wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

final course exam part2

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The frequency of premium payments is called the:

a)

Premium commitment

b)

Premium payment mode, aka Modal Premium

c)

Electronic Funds Transaction

d)

The frequency requirement

2.

In order to advance part of the death benefit via the Accelerated Death benefit rider, the insured:

a)

The insured needs an organ transplant

b)

All of these qualify for an Accelerated Death benefit advance

c)

The insured has been diagnosed with a terminal illness and has two years or less of life remaining

d)

There has been a medical diagnosis that the insured's life span is drastically reduced due to a disease

3.

A long-term care rider added to a life insurance policy can:

a)

Will be paid in addition to the entire face amount of coverage in the event of the insured's death

b)

Only be added if the insured is under age 40

c)

Help cover the cost of long-term care if the insured needs help with two or more activities of daily living

d)

Replace a long-term care insurance policy, as they are the same thing

4.

The life insurance settlement option that is completely tax-free is the:

a)

Interest only

b)

Lump sum option

c)

Fixed period installments

d)

Fixed amount installments

5.

An insured commits suicide 18 months after the policy was issued. What is paid to the beneficiaries?

a)

A return of premium only

b)

Interest on the death benefit from the date of death only

c)

The full death benefit will be paid

d)

Nothing will be paid as the suicide occurred within two years of the policy being issued

6.

Can a minor be named as a beneficiary?

a)

Yes, if the minor is considered a legally emancipated child

b)

Yes, but minors cannot actually receive death benefits

c)

No, all beneficiaries must be at least 18 years old

d)

Only if the minor agrees in writing to have the death benefit paid to a trust

7.

Statements that are made by the applicant are considered true to the best of knowledge. These statements are:

a)

Representations

b)

Statement of fact

c)

Warranties

d)

Considered fraudulent statements at all times

8.

WHICH of these receipts provides coverage effective the date of application or the medical examination if the insured is a standard or better risk?

a)

An approval receipt

b)

A non-binding receipt

c)

An insurability receipt

d)

An unconditional receipt

9.

How long does information remain on a person's credit report?

a)

Ten years for personal bankruptcies, 20 years for business bankruptcies, and ten years for all other entries

b)

Ten years for bankruptcies and seven years for other entries

c)

Seven years for bankruptcies and ten years for other entries

d)

Ten years for all entities on a credit report

10.

Any ambiguities in a contract of adhesion are ruled against the party that drew up the contract. This is known as the:

a)

Rule of Strict Construction

b)

Rule of Valued Contracts

c)

Law of Large Numbers

d)

Rule of Indemnity

11.

WHEN must an agent present and read a replacement notice to the applicant?

a)

Only if requested by the applicant

b)

Replacement notices are not required for life insurance policies, only for health insurance contracts

c)

When the policy is issued

d)

No later than the time of application

12.

WHO is the only party that may change information on an application for insurance?

a)

The applicant

b)

The insurer

c)

The agent without the applicant's consent

d)

The insured

13.

WHAT are the required elements of a legal and enforceable contract?

a)

Consideration, Legal Purpose, Offer and Acceptance, and Competent Parties: CLOC

b)

Coverage, Loss provisions, Occurrences, and Legal Benefit: CLOC

c)

Contract terms, Lender approval, Office of the Commissioner acceptance, and Loyalty: CLOC

d)

Contract, Legal Protection, Offer, and Consideration: CLOC

14.

Insurance contracts are:

a)

Semilateral

b)

Multilateral

c)

Unilateral

d)

Bilateral

15.

A contract that is missing a required element is automatically:

a)

Enforceable

b)

Voidable by going to court

c)

Valid when approved by a court

d)

Void

16.

Internal replacement is known as:

a)

Twisting

b)

Inter-company issuance

c)

Churning

d)

Intra-company issuance

17.

WHICH of the following would best describe the illegal practice of Twisting?

a)

Twisting is the unfair trade practice of selling a person an additional life policy when it is not needed.

b)

It is the agent convincing the applicant that another agent lied in order to obtain the insurance business

c)

Twisting is the replacement of an existing policy with a different policy issued by the same insurance company

d)

Twisting, also called External Replacement, involves a person illegally convincing another to drop their existing coverage to purchase similar coverage with another agent or insurance company.

