

d)

Plastic apron

12.

Which mask is most appropriate when managing a suspected pulmonary TB patient?

a)

Surgical mask

b)

Cloth mask

c)

N95 mask

d)

Face shield only

13.

The most appropriate apron for a nurse managing MRSA patient with large wound is:

a)

Linen apron

b)

Cotton apron

c)

Plastic apron

d)

Non-woven apron

14.

Gloves should be worn when:

a)

Taking blood pressure

b)

Feeding patient

c)

Contact with blood or body fluids

d)

Writing nursing notes

15.

The main purpose of PPE is to:

a)

Improve comfort

b)

Prevent cross infection

c)

Reduce workload

d)

Improve appearance

16.

Which PPE is NOT part of standard precautions?

a)

Gloves

b)

Mask

c)

Gown

d)

N95 respirator

17.

First priority when managing meningococcal meningitis patient is:

a)

Start antibiotics

b)

Perform lumbar puncture

c)

Implement droplet precautions

d)

Transfer to ICU

18.

Best isolation facility for pulmonary tuberculosis patient is:

a)

Positive pressure room

b)

Shared room

c)

Negative pressure room

d)

General ward

19.

Which disease requires airborne precautions?

a)

Rubella

b)

Influenza

c)

Varicella zoster

d)

Mumps

20.

Cohorting refers to:

a)

Isolating patient alone

b)

Grouping patients with same infection

c)

Placing patient near nurse station

d)

Discharging early

21.

The main reason to inform receiving unit about MRSA colonization is to:

a)

Update documentation

b)

Avoid billing delay

c)

Prepare infection control measures

d)

Arrange bed allocation

22.

Contact precautions include:

a)

N95 mask only

b)

Gloves and gown

c)

Face shield only

d)

Surgical mask only

23.

Which is NOT an indication for hand hygiene?

a)

After removing gloves

b)

Before abdominal palpation

c)

After touching patient surroundings

d)

Before writing report

24.

The most commonly missed area during hand hygiene is:

a)

Palm

b)

Fingertips

c)

Around fingernails

d)

Wrist

25.

Sharing audit findings after hand hygiene audit is considered as:

a)

Data collection

b)

Feedback

c)

Intervention

d)

Re-audit

26.

The main goal of hand hygiene audit is to:

a)

Punish staff

b)

Reduce HAIs

c)

Increase documentation

d)

Improve staffing

27.

Alcohol-based hand rub is preferred when hands are:

a)

Visibly soiled

b)

Contaminated with blood

c)

Not visibly soiled

d)

After toilet use

28.

Which microorganism is most resistant to sterilization?

a)

Virus

b)

Bacteria

c)

Mycoplasma

d)

Prions

29.

An “alert organism” refers to:

a)

Normal flora

b)

Non-pathogenic organism

c)

Multidrug-resistant organism

d)

Environmental contaminant

30.

MRSA is transmitted mainly through:

a)

Airborne route

b)

Droplet route

c)

Contact route

d)

Vector-borne

31.

Which organism causes meningococcal meningitis?

a)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

Neisseria meningitidis

c)

Haemophilus influenzae

d)

Escherichia coli

32.

Disinfection eliminates:

a)

All microorganisms including spores

b)

Many microorganisms except spores

c)

Dirt only

d)

Organic matter

33.

Cleaning is defined as:

a)

Destruction of spores

b)

Removal of visible dirt

c)
34.

Sterilization means:

a)

Removal of dirt

b)

Reduction to safe level

c)

Elimination of all microorganisms including spores

d)

Use of antiseptics

35.

Used ureteroscope should be processed using:

a)

Low-level disinfectant

b)

Antiseptic

c)

High-level disinfectant

d)

Detergent only

36.

FIFO in sterile storage means:

a)

Use newest item first

b)

Use items randomly

c)

Use first sterilized item first

d)

Use damaged packs

37.

Hot air oven sterilization works by:

a)

Moist heat

b)

Oxidation

c)

Filtration

d)

Radiation

38.

Correct hot air oven cycle is:

a)

121°C – 15 min

b)

132°C – 4 min

c)

160°C – 2 hours

d)

100°C – 30 min

39.

Item most suitable for hot air oven sterilization is:

a)

Rubber catheter

b)

Glass syringe

c)

Plastic tubing

d)

Linen pack

40.

