wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Pharm Exam 1 Review

Total questions: 15

Worksheet time: 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A patient has a documented history of an immediate hypersensitivity reaction (anaphylaxis) to penicillin. Which antibiotic would be the most appropriate choice from a different class, avoiding potential cross-sensitivity?

a)

amoxicillin

b)

cefazolin

c)

azithromycin

d)

ceftriaxone

2.

When administering a liquid medication dose to a pediatric patient, why is it important to use the smallest syringe size possible?

a)

To reduce the risk of medication contamination.

b)

To provide greater measurement accuracy.

c)

To ensure faster medication administration.

d)

To decrease the amount of side effects.

3.

A patient with severe edema and low serum albumin is prescribed a highly protein-bound medication. How will this condition most likely affect the medication’s pharmacokinetics?

a)

Decreased drug absorption

b)

Delayed drug metabolism

c)

Altered drug distribution

d)

Increased drug excretion

4.

An adult patient is taking warfarin for anticoagulation. The provider starts phenytoin for seizure control. The nurse knows that phenytoin can increase liver metabolism of warfarin. What should the nurse anticipate?

a)

Increased effects of warfarin

b)

Decreased effects of warfarin

c)

Increased side effects

d)

Delayed absorption

5.

A 44-lb child is prescribed amoxicillin 40 mg/kg/day, divided into 2 equal doses per day. How many milligrams should the child receive per dose? Enter numeric value only.

(a)  

6.

A patient is prescribed gentamicin, an aminoglycoside antibiotic. Which of the following major side effects should the nurse monitor for?

a)

Liver toxicity and jaundice

b)

Renal toxicity and hearing loss

c)

Low blood glucose and fatigue

d)

Dry mouth and constipation

7.

A nurse is preparing to administer a new antibiotic to a patient. Which of the following potential complications should the nurse monitor for? Select all that apply.

a)

Superinfection

b)

Allergic Reaction

c)

Organ Toxicity

d)

Increased Blood Glucose

e)

Hypertension

8.

A patient is admitted with a severe bacterial infection. The provider orders a culture and sensitivity (C&S) before starting antibiotics. What is the primary purpose of this test?

a)

To check the patients immune response to antibiotic therapy

b)

To collect the serum antibiotic level

c)

To minimize side effects of the antibiotic

d)

To determine what antibiotics the bacteria are sensitive to

9.

A nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g IV to a patient with a serious infection. The patient’s most recent trough level is 25 mcg/mL (range 10-20mcg/mL). What is the safest nursing action?

a)

Administer the dose as scheduled

b)

Give half the dose and continue as scheduled

c)

Hold the dose and notify the provider

d)

Draw a new trough level

10.

An 82-year-old patient is prescribed gentamicin for a severe infection. The nurse reviews the patient’s chart and notes that their serum creatinine is slightly elevated. Why is it especially important to monitor renal function in this patient?

a)

Older adults often have decreased renal function, increasing the risk of drug accumulation and toxicity

b)

Older adults are less likely to have adverse drug reactions

c)

Older adults have faster liver metabolism, which increases drug toxicity

d)

Older adults eliminate drugs through the lungs, so renal function is not relevant

11.

A 55-year-old patient with a history of asthma and hypertension requires beta-blocker therapy. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of beta blockers in this patient?

a)

Non-selective beta blockers like propranolol are generally safe in asthma patients.

b)

All beta blockers are absolutely contraindicated in asthma, and none can ever be used.

c)

Beta blockers improve asthma symptoms by reducing airway inflammation.

d)

Cardioselective beta blockers like metoprolol have a lower risk of inducing bronchospasm compared to non-selective beta blockers.

12.

A 68-year-old patient is prescribed a new medication for urinary retention. Shortly after starting the drug, the patient develops increased salivation, sweating, diarrhea, and bradycardia. Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

a)

Atropine

b)

Propranolol

c)

Bethanechol

d)

Clonidine

13.

A 60-year-old man with type 2 diabetes is started on propranolol for hypertension. During his next clinic visit, he reports feeling unusually weak and dizzy after skipping lunch. His blood glucose is 55 mg/dL. Which of the following statements about beta blockers and hypoglycemia is correct?

a)

Beta blockers prevent hypoglycemia by increasing insulin secretion.

b)

Beta blockers cause hypoglycemia only in type 1 diabetes, not type 2.

c)

Patients on beta blockers will feel more symptoms of hypoglycemia than those not taking them.

d)

Beta blockers may mask typical adrenergic warning signs of hypoglycemia.

14.

A 32-year-old woman with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis presents to your clinic to discuss starting beta interferon therapy. She reports occasional fatigue and mild cognitive difficulties but denies any current mood symptoms. She has no prior psychiatric history, though she mentions her sister has depression. Which of the following is the most appropriate step regarding mental health before initiating beta interferon?

a)

Screen for potential mental health disorders.

b)

No mental health screening is necessary because she currently has no symptoms.

c)

Only screen for anxiety disorders, as these are most affected by beta interferon.

d)

Only complete cognitive testing; as mental health assessment is unnecessary.

15.

A patient with Parkinson’s disease is prescribed carbidopa-levodopa. What is the main purpose of adding carbidopa to levodopa?

a)

To decrease the amount of available dopamine.

b)

To cure Parkinsons disease.

c)

To improve renal excretion of levodopa.

d)

To stop the breakdown of levodopa.