ICP spring final review

What are the building blocks of all matter?

a.

atoms

b.

kinetic and potential energy

Multiple Choice

What are the building blocks of all matter?

• A

• B

In which step of the scientific method is
information obtained through the senses?

a.

making observations

b.

drawing conclusions

Multiple Choice

In which step of the scientific method is information obtained through the senses?

• A

• B

What is a physical or mental representation
of an object or an event?

a.

a model

b.

a theory

Multiple Choice

What is a physical or mental representation of an object or an event?

• A

• B

How is 0.00069 written in scientific notation?

a.

6.90 × 10–4

b.

6.90 × 104

Multiple Choice

How is 0.00069 written in scientific notation?

• A

• B

Which of the following conversion factors would
you use to change 18 kilometers to meters?

a.

100 m/1 km

b.

1000 m/1 km

Multiple Choice

Which of the following conversion factors would you use to change 18 kilometers to meters?

• A

• B

What are 6 centimeters equal to?

a.

600 meters

b.

60 millimeters

Multiple Choice

What are 6 centimeters equal to?

• A

• B

On the Celsius scale, at what temperature
does water boil?

a.

212°

b.

100°

Multiple Choice

On the Celsius scale, at what temperature does water boil?

• A

• B

Approximately how many kelvins are equal to
60°F?

a.

289

b.

323

Multiple Choice

Approximately how many kelvins are equal to 60°F?

• A

• B

Which of the following are pure substances?

a.

compounds

b.

colloids

Multiple Choice

Which of the following are pure substances?

• A

• B

Which of the following is NOT a pure
substance?

a.

oxygen

b.

milk

Multiple Choice

Which of the following is NOT a pure substance?

• A

• B

A substance that is made up of only one kind
of atom is a(an)

a.

compound.

b.

element.

Multiple Choice

 A substance that is made up of only one kind of atom is a(an)

• A

• B

If an unknown substance CANNOT be broken
down into simpler substances, it is

a.

a compound.

b.

an element.

c.

made of one kind of atom.

d.

both b and c

Multiple Choice

 If an unknown substance CANNOT be broken down into simpler substances, it is

• A

• B

• C

• D

The symbol for gold is

a.

Al.

b.

Au.

Multiple Choice

The symbol for gold is

• A

• B

Water is a compound because it

a.

can be broken down into
simpler substances.

b.

always has two hydrogen
atoms for each oxygen atom.

c.

is made of water atoms joined
together.

d.

both a and b

Multiple Choice

Water is a compound because it

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following is a characteristic of a
mixture?

a.

has varying properties

b.

has a fixed composition

c.

contains only pure substances

d.

both a and b

Multiple Choice

Which of the following is a characteristic of a mixture?

• A

• B

• C

• D

A mixture that appears to contain only one
substance is a(an)

a.

element.

b.

homogeneous mixture.

Multiple Choice

A mixture that appears to contain only one substance is a(an)

• A

• B

Which of the following is a heterogeneous
mixture?

a.

sugar water

b.

a jar of mixed nuts

Multiple Choice

Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?

• A

• B

A mixture can be classified as a solution,
suspension, or colloid based on the

a.

size of its largest particles.

b.

number of particles it contains.

Multiple Choice

A mixture can be classified as a solution, suspension, or colloid based on the

• A

• B

You are about to open a container of soy milk but
notice that there are instructions to "shake well before
serving." The soy milk is most likely a
a.

solution.

b.

suspension.

Multiple Choice

You are about to open a container of soy milk but notice that there are instructions to "shake well before serving." The soy milk is most likely a

• A

• B

Which of the following is malleable?

a.

gold

b.

glass

Multiple Choice

Which of the following is malleable?

• A

• B

Which of the following has the highest
viscosity?

a.

milk

b.

corn syrup

Multiple Choice

Which of the following has the highest viscosity?

• A

• B

Which of the following materials is useful for
making molds because it has a low melting point?

a.

wax

b.

metal

Multiple Choice

Which of the following materials is useful for making molds because it has a low melting point?

• A

• B

Filtration can be used to separate mixtures
based on

a.

their boiling points.

b.

the size of their particles.

Multiple Choice

Filtration can be used to separate mixtures based on

• A

• B

What method can be used to separate parts of a
liquid mixture when the entire mixture can pass
through a filter?
a.

distillation

b.

screening

Multiple Choice

What method can be used to separate parts of a liquid mixture when the entire mixture can pass through a filter?

• A

• B

When a physical change in a sample occurs,
which of the following does NOT change?

a.

shape

b.

composition

Multiple Choice

When a physical change in a sample occurs, which of the following does NOT change?

• A

• B

Flammability is a material's ability to burn in
the presence of

a.

carbon dioxide.

b.

oxygen.