High-level disinfectants are used for:

a)

Non-critical items

b)

Critical items only

c)

Semi-critical items

d)

Environmental surfaces

41.

Physical monitoring of steam sterilization includes:

a)

Colour change

b)

Growth of spores

c)

Time, temperature, pressure

d)

Chemical reaction

42.

The main purpose of monitoring sterilization is to:

a)

Reduce time

b)

Confirm sterilization conditions

c)

Improve appearance

d)

Reduce workload

43.

Bowie–Dick test is used to check:

a)

Sterility of instruments

b)

Air removal and steam penetration

c)

Load documentation

d)

Chemical residue

44.

Best IPC practice in ICU includes:

a)

No isolation

b)

Adequate bed spacing

c)

Shared hand rub

d)

Minimal hand hygiene

45.

Recommended spacing between ICU beds is at least:

a)

1 metre

b)

1.5 metres

c)

2.5 metres

d)

3 metres

46.

ABHR should be placed:

a)

At ward entrance only

b)

In staff room

c)

At every patient bed

d)

Near medication room

47.

Fume hood in laboratory requires:

a)

Positive pressure

b)

Neutral pressure

c)

Negative pressure

d)

Flexible pressure

48.

Which sampling is used to assess OT air quality?

a)

Water sampling

b)

Surface swabbing

c)

Air sampling

d)

In-use test

49.

In-use test sampling checks:

a)

Air quality

b)

Water purity

c)

Disinfectant effectiveness

d)

HEPA filter

50.

The primary goal of infection prevention and control is to:

a)

Reduce hospital cost

b)

Protect patients and HCWs

c)

Increase documentation

d)

Improve hospital ranking

51.

A notifiable disease is any disease that is required by law to be reported to government authorities. Which of the following bacterial infections needs to be notified?

a)

HIV

b)

Influenza

c)

COVID-19

d)

Legionella

52.

Why are medical reports considered legal documents?

a)

It helps identify patient problems

b)

Protects the institution, patients, and healthcare providers

c)

Helps patients sue during adverse events

d)

Required for renewal of annual practice certificate

53.

In an organization, who is responsible for ensuring safe work practices are enforced by healthcare workers?

a)

Act

b)

Laws

c)

Employer

d)

Management

54.

Before conducting an infection control audit, the Infection Control Practitioner (ICP) should:

a)

Agree on the reference standard being used

b)

Identify underperforming clinical areas

c)

Inform every staff member in the audited area

d)

Assemble assessors without prior IPC audit experience

55.

Multimodal strategies to improve hand hygiene compliance include all EXCEPT:

a)

Interactive training sessions

b)

Participating in feedback rounds

c)

Monitoring compliance and disseminating results

d)

Ignoring system change and infrastructure needs

56.

During an IPC audit, a breach of standard precautions is observed in ICU staff. What is the most appropriate action?

a)

Call an urgent meeting

b)

Provide rapid feedback on incidental issues

c)

Send staff for IPC course

d)

Distribute another IPC questionnaire

57.

Which of the following is NOT part of standard precautions?

a)

Respiratory hygiene and cough etiquette

b)

Injection safety and sharps management

c)

Decontamination of equipment

d)

Management of general waste and linen

58.

Apart from mask and gloves, which PPE is required when managing a patient with MRSA?

a)

Face shield

b)

Head cover

c)

Sterile gown

d)

Plastic apron

59.

What is the size of airborne particles filtered by a Powered Air Purifying Respirator (PAPR)?

a)

< 5 microns

b)

> 5 microns

c)

< 5 millimeters

d)

> 5 millimeters

60.

The most important aspect of effective handwashing is:

a)

Adequate friction covering all hand surfaces

b)

Using very hot water to remove oils

c)

Always using antimicrobial soap

d)

Wearing gloves instead of washing

61.

The purpose of monitoring multidrug-resistant organism (MDRO) trends is to detect:

a)

The emergence of new organisms

b)

Clustering of infections in new areas

c)

Non-compliance to infection control policies

d)

Change in resistance patterns of organisms

62.

What criteria should be considered when isolating a patient with MDRO?

a)

Standard isolation or negative pressure room

b)

Single isolation positive pressure room

c)

Isolation or cohorting with patients having different microorganisms

d)

Contact isolation room or cohorting with patients infected with the same microorganism

63.