18.

If an employee joins his employer's group coverage during an open enrollment period, WHICH of these statements would be correct?

a)

Only the dependents of the employee will have to prove health

b)

All enrollees will have to prove health

c)

There is no proof of health required for the employee or any dependents

d)

The insurer can pick and choose which employees must prove health depending on age

19.

WHAT type of IRA allows for a completely tax free distribution?

a)

Traditional IRAs

b)

ROTH IRAs

c)

No IRA allows for a completely tax free distribution

d)

SEP IRAs

20.

A business has three partners. HOW many policies would be needed to fully insure a cross purchase buy-sell plan?

a)

Six

b)

Nine

c)

One

d)

Three

21.

The maximum a person may contribute to an individual IRA is:

a)

100% of earned income not to exceed a federal maximum per year

b)

The only IRA that has a contribution limit is a ROTH IRA. Traditional IRAs do not have contribution limits

c)

As much as the account holder wants to contribute

d)

50% of the individual's earned income with no limit

22.

A transfer occurs when a person transfers funds to the same type of account, but with a different institution. This type of transfer may occur:

a)

Once per year

b)

Twice per year

c)

An unlimited number of times per year

d)

Once during a person's lifetime

23.

A qualified retirement plan that adheres to ERISA laws and rules is WHAT kind of plan?

a)

A nonqualified plan

b)

A deferred payment plan

c)

A qualified plan

d)

A pick and choose plan

24.

Distributions from a qualified retirement plan before age 59 1/2 are subject to WHAT penalty if the account holder is not eligible for a premature distribution?

a)

A ten percent premature distribution penalty on the entire amount withdrawn

b)

A 50% penalty on the amount that should have been taken, but was not

c)

15 percent, unless the account holder has suspended contributions to the account

d)

Penalties for premature distributions were repealed more than a decade ago

25.

Proof of coverage for an employee under an employer's group life insurance plan is evidenced by:

a)

The master contract

b)

An insurance policy

c)

A certificate of insurance

d)

Just an ID card showing the name of the insurer

26.

An employee resigns and is no longer covered under their group life plan. Does the employee have the right to continue insurance coverage?

a)

Yes, the conversion privilege allows the individual to convert his group term coverage to an individual term insurance policy at attained age pricing and no proof of health

b)

No, there is no allowance for conversion from a group plan in this state

c)

No, the former employee will have to go and purchase an individual policy of their choosing and have to prove health

d)

Yes, the employee will be offered a permanent insurance policy with no health proof at original age pricing

27.

Premiums paid for personal life insurance are:

a)

Tax deductible

b)

Deductible only in third-party ownership contracts

c)

Not tax deductible

d)

Partially deductible

28.

Bob's company has a profit sharing plan that asks him to contribute to the plan on a voluntary basis. This is a:

a)

A Savings Incentive Match Plan for Employees

b)

401(k) plan

c)

A KEOGH Plan

d)

Defined benefit retirement plan

29.

For those age 50 and older, HOW much is the catch-up contribution amount for Health Savings Accounts?

a)

5000

b)

7500

c)

2500

d)

1000

30.

Medicare Advantage, or MA plans, are technically called:

a)

Part C plans

b)

Optional Plans

c)

Private plans

d)

Required plans

31.

The primary qualifier to receive disability insurance benefits is WHICH of the following?

a)

An injury that prevents the insured from getting a different job

b)

The fact that the insured could be out of work for up to at least one week

c)

An inability to perform the duties of one's occupation

d)

The insured must file a claim stating that he or she wants to receive benefits.

32.

Policies that pay benefits based on the typical charge in a geographical area pay on WHAT basis?

a)

Coinsurance provision policies

b)

The actual billing amount, regardless of the actual charge

c)

These are expense incurred policies, and pay on a usual, reasonable and customary charge basis

d)

Copayment policies

33.

An individual disability income policy may exclude coverage for preexisting conditions for HOW long?

a)

Up to six months after the effective date of the policy

b)

A maximum of three months

c)

Preexisting condition exclusions are no longer allowed under the Affordable Care Act

d)

Up to one year from the policy issue date

34.