Multiple Choice

Flammability is a material's ability to burn in the presence of

• A

• B

A substance that has high reactivity

a.

easily combines chemically
with other substances.

b.

displaces dissolved oxygen.

Multiple Choice

A substance that has high reactivity

• A

• B

A gas has

a.

a definite volume but no
definite shape.

b.

a definite shape but no definite
volume.

c.

no definite shape or definite
volume.

d.

a definite volume and definite
shape.

Multiple Choice

A gas has

• A

• B

• C

• D

Forces of attraction limit the motion of
particles most in

a.

a solid.

b.

a liquid.

c.

a gas.

d.

both b and c

Multiple Choice

Forces of attraction limit the motion of particles most in

• A

• B

• C

• D

What is the result of a force distributed over
an area?

a.

temperature

b.

volume

c.

pressure

d.

mass

Multiple Choice

What is the result of a force distributed over an area?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following factors affects the
pressure of an enclosed gas?

a.

temperature

b.

volume

c.

number of particles

d.

all of the above

Multiple Choice

Which of the following factors affects the pressure of an enclosed gas?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following will cause a decrease
in gas pressure in a closed container?

a.

lowering the temperature

b.

reducing the volume

c.

adding more gas

d.

both a and b

Multiple Choice

Which of the following will cause a decrease in gas pressure in a closed container?

• A

• B

• C

• D

The law that states that the volume of a gas is directly
proportional to its temperature in kelvins if the
pressure and the number of particles is constant is
a.

Boyle's law.

b.

Bose's law.

c.

Einstein's law.

d.

Charles's law.

Multiple Choice

The law that states that the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvins if the pressure and the number of particles is constant is

• A

• B

• C

• D

If the volume of a cylinder is reduced from 8.0 liters to
4.0 liters, the pressure of the gas in the cylinder will
change from 70 kilopascals to
a.

35 kilopascals.

b.

105 kilopascals.

c.

140 kilopascals.

d.

560 kilopascals.

Multiple Choice

If the volume of a cylinder is reduced from 8.0 liters to 4.0 liters, the pressure of the gas in the cylinder will change from 70 kilopascals to

• A

• B

• C

• D

The phase change that is the reverse of
condensation is

a.

freezing.

b.

sublimation.

c.

vaporization.

d.

melting.

Multiple Choice

The phase change that is the reverse of condensation is

• A

• B

• C

• D

During a phase change, the temperature of a
substance

a.

increases.

b.

decreases.

c.

does not change.

d.

increases or decreases.

Multiple Choice

During a phase change, the temperature of a substance

• A

• B

• C

• D

The phase change in which a substance changes
from a solid to a gas or vapor without changing to
a liquid first is
a.

sublimation.

b.

deposition.

c.

vaporization.

d.

melting.

Multiple Choice

The phase change in which a substance changes from a solid to a gas or vapor without changing to a liquid first is

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following phase changes is an
endothermic change?

a.

condensation

b.

vaporization

c.

deposition

d.

freezing

Multiple Choice

Which of the following phase changes is an endothermic change?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following phase changes is an
exothermic change?

a.

sublimation

b.

deposition

c.

vaporization

d.

melting

Multiple Choice

Which of the following phase changes is an exothermic change?

• A

• B

• C

• D

The Greek philosopher Democritus coined what
word for a tiny piece of matter that cannot be
divided?
a.

element

b.

atom

c.

electron

d.

molecule

Multiple Choice

The Greek philosopher Democritus coined what word for a tiny piece of matter that cannot be divided?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following is NOT part of John
Dalton's atomic theory?

a.

All elements are composed of
atoms.

b.

All atoms of the same element
have the same mass.

c.

Atoms contain subatomic
particles.

d.

A compound contains atoms of
more than one element.

Multiple Choice

Which of the following is NOT part of John Dalton's atomic theory?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following most accurately
represents John Dalton's model of the atom?

a.

a tiny, solid sphere with an
unpredictable mass for a given
element

b.

a hollow sphere with a dense
nucleus

c.

a tiny, solid sphere with a
predictable mass for a given
element

d.

a sphere that is hollow
throughout

Multiple Choice

Which of the following most accurately represents John Dalton's model of the atom?

• A

• B

• C

• D

The diagram shows the results of
Rutherford's gold foil experiment. What caused some
of the alpha particles to bounce straight back from the
gold foil?
a.

electrons in the gold atoms

b.

negative charges in the gold
atoms

c.

other alpha particles

d.

nuclei in the gold atoms

Multiple Choice

The diagram shows the results of Rutherford's gold foil experiment. What caused some of the alpha particles to bounce straight back from the gold foil?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which subatomic particle has a negative
charge?

a.

electron

b.

alpha particle

c.

neutron

d.

proton

Multiple Choice

Which subatomic particle has a negative charge?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which statement about subatomic particles
is NOT true?

a.

