Chapter 55

Multiple Choice

Which of the following statements about congenital anomalies is correct?

• Major congenital anomalies are found in 3 of every 100 births.

• Minor birth defects complicate less than 5% of births.

• Sonographers do not screen for unsuspected anomalies.

• All congenital anomalies are detected before birth.

Multiple Choice

Why is it important to identify congenital anomalies during the prenatal period?

• to enable early intervention and informed decision-making.

• To reduce the cost of prenatal care.
• To ensure the baby is born on time.
• To avoid unnecessary medical tests.

Multiple Choice

Which of the following must be determined prior to performing chorionic villus sampling?

• Fetal life, morphology, and age

• Mother's blood type only

• Placental weight

• Father's genetic history

Fill in the Blanks

Fill in the blank: Chorionic villus sampling can be performed either

or transabdominally.

Multiple Choice

When is chorionic villus sampling performed?

• Week 11-13

• Week 10-12

• Week 10-14

• Week 11-14

Multiple Choice

Which of the following steps is NOT part of the chorionic villus sampling procedure?

• US guides needle to placenta

• Catheter inserted through the needle

• Catheter "sucks" up placental tissue

• Amniotic fluid is withdrawn

Open Ended

Describe the difference between transabdominal and transcervical chorionic villus sampling as shown in the diagrams.

Multiple Choice

Why is there a gestational age limit of 12 weeks for embryoscopy?

• Because of the fusion of amnion and chorion

• Because fetal lung maturity is reached

• Because the placenta is fully developed

• Because the fetus is too large after 12 weeks

Multiple Select

Which of the following are uses of amniocentesis?

• Relieve polyhydramnios

• Predict Rh isoimmunization

• Document fetal lung maturity

• Direct viewing of the embryo

Multiple Choice

For which group of patients is amniocentesis especially recommended?

• Patients at risk for chromosomal or biochemical disorders

• Patients with normal triple screen results

• Patients with no history of congenital abnormalities

• Patients with low maternal age

Multiple Choice

Amniocentesis is ideally performed between what weeks gestation?

• 21 to 25 weeks gestation
• 10 to 14 weeks gestation
• 15 to 20 weeks gestation
• 11 to 16 weeks gestation

Multiple Choice

Which of the following is a key step in performing amniocentesis in multiple gestations?

• indigo carmine dye is used to distinguish amniotic cavities

• Only one fetus is evaluated for anatomy and growth

• RhoGam is administered to all patients regardless of Rh status

• Zygocity is not determined

Multiple Select

Which of the following are risks associated with amniocentesis?

• Miscarriage

• Preterm labor

• Subchorionic hemorrhage

• Gestational diabetes

Multiple Choice

What is the main difference in the ultrasound appearance when the needle is inserted parallel versus at an angle to the transducer during amniocentesis?

• Only the tip is represented when parallel, but the whole needle may be seen at an angle

• The parallel approach is more dangerous

• The angled approach always shows the needle tip clearly

• Both approaches are equally safe

Multiple Choice

Cordocentesis is commonly used for?

• administering fetal vitamins

• performing routine ultrasound of umbilical cord

• transfusions in isoimmunization

• monitoring fetal heart rate

Fill in the Blanks

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is produced later in fetal development by the fetal _______, and early by the ________ _____

Multiple Select

AFP can be found in which of the following fetal structures?

• Spine

• GI tract

• Kidneys

• Fetal liver and yolk sac

Multiple Choice

How does AFP reach the amniotic fluid?

• AFP is produced by the placenta only.
• through maternal blood.

• AFP is secreted directly into the amniotic sac.
• through fetal urination.

Multiple Choice

At what weeks do AFP levels peak?

• 8 to 10 weeks
• 16 to 20 weeks
• 12 to 15 weeks
• 15 to 18 weeks

Multiple Select

Which markers are evaluated in the quadruple screen for prenatal screening?

• AFP

• hCG

• Unconjugated estriol

• PAPP-A

Fill in the Blanks

PAPP-A is decreased in pregnancies with

(abnormal chromosome number).

Multiple Choice

What is Aneuploidy?

• a type of genetic mutation that affects DNA sequence.

• an abnormal number of chromosomes.

• a process of cell division that results in identical chromosomes.

• a condition where chromosomes are duplicated.

Multiple Choice

What is mosaicism?

• the process of creating a mosaic artwork.

• the mixing of different species in an ecosystem.

• abnormal interaction of one or more genes and environmental factors

• the presence of a mutation in a portion of an individual's cell.

Multiple Choice

How many pairs of autosomes are present in a normal human karyotype?

• 20

• 21

• 22

• 23

Multiple Choice

What is shown in the karyotype that has 3 of chromosome 13?

• Trisomy 13

• Trisomy 18

• Trisomy 21

• Monosomy X

Multiple Choice

What is another name for Trisomy 21?

• Edward

• Patau

• Down

• Turner

Multiple Choice

Which chromosomal abnormality is characterized by holoprosencephaly, single umbilical artery, and micrognathia

• Trisomy 21

• Trisomy 18

• Trisomy 13

• Turner syndrome

Multiple Choice

What chromosomal abnormality is characterized by a cystic hygroma, short femurs, and female gender?

• Klinefelter syndrome

• Down syndrome

• Edwards Syndrome

• Turner syndrome

Multiple Choice

Which chromosomal abnormality is characterized by rocker bottom feet, strawberry shaped cranium, and overlapping fingers?

• Trisomy 18

• Trisomy 21

• Trisomy 13

• Turner

Multiple Choice

Which chromosomal abnormality is characterized by echogenic cardiac focus, ventriculomegaly, duodenal atresia, and an absent nasal bone?

• Trisomy 18

• Trisomy 21

• Trisomy 13

• Turner