Medicare is:

a)

A federal savings program that uses private insurance companies to provide benefits

b)

A state-run program for those who cannot afford medical insurance

c)

A program meant for those at or below the federal poverty level

d)

A federal health care program for those age 65 and over, and certain people under age 65 with qualifying disabilities

35.

WHAT medical plan has a network, but allows non-network access at any time?

a)

PPOs

b)

Major medical policies

c)

Gatekeeper plans

d)

HMOs

36.

Under the Loss of Earnings test, insurers have the right to have the insured undergo a physical examination for disability claims every:

a)

Three months

b)

Quarterly

c)

Six months

d)

Annually

37.

For 2020, WHAT is the maximum that may be contributed to a flexible savings account per employee?

a)

2750 (for 2025 it is 3.3k,for2026itis3.3k, for 2026 it is 3.4k)

b)

3250

c)

No limit, but only for 2020, due to the pandemic

d)

3500

38.

WHICH medical plan offers prepaid coverage and emphasizes prevention?

a)

Limited benefit plans

b)

Major medical policies

c)

PPOs

d)

HMOs

39.

WHAT disability contract provision will pay the insured benefits even if he or she can work in another occupation?

a)

Occupational policies

b)

Non-occupational policies

c)

An own occupation provision

d)

An any occupation provision

40.

WHAT is the name of the policy given to the sponsor of a group insurance plan?

a)

The employer only received a certificate of insurance

b)

The Group Contract

c)

The Employer edition of the policy

d)

The master contract, or policy

41.

In order to purchase group health insurance through the Small Business Health Options Program, or SHOP, how many employees may a business have?

a)

2 to 100

b)

1 to 25

c)

1 to 50

d)

Under 100 employees, including owners

42.

If a group plan is terminated for any reason, those who are disabled, injured, or ill will receive WHICH of the following?

a)

The Coordination of Benefits provision will come into play, and require the plan to pay the benefits on any plan that has been terminated

b)

If a group plan is terminated for material misrepresentations, there will be no further claim payments made for any reason

c)

The loss will continue to be covered under the plan, but only if the employee has converted to an individual plan of insurance

d)

An extension of benefits under the policy for three months for basic plans, and 12 months for major medical coverage

43.

Stella's employer switched group insurance plans, but she had a claim filed with the previous carrier. What happens with Stella's claim?

a)

The new insurer has the choice of whether to cover the claim, and can choose not to provide any benefits to Stella

b)

Stella is out of luck as there is no coverage remaining for her loss, and she will have to pay for it out of her own pocket

c)

The new carrier will pay for the claim, and then ask the previous carrier for reimbursement

d)

It will continue to be paid under No Loss No Gain statutes

44.

Small employers in the same or similar industry that band together to purchase health insurance are known as:

a)

Group Purchasing Trusts, or GPTs

b)

Blanket Insurance Trusts, or BITs

c)

Multiple Employer Trusts, or METs

d)

Multiple Business Health Groups, or MBHGs

45.

Premium rating that is based on geography within a particular region is known as:

a)

Experience rating

b)

Average risk rating

c)

Community rating

d)

Claims rating

46.

Employees in an employer-sponsored group plan receive WHAT as proof of coverage?

a)

Nothing, they are part of a list of covered employees kept by the insurance company

b)

Policies

c)

Only Identification cards

d)

Certificates of insurance

47.

Other than nursing home care, WHICH of the following is the highest level of care afforded by a long-term care policy?

a)

Community care

b)

Skilled nursing facility, or SNF care

c)

Custodial care

d)

Intermediate care

48.

Employers that self-insure commonly purchase WHAT kind of coverage to protect them in case the self-insured funds are used up?

a)

Excess insurance coverage

b)

Stop-loss insurance

c)

Workers' Compensation coverage

d)

Excess liability coverage

49.

ALL of the following are limited risk policies EXCEPT:

a)

Major medical coverage

b)

Cancer insurance

c)

Travel accident policies

d)

School and athletic team policies

50.

ALL of the following will terminate a group plan EXCEPT:

a)

Fraud or material misrepresentation by the sponsor

b)

Too many claims for the group have been filed

c)

Nonpayment of premium

d)

Misuse or harassment of a provider network

51.