Protons and neutrons have
almost the same mass.

b.

Protons and electrons have
opposite charges.

c.

Unlike protons and electrons,
neutrons have no charge.

d.

Protons and neutrons have the
same charge.

Multiple Choice

Which statement about subatomic particles is NOT true?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following is unique for any
given element?

a.

the number of neutrons

b.

the charge on the electrons

c.

the number of protons

d.

the mass of a neutron

Multiple Choice

Which of the following is unique for any given element?

• A

• B

• C

• D

To find the number of neutrons in an atom,
you would subtract

a.

mass number from atomic
number.

b.

atomic number from mass
number.

c.

atomic number from electron
number.

d.

isotope number from atomic
number.

Multiple Choice

To find the number of neutrons in an atom, you would subtract

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which statement is true about oxygen-17
and oxygen-18?

a.

They do not have the same
number of protons.

b.

Their atoms have an identical
mass.

c.

They are isotopes of oxygen.

d.

The have the same mass
number.

Multiple Choice

Which statement is true about oxygen-17 and oxygen-18?

• A

• B

• C

• D

In Niels Bohr's model of the atom, electrons
move

a.

like balls rolling down a hill.

b.

like planets orbiting the sun.

c.

like popcorn in a popcorn
popper.

d.

like beach balls on water
waves.

Multiple Choice

In Niels Bohr's model of the atom, electrons move

• A

• B

• C

• D

What can you assume has happened if an
electron moves to a higher energy level?

a.

The atom has become more
stable.

b.

The electron has lost energy.

c.

The electron has gained
energy.

d.

The atom has lost an electron.

Multiple Choice

What can you assume has happened if an electron moves to a higher energy level?

• A

• B

• C

• D

What do scientists use to predict the
locations of electrons in atoms?

a.

probability

b.

algebra

c.

geometry

d.

ratios and proportions

Multiple Choice

What do scientists use to predict the locations of electrons in atoms?

• A

• B

• C

• D

What does the electron cloud model
describe?

a.

the most likely locations of
electrons in atoms

b.

the precise locations of
electrons in atoms

c.

the number of electrons in an
atom

d.

the mass of the electrons in an
atom

Multiple Choice

What does the electron cloud model describe?

• A

• B

• C

• D

The glowing of a neon light is caused by
electrons emitting energy as they

a.

move from lower to higher
energy levels.

b.

collide with other electrons.

c.

move from higher to lower
energy levels.

d.

collide with the nucleus.

Multiple Choice

The glowing of a neon light is caused by electrons emitting energy as they

• A

• B

• C

• D

Mendeleev arranged the known chemical
elements in a table according to increasing

a.

atomic number.

b.

number of electrons.

c.

number of protons.

d.

mass.

Multiple Choice

Mendeleev arranged the known chemical elements in a table according to increasing

• A

• B

• C

• D

In a periodic table, a set of properties repeats
from

a.

element to element.

b.

group to group.

c.

column to column.

d.

row to row.

Multiple Choice

In a periodic table, a set of properties repeats from

• A

• B

• C

• D

The usefulness of Mendeleev's periodic table
was confirmed by

a.

the discovery of subatomic
particles.

b.

its immediate acceptance by
other scientists.

c.

the discovery of elements with
predicted properties.

d.

the discovery of the nucleus.

Multiple Choice

The usefulness of Mendeleev's periodic table was confirmed by

• A

• B

• C

• D

The figure shows a portion of a blank periodic
table. Identify the segments labeled A and B.

a.

A and B are both periods.

b.

A is a period and B is a group.

c.

A and B are both groups.

d.

A is a group and B is a period.

Multiple Choice

The figure shows a portion of a blank periodic table. Identify the segments labeled A and B.

• A

• B

• C

• D

Atoms of the most reactive elements tend to
have

a.

one or seven valence electrons.

b.

eight valence electrons.

c.

four or five valence electrons.

d.

no valence electrons.

Multiple Choice

Atoms of the most reactive elements tend to have

• A

• B

• C

• D

The tendency of an element to react is
closely related to

a.

its atomic mass.

b.

attractions between its atoms.

c.

the number of valence
electrons in atoms of the
element.

d.

the ratio of protons to
neutrons in atoms of the
element.

Multiple Choice

The tendency of an element to react is closely related to 

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which halogen is most likely to react?

a.

Br (bromine)

b.

F (fluorine)

c.

I (iodine)

d.