Wound infection with MRSA affects the healing process. What is the crucial management?

a)

Clean wound with normal saline and apply mupirocin 2%

b)

Apply mupirocin 2% nasally with daily soap bathing

c)

Clean wound with normal saline and daily bathing with chlorhexidine 4%

d)

Clean wound with sterile water and daily bathing with chlorhexidine 4%

64.

Hepatitis B transmission among healthcare workers can be prevented by:

a)

Administering immunoglobulin to all HCWs

b)

Administration of antiviral prophylaxis

c)

Preventing needle stick injuries

d)

Using double gloves at all times

65.

Which investigation should be performed within 24 hours if invasive aspergillosis is suspected?

a)

Lung biopsy, serum antigen test, and chest X-ray

b)

Chest X-ray, ultrasound, and MRI brain

c)

Bronchoscopic needle biopsy and MRI brain

d)

CT assessment of lung and sinus or MRI brain

66.

All the following are central line catheter care bundle measures prior to insertion, EXCEPT:

a)

Apply full PPE

b)

Proper skin preparation

c)

Apply surgical drape

d)

Dressing with saline

67.

Quality management and patient safety in Infection Prevention and Control (IPC) aims to:

a)

Confirm outbreaks

b)

Reinforce IPC measures among HCWs

c)

Provide data and statistical analysis for improving patient care

d)

Reduce adverse patient outcomes only

68.

Which statement best describes Risk Group 4 organisms?

a)

Not associated with disease in healthy humans

b)

Associated with mild disease, rarely lethal

c)

Associated with serious disease with available treatment

d)

Associated with lethal disease without available treatment

69.

Adhering to strict regulations during the transportation of infectious materials helps to:

a)

Avoid legal prosecution

b)

Expedite delivery

c)

Limit specimen quantity

d)

Reduce exposure and possible infection

70.

Members of the Hospital Infection Antibiotic and Control Committee (HIACC) should include:

a)

Financial Manager, Microbiologist, ID Physician, IC Sister, Pharmacist

b)

Infection Control Doctor, Microbiologist, ID Physician, IC Sister, Pharmacist

c)

IC Doctor, Microbiologist, ID Physician, Ward Sister, Support staff

d)

IC Doctor, Surgical HOD, ID Physician, IC Sister, Pharmacist

71.

Which statement helps improve quality in infection control practices?

a)

Review surveillance reports yearly

b)

Policies reviewed occasionally

c)

Teaching programs upon request

d)

Point prevalence surveillance done at ICN convenience

72.

Patient-related factors that predispose to Surgical Site Infection (SSI) include:

a)

Cachexia, obesity, empirical therapy

b)

Prolonged surgery and antibiotic prophylaxis

c)

Excessive blood loss and OT temperature

d)

Prolonged steroid use, poor nutrition, uncontrolled diabetes

73.

Extended Spectrum Beta-Lactamase (ESBL) producing organisms are resistant to penicillin and:

a)

Colistin

b)

Ceftazidime

c)

Ertapenem

d)

Doripenem

74.

Ideal disinfectant choice should be based on: i. Cheap and available in large quantities ii. Non-irritant and safe iii. pH and temperature convenience iv. Effective against wide range of microorganisms

a)

i and ii

b)

i and iii

c)

ii and iv

d)

iii and iv

75.

Which statement best describes management of contaminated linen?

a)

Linen bags must be full before sending

b)

Infected linen placed and sealed in red bag

c)

Sorting done in ward

d)

Laundry must reach adequate temperature

76.

All statements below are correct when handling linen from MDRO patients, EXCEPT:

a)

Used and clean linen transported together

b)

Hold linen away from body

c)

Linen placed in red alginate bag then red linen bag

d)

Staff handling linen immunised against Hepatitis B

77.

Infection consistently occurring in a population is termed as:

a)

Endemic

b)

Sporadic

c)

Epidemic

d)

Pandemic

78.

The best intervention to prevent CLABSI is:

a)

Femoral vein insertion

b)

Double gloving during hub manipulation

c)

2% chlorhexidine in 70% alcohol for skin antisepsis

d)

PPE use during insertion

79.

Antimicrobial streamlining refers to:

a)

Reviewing antibiotics after one week

b)

Encouraging dual antimicrobial therapy

c)

Discontinuing empirical therapy if cultures are negative

d)

Escalating from narrow to broad spectrum therapy

80.