Regarding rate increases for an individual on ACA plans, an insurer may only raise premium rates:

a)

Based on the age of the insured

b)

If it can prove that its losses are attributable to a class of specific insureds, such as electricians

c)

If the insured has had losses in excess of the national averages

d)

The ACA prevents rate increases and they are not allowed under any circumstances

52.

The concept of paying medical expenses that are based on where a person lives is known as:

a)

Coinsurance

b)

Scheduled coverage

c)

A benefit schedule

d)

Usual, Reasonable and Customary charges

53.

The Time Limit on Certain Defenses provision, also known as the Incontestable provision, gives the insurance company HOW LONG to contest payment under the policy for misrepresentations?

a)

There is no time limit, insurers may contest payment under the policy for misrepresentations made in the application for insurance

b)

Two years

c)

Five years

d)

Three years

54.

If an insurer is allowed to exclude coverage for a pre-existing condition, WHAT form will they use?

a)

This cannot happen, as no insurance policy may exclude coverage for pre-existing conditions due to the Affordable Care Act

b)

There is no form for this, the insurer will simply deny all claims associated with the pre-existing condition

c)

A medical declination provision

d)

An impairment rider or waiver

55.

The renewal provision that guarantees the insured the ability to renew until at least age 60 or 65 is WHAT renewal provision?

a)

Noncancellable

b)

Guaranteed renewable

c)

Future Purchase Option renewal provision

d)

Cancellable policies

56.

Insurers must provide claim forms to the insured within HOW MANY days after the insured has provided Notice of Claim?

a)

90

b)

As soon as reasonably possible

c)

30

d)

15

57.

WHICH of the following statements would best describe the Misstatement of Age provision?

a)

An insurer cannot cancel a policy due to age misstatements, and can only adjust either the benefits payable or the premium.

b)

The insurance company will give the insured a period of 180 days to correct the deficiency

c)

The insurer may cancel the policy with at least 10 days' notice

d)

Age misstatements are considered fraudulent misrepresentations, so the policy will be canceled immediately

58.

If a person is receiving disability income benefits, the insurer can require the insured undergo a physical examination every:

a)

3 months

b)

6 months

c)

Month

d)

12 months

59.

A child ages out and is no longer eligible for coverage under his parent's policy. At WHAT age does a young adult age out of coverage under the ACA?

a)

30

b)

26

c)

65

d)

27

60.

If an insured submits a claim, but owes the insurer premium, WHAT can the insurance company do?

a)

Deduct the premium owed from any claims payment

b)

Deny the claim until the past due premiums are paid, and then pay the claim

c)

Delay paying the claim until the insured can prove he has the financial ability to pay the premiums

d)

The insurer may obtain a legal judgment that forces the insured to pay the premium

61.

HOW LONG is the grace period contained in an ACA plan purchased through the Health Insurance Marketplace?

a)

90 days

b)

14 days

c)

180 days

d)

120 days

62.

The Medicare blood coverage requires:

a)

The patient has others in his family donate blood to the Red Cross on the patient's behalf

b)

That the beneficiary donate any potentially needed blood before treatment begins

c)

That the beneficiary have a blood type that is listed in the National Blood Registry

d)

The beneficiary pay for the first three pints of blood, unless the blood was received free of charge by the facility

63.

Medicaid:

a)

Is no longer applicable, as the Affordable Care Act replaced the need for the program

b)

May only be accessed by those who are considered uninsurable

c)

Is administered by the individual state insurance divisions

d)

Is a state run program that is jointly financed between the states and federal government, and is intended for those at or below certain income levels, and others

64.

In order for a person to receive 100 percent of their Primary Insurance Amount as a retirement benefit, the person must have:

a)

Reached full retirement age

b)

The only way that a person can receive 100 percent of their PIA is if the person has paid more into the Social Security system than is required by law

c)

Delayed receiving their retirement benefit until age 70

d)

Applied to Social Security prior at age 62

65.

The three benefits available through OASDI, better known as Social Security are:

a)

Disability, unemployment protection and retirement benefits

b)

Disability, retirement and survivors benefits

c)

Hospital, Medical and Surgical services

d)

Part A, Part B, and Part D

66.