Cl (chlorine)

Multiple Choice

Which halogen is most likely to react?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following gases emit colors
when an electric current is applied?

a.

hydrogen and helium

b.

argon and krypton

c.

fluorine and chlorine

d.

oxygen and nitrogen

Multiple Choice

Which of the following gases emit colors when an electric current is applied?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which element is found in most of the
compounds in your body except for water?

a.

iodine

b.

potassium

c.

iron

d.

carbon

Multiple Choice

Which element is found in most of the compounds in your body except for water?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following groups contain three
elements with stable electron
configurations?
a.

lithium, krypton, argon

b.

argon, neon, barium

c.

xenon, neon, boron

d.

helium, xenon, neon

Multiple Choice

Which of the following groups contain three elements with stable electron configurations?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Study the electron dot diagrams for lithium, carbon,
fluorine, and neon in the Figure. Choose the statement
that correctly identifies the most stable of the
elements.
a.

Lithium is the most stable element
because it has to lose only one
electron to achieve a stable
configuration.

b.

Carbon is the most stable element
because it can form four bonds.

c.

Fluorine is the most stable element
because it has to gain only one
electron to achieve a stable
configuration.

d.

Neon is the most stable element
because its highest occupied energy
level is filled.

Multiple Choice

Study the electron dot diagrams for lithium, carbon, fluorine, and neon in the Figure. Choose the statement that correctly identifies the most stable of the elements.

• A

• B

• C

• D

In the compound MgCl2, the subscript 2
indicates that

a.

there are two magnesium ions
for each ion of chlorine

b.

the chloride ion is twice the
size of the magnesium ion.

c.

magnesium and chlorine form
a double covalent bond.

d.

there are two chloride ions for
each magnesium ion.

Multiple Choice

In the compound MgCl₂, the subscript 2 indicates that

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following formulas represents a
compound whose molecules contain a triple
bond?
a.

N≡N

b.

O=O=Ο

c.

O3

d.

SO3

Multiple Choice

Which of the following formulas represents a compound whose molecules contain a triple bond?

• A

• B

• C

• D

In a polar covalent bond,

a.

electrons are shared equally
between atoms.

b.

a cation is bonded to an anion.

c.

electrons are transferred
between atoms.

d.

electrons are not shared
equally between atoms.

Multiple Choice

In a polar covalent bond,

• A

• B

• C

• D

The water molecule H2O is polar because it
contains two polar single bonds and

a.

its molecule has a linear shape.

b.

molecules that contain polar
bonds are always polar.

c.

its molecule has a bent shape.

d.

the attractions between water
molecules are strong.

Multiple Choice

The water molecule H₂O is polar because it contains two polar single bonds and

• A

• B

• C

• D

Water has a higher boiling point than
expected because

a.

there is so much water vapor in
the atmosphere.

b.

water molecules are not very
massive.

c.

hydrogen and oxygen form
single covalent bonds.

d.

of the strong attractions
between polar water
molecules.

Multiple Choice

Water has a higher boiling point than expected because

• A

• B

• C

• D

The elements most likely to form more than
one type of ion are the

a.

transition metals.

b.

alkali metals.

c.

halogens.

d.

alkaline earth metals.

Multiple Choice

The elements most likely to form more than one type of ion are the

• A

• B

• C

• D

The name iron(II) indicates that a compound
contains

a.

iron ions with an 11+ charge.

b.

iron ions with a 2+ charge.

c.

iron ions with a negative
charge.

d.

two types of iron ions.

Multiple Choice

The name iron(II) indicates that a compound contains

• A

• B

• C

• D

Metallic bonding is similar to ionic bonding
because

a.

electrons are transferred
between atoms.

b.

electrons are shared between
atoms.

c.

the lattice that forms contains
anions and cations.

d.

there is an attraction between
positively charged and
negatively charged particles.

Multiple Choice

Metallic bonding is similar to ionic bonding because

• A

• B

• C

• D

How does increasing the amount of carbon in
steel affect its properties?

a.

Carbon makes the lattice
harder and stronger.

b.

Carbon forms an oxide that
protects the steel from rusting.

c.

Carbon makes the steel light
enough to use for airplane
parts.

d.

Carbon makes the steel softer
and easier to cut.

Multiple Choice

How does increasing the amount of carbon in steel affect its properties?

• A

• B

• C

• D

The substances that undergo change in a
chemical reaction are called

a.

reactants.

b.

products.

c.

coefficients.

d.

elements.

Multiple Choice

The substances that undergo change in a chemical reaction are called

• A

• B

• C

• D

Hydrochloric acid, HCl, is added to solid NaOH. After
the reaction is complete, NaCl dissolved in water
remains. What are the products of this chemical
reaction?
a.

NaOH and HCl

b.

NaOH and H2O

c.

HCl and NaCl

d.