Appropriate action when using isolation precautions for MDRO includes:

a)

Posting PPE signage

b)

Allowing unrestricted visitors

c)

Cohorting different infections together

d)

Removing PPE outside isolation room

81.

Which nursing procedure requires an impermeable gown due to high body fluid exposure?

a)

Taking vital signs

b)

Administering oral medication

c)

Assisting with wound irrigation

d)

Helping patient ambulate

82.

The earliest clinical manifestation of CAUTI, EXCEPT:

a)

Loin pain

b)

Hypotension

c)

Suprapubic pain

d)

Altered mental status

83.

Recurrent waste disposal violations in primary care should be escalated to:

a)

Local Health Authority

b)

District Health Officer

c)

Infection Prevention and Control Nurse

d)

Hospital Administrator

84.

Which is a process indicator under Quality Assurance Programme (QAP)?

a)

Doctor-to-patient ratio

b)

Duration of hospital construction

c)

Percentage of patients treated within set timeframe

d)

Number of financial resources

85.

Indication for blood culture collection in warded patients is:

a)

First day of admission

b)

After completion of antimicrobials

c)

Before starting antimicrobial treatment

d)

On discharge

86.

According to ICRA, Type C construction activity includes:

a)

Inspection and non-invasive activities

b)

Removal of fixed building components

c)

Major demolition

d)

Small-scale, short-duration activities

87.

The main purpose of Hand Hygiene Self-Assessment Framework is to:

a)

Obtain budget

b)

Focus on future hand hygiene plans

c)

Document hand rub usage

d)

Identify educators

88.

Most important factor in handwashing effectiveness is:

a)

Frequency

b)

Duration

c)

Friction

d)

Type of soap

89.

Power Air Purified Respirator (PAPR) filters particles of size:

a)

< 5 microns

b)

> 5 microns

c)

< 5 mm

d)

> 5 mm

90.

PPE required for MRSA patient management includes:

a)

Face shield

b)

Head cover

c)

Sterile gown

d)

Plastic apron

91.

Management of general waste and linen is part of:

a)

Transmission-based precautions

b)

Contact precautions

c)

Standard precautions

d)

Airborne precautions

92.

Rapid feedback during IPC audit aims to:

a)

Punish staff

b)

Prevent recurrence

c)

Delay reporting

d)

Replace training

93.

Which method is NOT an antibiotic susceptibility test?

a)

Disk diffusion

b)

Broth microdilution

c)

Agar gradient

d)

Gram staining

94.

MDRO patients may be cohorted when:

a)

Different organisms present

b)

Same organism present

c)

Isolation rooms unavailable

d)

Patient is asymptomatic

95.

Purpose of antimicrobial stewardship is to:

a)

Increase antibiotic usage

b)

Reduce resistance

c)

Promote empirical therapy

d)

Encourage broad spectrum use

96.

Which is NOT a component of standard precautions?

a)

Injection safety

b)

Respiratory hygiene

c)

General waste management

d)

Patient isolation

97.

Proper linen handling reduces risk of:

a)

Legal action

b)

Delayed laundry

c)

Occupational exposure

d)

Cost escalation

98.

ESBL organisms are resistant mainly to:

a)

Penicillin and cephalosporins

b)

Carbapenems

c)

Glycopeptides

d)

Aminoglycosides

99.

The most appropriate disinfectant should be:

a)

Cheap only

b)

User dependent

c)

pH sensitive

d)

Broad spectrum

100.

Infection Control Risk Assessment (ICRA) is primarily conducted to:

a)

Match facilities with geography

b)

Identify patient risk groups and construction risks

c)

Allocate manpower

d)

Reduce cost

101.

A nurse ensures that a patient with tuberculosis is placed in a negative-pressure isolation room to protect both the patient and others. This action best demonstrates:

a)

Autonomy

b)

Justice

c)

Beneficence

d)

Veracity

102.

Which nursing action best reflects beneficence in infection prevention?

a)

Reporting a colleague who fails to wash hands

b)

Following isolation precautions to protect the patient

c)

Allowing visitors without PPE

d)

Skipping hand hygiene to save time

103.

Which of the following best describes non-maleficence in nursing?

a)

Promoting patient wellbeing

b)

Avoiding actions that may cause harm

c)

Respecting patient decisions

d)

Treating all patients equally