WHAT is the Social Security Disability Insurance waiting period?

a)

90 days

b)

Five months, with benefits payable at the end of the sixth month

c)

There is only a waiting period if the beneficiary does NOT have private disability coverage

d)

One year

67.

A doctor who does not accept Medicare assignment may do WHICH of the following?

a)

Require the patient to obtain a pre-authorization for treatment from Medicare

b)

Require the patient to submit his claim through his personal insurance policy and not submit it to Medicare

c)

Charge an additional 15 percent above the Medicare Approved Amount

d)

Charge the patient the going Usual, Reasonable and Customary rate for the service

68.

WHEN does Medicare's annual general open enrollment period occur?

a)

The annual enrollment period is only for those who are planning on changing their Medigap or Medicare Advantage provider

b)

November 15 through December 7 annually

c)

Medicare does not have an annual open enrollment period

d)

January 1 through March 31, the first three months of each year

69.

In a Medicare Supplement policy, the core package is known as:

a)

Plan C

b)

Plan B

c)

Plan G

d)

Plan A

70.

Part A of Medicare provides WHICH of the following?

a)

Hospital and facilities coverage

b)

Medical coverage that pays for doctors

c)

Skilled nursing facilities

d)

Prescription drugs

71.

Can a Medigap policy apply a pre-existing conditions exclusion?

a)

No, never

b)

Yes, but only if applied for during open enrollment

c)

Only in the event the proposed insured fails a medical exam during the open enrollment period

d)

Yes, but only for six months, and only if enrollment is requested outside of the open enrollment period

72.

Medicare's version of a fee schedule is called WHICH of the following?

a)

The Agreed Payment Schedule

b)

The Maximum Allowance Schedule

c)

The National Payment Schedule

d)

The Medicare Approved Amount

73.

An ACA compliant health insurance policy allows HOW LONG to report the birth of a child to the insurer in order to maintain coverage?

a)

The ACE does not require that children be reported as they are covered automatically from the moment of birth

b)

90 days

c)

Six months

d)

60 days

74.

If a policyowner wanted to split up a death benefit between beneficiaries, he would use WHICH of the following designations?

a)

A succession designation

b)

A per stirpes designation

c)

An even-split designation

d)

A per capita designation

75.

Workers' Compensation requirements may be met by:

a)

Proving that the employer has fewer than 25 employees

b)

Buying a Workers' Compensation policy from an insurer, or the entity may self-insure for losses

c)

Obtaining a waiver from the federal government that provides the employer with a Workers' Compensation insurance exemption

d)

Purchasing both group medical insurance and group disability insurance for the employees

76.

In order for a partnership or sole proprietor to deduct health insurance premiums for medical coverage on the owners and family members, the entity must:

a)

Apply for the policy in the name of the business, and not in the names of the owners

b)

Register as an S corporation with the state

c)

Not have more than five insureds on the family health insurance policy

d)

Provide group health benefits for its employees

77.

WHAT policy is designed to pay for injuries and illnesses sustained at the workplace?

a)

Workers' Compensation

b)

Social Security Disability Income

c)

Disability income policies

d)

Personal health insurance

78.

Under the rules of the Affordable Care Act, adult children may be covered under their parent's policy WHAT age?

a)

26

b)

No limiting age under any circumstances

c)

25

d)

21

79.

WHAT type of beneficiary designation means to, or through family lines?

a)

Per stirpes

b)

Per capita

c)

Per classes

d)

Per succession

80.

WHICH of the following disability income policies will pay the insured even if working in a different occupation?

a)

Non-occupational policies

b)

Any occupation policies

c)

Workers' Compensation contracts

d)

Own occupation policies

81.

The frequency of premium payments is known as:

a)

Premium payment requirements

b)

Modes of premium payment, or Modal Premium

c)

Due date intervals

d)

Billing intervals

82.

Of the following, WHICH benefit received would result in a taxable event to the employee?

a)

Medical expense benefits paid that are equal to or less than the medical expenses that were incurred

b)

Accidental Death and Dismemberment benefits

c)

Benefits received by a business from a key person policy

d)

Disability income benefits from premiums paid for by employers

83.

For a person to be able to deduct medical expenses, the expenses must exceed WHAT percentage of their Adjusted Gross Income for 2020?

a)

0.1

b)

0.3

c)

0.075

d)

0.15