NaCl and H2O

Multiple Choice

Hydrochloric acid, HCl, is added to solid NaOH. After the reaction is complete, NaCl dissolved in water remains. What are the products of this chemical reaction?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following is a balanced chemical
equation for the synthesis of NaBr from Na and
Br2?
a.

Na + Br2→ NaBr

b.

2Na + Br2→ NaBr

c.

Na + Br2→ 2NaBr

d.

2Na + Br2→ 2NaBr

Multiple Choice

Which of the following is a balanced chemical equation for the synthesis of NaBr from Na and Br2?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Methane, CH4, burns in oxygen gas to form water
and carbon dioxide. What is the correct balanced
chemical equation for this reaction?
a.

CH4 + O → H2O + CO2

b.

CH4 + 4O → 2H2O + CO2

c.

CH4 + O2→ H2O + CO2

d.

CH4 + 2O2→ 2H2O + CO2

Multiple Choice

Methane, CH4, burns in oxygen gas to form water and carbon dioxide. What is the correct balanced chemical equation for this reaction?

• A

• B

• C

• D

How many atoms are present in 3 moles of
chromium?

a.

6.02 ×1023 atoms

b.

1.80 ×1023 atoms

c.

1.80 ×1024 atoms

d.

52.0 atoms

Multiple Choice

How many atoms are present in 3 moles of chromium?

• 6.02 ×10²³ atoms

• 1.80 ×10²³ atoms

• 1.80 ×10²⁴ atoms

• 52.0 atoms

The coefficients in a balanced chemical
equation always can express the ratio of

a.

moles of reactants and
products.

b.

volume of reactants and
products.

c.

atoms of reactants and
products.

d.

mass of reactants and
products.

Multiple Choice

The coefficients in a balanced chemical equation always can express the ratio of

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following statements is true about
what happens during a chemical reaction?

a.

Bonds of the reactants are
broken, and bonds of the
products are formed.

b.

Bonds of the reactants are
formed, and bonds of the
products are broken.

c.

The bonds of both the reactants
and the products are broken.

d.

The bonds of both the reactants
and the products are formed.

Multiple Choice

Which of the following statements is true about what happens during a chemical reaction?

• A

• B

• C

• D

The total amount of energy before and after
a chemical reaction is the same. Thus, energy
is
a.

created.

b.

destroyed.

c.

conserved.

d.

the same as mass.

Multiple Choice

The total amount of energy before and after a chemical reaction is the same. Thus, energy is

• A

• B

• C

• D

When the forward and reverse paths of a
change occur at the same rate,

a.

the system is conserved.

b.

the system is in equilibrium.

c.

the change must be physical.

d.

the change must be chemical.

Multiple Choice

When the forward and reverse paths of a change occur at the same rate,

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following statements is true?

a.

Organic compounds always
contain carbon and hydrogen.

b.

Organic compounds contain
only carbon and hydrogen.

c.

Organic compounds are
produced only in organisms.

d.

About 10 percent of all known
compounds are organic
compounds.

Multiple Choice

Which of the following statements is true?

• A

• B

• C

• D

When monomers link together, they usually
form

a.

a polymer.

b.

another monomer.

c.

ionic bonds.

d.

a network solid.

Multiple Choice

When monomers link together, they usually form

• A

• B

• C

• D

Proteins that act as catalysts for chemical
reactions that occur in cells are

a.

vitamins.

b.

enzymes.

c.

carbohydrates.

d.

amino acids.

Multiple Choice

Proteins that act as catalysts for chemical reactions that occur in cells are 

• A

• B

• C

• D

What is the process in which an unstable atomic
nucleus emits charged particles or energy or both?

a.

radioactivity

b.

oxidation

c.

decomposition

d.

none of the above

Multiple Choice

What is the process in which an unstable atomic nucleus emits charged particles or energy or both?

• A

• B

• C

• D

When radium-226 decays to form radon-222,
the radium nucleus emits a(an)

a.

alpha particle.

b.

beta particle.

c.

gamma ray.

d.

electron.

Multiple Choice

When radium-226 decays to form radon-222, the radium nucleus emits a(an)

• A

• B

• C

• D

Alpha-emitting substances, such as radon
gas, can be a serious health hazard only if

a.

they are inhaled or eaten.

b.

their radiation strikes the skin.

c.

exposure to them is external.

d.

none of the above

Multiple Choice

Alpha-emitting substances, such as radon gas, can be a serious health hazard only if

• A

• B

• C

• D

A passenger in the rear seat of a car moving
at a steady speed is at rest relative to

a.

the side of the road.

b.

a pedestrian on the corner
ahead.

c.

the front seat of the car.

d.

the wheels of the car.

Multiple Choice

A passenger in the rear seat of a car moving at a steady speed is at rest relative to

• A

• B

• C

• D

Displacement vectors of 4 km south, 2 km north, 5
km south, and 5 km north combine to a total
displacement of
a.

16 km north

b.

11 km west

c.

6 km south

d.

2 km south

Multiple Choice

Displacement vectors of 4 km south, 2 km north, 5 km south, and 5 km north combine to a total displacement of

• A

• B

• C

• D

Speed is the ratio of the distance an object
moves to

a.

the amount of time needed to
travel the distance.

b.

the direction the object moves.

c.

the displacement of the object.

d.

the motion of the object.

Multiple Choice

Speed is the ratio of the distance an object moves to

• A

• B

• C

• D

A car traveled 60 km in 2 hours, 84 km in the next 1
hour, and then 68 km in 2 hours before reaching its
destination. What was the car's average speed?
a.

212 km/h

b.

42 km/h

c.

148 km/h

d.

1060 km/h

Multiple Choice

A car traveled 60 km in 2 hours, 84 km in the next 1 hour, and then 68 km in 2 hours before reaching its destination. What was the car's average speed?

• A

• B

• C

• D

The rate at which velocity changes is called

a.

speed.

b.

vectors.

c.

acceleration.

d.

motion.

Multiple Choice

The rate at which velocity changes is called

• A

• B

• C

• D

Objects in free fall near the surface of the
Earth experience

a.

constant speed.

b.

constant velocity.

c.

constant acceleration.

d.

constant distance.

Multiple Choice

Objects in free fall near the surface of the Earth experience

• A

• B

• C

• D

An object moving at 30 m/s takes 5 s to come
to a stop. What is the object's acceleration?

a.

30 m/s2

b.

–30 m/s2

c.

–6 m/s2

d.

6 m/s2

Multiple Choice

An object moving at 30 m/s takes 5 s to come to a stop. What is the object's acceleration?

• A

• B

• C

• D

The SI unit of force is the

a.

joule.

b.

kilogram.

c.

meter.

d.

newton.

Multiple Choice

The SI unit of force is the

• A

• B

• C

• D

The forces acting on a falling leaf are

a.

air resistance and fluid friction.

b.

gravity and air resistance.

c.

gravity and static friction.

d.

weight and rolling friction.

Multiple Choice

The forces acting on a falling leaf are

• A

• B

• C

• D

An open parachute increases air resistance of
a falling sky diver by

a.

decreasing the weight of the
diver.

b.

increasing surface area.

c.

increasing the terminal
velocity.

d.

reducing fluid friction.

Multiple Choice

An open parachute increases air resistance of a falling sky diver by

• A

• B

• C

• D

If a force of 12 N is applied to an object with
a mass of 2 kg, the object will accelerate at

a.

0.17 m/s2.

b.

24 m/s2.

c.

6 m/s2.

d.

12 m/s2.

Multiple Choice

If a force of 12 N is applied to an object with a mass of 2 kg, the object will accelerate at

• A

• B

• C

• D

Newton's third law of motion describes

a.

action and reaction forces.

b.

balanced forces.

c.

centripetal forces.

d.

net force.

Multiple Choice

Newton's third law of motion describes

• A

• B

• C

• D

The product of an object's mass and velocity
is its

a.

centripetal force.

b.

momentum.

c.

net force.

d.

weight.

Multiple Choice

The product of an object's mass and velocity is its

• A

• B

• C

• D

What is conserved when two objects collide
in a closed system?

a.

acceleration

b.

momentum

c.

speed

d.

velocity

Multiple Choice

What is conserved when two objects collide in a closed system?

• A

• B

• C

• D

When opposite poles of two magnets are
brought together, the poles

a.

attract each other.

b.

repel each other.

c.

cancel each other.

d.

cause a net force of zero.

Multiple Choice

When opposite poles of two magnets are brought together, the poles

• A

• B

• C

• D

The gravitational force between two objects
increases as mass

a.

decreases or distance
decreases.

b.

decreases or distance
increases.

c.

increases or distance
decreases.

d.

increases or distance increases.

Multiple Choice

The gravitational force between two objects increases as mass

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following materials is NOT a
fluid?

a.

air

b.

cork

c.

gasoline

d.

water

Multiple Choice

The gravitational force between two objects increases as mass

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which principle states that a change in the pressure at any point in
a fluid in a closed container is transmitted equally and unchanged
in all directions throughout the fluid?

a.

Archimedes' principle

b.

Bernoulli's principle

c.

Newton's principle

d.

Pascal's principle

Multiple Choice

Which principle states that a change in the pressure at any point in a fluid in a closed container is transmitted equally and unchanged in all directions throughout the fluid?

• A

• B

• C

• D

The upward force acting on the wing of an
airplane in flight is called

a.

drag.

b.

lift.

c.

thrust.

d.

weight.

Multiple Choice

The upward force acting on the wing of an airplane in flight is called

• A

• B

• C

• D

A force acting on an object does no work if

a.

a machine is used to move the
object.

b.

the force is not in the direction
of the object's motion.

c.

the force is greater than the
force of friction.

d.

the object accelerates.

Multiple Choice

A force acting on an object does no work if

• A

• B

• C

• D

What is the unit of work?

a.

joule

b.

newton/meter

c.

watt

d.

all of the above

Multiple Choice

What is the unit of work?

• A

• B

• C

• D

If you perform 40 joules of work lifting a 10-N box
from the floor to a shelf, how high is the shelf?

a.

0.3 m

b.

20 m

c.

4.0 m

d.

400 m

Multiple Choice

If you perform 40 joules of work lifting a 10-N box from the floor to a shelf, how high is the shelf?

• A

• B

• C

• D

The SI unit of power is the

a.

joule.

b.

newton.

c.

newton-meter.

d.

watt.

Multiple Choice

The SI unit of power is the

• A

• B

• C

• D

If you exert a force of 700 N to walk 6 m up a flight
of stairs in 6 s, how much power do you use?

a.

19 W

b.

25,200 W

c.

700 W

d.

4200 W

Multiple Choice

If you exert a force of 700 N to walk 6 m up a flight of stairs in 6 s, how much power do you use?

• A

• B

• C

• D

A machine is a device that can multiply

a.

force.

b.

power.

c.

work.

d.

all of the above

Multiple Choice

A machine is a device that can multiply

• A

• B

• C

• D

How can you make the work output of a
machine greater than the work input?

a.

by decreasing friction

b.

by increasing the input force

c.

by increasing the output
distance

d.

none of the above

Multiple Choice

How can you make the work output of a machine greater than the work input?

• A

• B

• C

• D

If you have to apply 40 N of force on a crowbar to lift a
rock that weighs 400 N, what is the actual mechanical
advantage of the crowbar?
a.

0.1

b.

10

c.

360

d.

16,000

Multiple Choice

If you have to apply 40 N of force on a crowbar to lift a rock that weighs 400 N, what is the actual mechanical advantage of the crowbar?

• A

• B

• C

• D

The efficiency of a machine is always less
than 100 percent because

a.

a machine cannot have an IMA
greater than 1.

b.

some work input is lost to
friction.

c.

the work input is too small.

d.

the work output is too great.

Multiple Choice

The efficiency of a machine is always less than 100 percent because

• A

• B

• C

• D

An inclined plane reduces the effort force by

a.

increasing the distance through
which the force is applied.

b.

increasing the work.

c.

reducing the effort distance.

d.

reducing the work.

Multiple Choice

An inclined plane reduces the effort force by

• A

• B

• C

• D

A machine is classified as a compound
machine if it

a.

has moving parts.

b.

has an IMA greater than 1.

c.

is made up of two or more
simple machines that operate
together.

d.

is very efficient.

Multiple Choice

A machine is classified as a compound machine if it

• A

• B

• C

• D

Work is a transfer of

a.

energy.

b.

force.

c.

mass.

d.

motion.

Multiple Choice

Work is a transfer of

• A

• B

• C

• D

The energy of motion is called

a.

kinetic energy.

b.

potential energy.

c.

thermal energy.

d.

work.

Multiple Choice

The energy of motion is called

• A

• B

• C

• D

A mechanical wave moves through a
medium, which can be

a.

a liquid.

b.

a solid.

c.

a gas.

d.

all of the above

Multiple Choice

A mechanical wave moves through a medium, which can be

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which wave causes the medium to vibrate only in
a direction parallel to the wave's motion?

a.

a transverse wave

b.

a surface wave

c.

a longitudinal wave

d.

none of the above

Multiple Choice

Which wave causes the medium to vibrate only in a direction parallel to the wave's motion?

• A

• B

• C

• D

The figure shows a wave movement during
1 second. What is the frequency of this
wave?
a.

2 hertz

b.

2 meters/second

c.

0.5 second

d.

1 hertz

Multiple Choice

Figure 17-1 shows a wave movement during 1 second. What is the frequency of this wave?

• A

• B

• C

• D

For refraction to occur in a wave, the wave
must

a.

strike an obstacle larger than
the wavelength.

b.

change direction within a
medium.

c.

enter a new medium at an
angle.

d.

enter a new medium head-on.

Multiple Choice

For refraction to occur in a wave, the wave must

• A

• B

• C

• D

Suppose two waves collide and the temporary
combined wave that results is smaller than the original
waves. What term best describes this interaction?
a.

diffraction

b.

destructive interference

c.

standing wave formation

d.

constructive interference

Multiple Choice

Suppose two waves collide and the temporary combined wave that results is smaller than the original waves. What term best describes this interaction?

• A

• B

• C

• D

A sound wave is an example of a

a.

transverse wave.

b.

longitudinal wave.

c.

standing wave.

d.

surface wave.

Multiple Choice

A sound wave is an example of a

• A

• B

• C

• D

In which medium does sound travel the
fastest?

a.

salt water

b.

fresh water

c.

air

d.

cast iron

Multiple Choice

In which medium does sound travel the fastest?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which part of the ear amplifies the vibrations
from sound waves?

a.

outer ear

b.

inner ear

c.

middle ear

d.

both a and b

Multiple Choice

Which part of the ear amplifies the vibrations from sound waves?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Light acts like

a.

a wave.

b.

a particle.

c.

both a wave and a particle.

d.

neither a wave nor a particle.

Multiple Choice

Light acts like

• A

• B

• C

• D

X-ray photographs show softer tissue

a.

as invisible.

b.

as dark, highly exposed areas.

c.

the same as dense bones.

d.

as bright white areas.

Multiple Choice

X-ray photographs show softer tissue

• A

• B

• C

• D

The primary colors of light are

a.

green, blue, and black.

b.

cyan, magenta, and yellow.

c.

red, yellow, and blue.

d.

blue, green, and red.

Multiple Choice

The primary colors of light are

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following is NOT true regarding
neon lights?

a.

Light is emitted as electrons
move through a gas in a tube.

b.

All neon lights are colored by
the color of the tubing.

c.

Neon lights may contain other
gases, such as helium or
krypton.

d.

Each kind of gas produces its
own distinctive color.

Multiple Choice

Which of the following is NOT true regarding neon lights?

• A

• B

• C

• D

For reflection off a plane mirror, the angle of
incidence

a.

is greater than the angle of
reflection.

b.

is less than the angle of
reflection.

c.

equals the angle of reflection.

d.

changes the angle of reflection.

Multiple Choice

For reflection off a plane mirror, the angle of incidence

• A

• B

• C

• D

Light refracts when it

a.

bounces off a surface.

b.

changes speed.

c.

comes from a laser.

d.

spreads out from its source.

Multiple Choice

Light refracts when it

• A

• B

• C

• D

If an atom gains electrons, it becomes a

a.

positively charged ion.

b.

negatively charged ion.

c.

neutral atom.

d.

neutral ion.

Multiple Choice

If an atom gains electrons, it becomes a

• A

• B

• C

• D

If the two charges represented in the figure
were brought near each other, they would

a.

attract each other.

b.

repel each other.

c.

cause static discharge.

d.

have no effect on each other.

Multiple Choice

If the two charges represented in the figure were brought near each other, they would

• A

• B

• C

• D

What type of current is produced by a
battery?

a.

parallel current

b.

alternating current

c.

direct current

d.

potential current

Multiple Choice

What type of current is produced by a battery?

• A

• B

• C

• D

The type of current in your school is mostly

a.

direct current.

b.

alternating current.

c.

series current.

d.

produced by batteries.

Multiple Choice

The type of current in your school is mostly

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following materials allows
charges to flow easily?

a.

glass

b.

wood

c.

an electrical conductor

d.

an electrical insulator

Multiple Choice

Which of the following materials allows charges to flow easily?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Resistance is affected by a material's

a.

thickness.

b.

length.

c.

temperature.

d.

all of the above

Multiple Choice

Resistance is affected by a material's

• A

• B

• C

• D

The current in a hair dryer measures 15.0 amps.
The resistance of the hair dryer is 8 ohms. What is
the voltage?
a.

120 V

b.

0.5 V

c.

7 V

d.

1800 V

Multiple Choice

The current in a hair dryer measures 15.0 amps. The resistance of the hair dryer is 8 ohms. What is the voltage?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following represents Ohm's
law?

a.

I = V x R

b.

V = I x R

Multiple Choice

Which of the following represents Ohm's law?

• A

• B

How many paths through which charge can flow
would be shown in a circuit diagram of a series
circuit?
a.

one

b.

two or more

c.

none

d.

more information is needed

Multiple Choice

How many paths through which charge can flow would be shown in a circuit diagram of a series circuit?

• A

• B

• C

• D

What is the unit of electric power?

a.

ampere

b.

volt

c.

watt

d.

ohm

Multiple Choice

What is the unit of electric power?

• A

• B

• C

• D

Which of the following provides electrical
safety?

a.

circuit breaker

b.

fuse

c.

ground-fault circuit interrupter

d.

all of the above

Multiple Choice

Which of the following provides electrical safety?

• A

• B

• C

• D