8. In an IEEE 829-compliant test documentation regime, which of the following is an IEEE 829 document that describes variances between the test plan and what actually happened during a test execution period?

D. Test item transmittal report

9. IEEE 10440-1993 specifies a standard for defect reporting. Which of the following attributes should be in a defect report as per ISTQB Syllabus?

A. Complete, concise, accurate and objective report.

B. Compete and accurate. Does not have to be concise or objective.

C. Complete and objective. Does not have to be accurate.

D. Accurate. Does not have to be complete, concise or objective.

11. What is a project risk?

D. A risk related to management and control of the project

A. A risk directly related to the test object

B. The possibility of a negative or undesirable outcome

C. The identification, analysis, prioritization, and control of risk

12. Which of the following puts the levels of TMM in the proper order?

A. Initial, Definition, Integration, Management and Measurement, Optimization

B. Initial, Integration, Definition, Management and Measurement, Optimization

C. Initial, Integration, Definition, Optimization, Management and Measurement

D. Initial, Definition, Integration, Optimization, Management and Measure; rent

13. What is test planning?

B. The activity of establishing or updating the scope, approach, resources and schedule of intended test activities

A. The activity of establishing or updating the principles, approach, and major objectives of the organization regarding testing

C. The activity of establishing or updating objectives, inputs, test actions, expected results, and execution preconditions

D. The activity of establishing or updating the method used to perform the actual test execution, either manual or automated

14. What is wide band Delphi?

A. An expert based test estimation technique that uses the collective wisdom of the team members.

B. Testing based on an analysis of the internal structure of the component or system.

C. A framework to describe the software development life cycle activities from requirements specification to maintenance.

D. The tracing of requirements through the layers of development documentation to components.

15. Which of the following statements is true?

D. The Critical Testing Processes model works for organizations using any software lifecycles

A. The Critical Testing Processes model works only for organizations using the V-model software lifecycles

B. The Critical Testing Processes model works only for organizations using the agile software lifecycles

C. The Critical Testing Processes model works only for organizations using evolutionary software lifecycles

16. Which of the following is the best description of a client�server application?

B. There is at least one computer that provides information to other computers.

A. The application makes use of a web front end.

C. There is one computer that provides information to dumb terminals.

D. The application(s) run on a single computer.

17. Which of the following best describes a difference between a sequential development model and an iterative one?

C. A sequential development model involves the users in testing mostly at the end of development, while the iterative model concentrates on the user perspective throughout development.

A. A sequential development model will always take longer than an iterative model, for a similar sized project.

B. A sequential development model guarantees that the customer will like the product, while the iterative model does not.

D. A sequential development model requires significant regression testing, while an iterative model does not.

19. Which of the following would be an appropriate entry criterion from system testing into acceptance testing?

A. 100 per cent functional specification coverage.

B. 100 per cent business requirements coverage.

C. 100 per cent statement coverage.

20. Which of the following would give the best measure of progress against product quality?

C. The number of high priority defects outstanding.

A. The number of tests run against those planned.

B. The turnaround time for defects.

D. The time taken to run each test.

22. Which of the following is a test policy statement?

B. Projects across the company will make use of the Efficient toolset.

A. Tool X within the Efficient tool set will be required for this project.

C. Training will be required in Tool X for staff on this project.

D. Tool X will be required for a period of one month.

25. A major bank has recently outsourced all of its software development in an effort to reduce its fixed costs. The new supplier will be responsible for all new developments as well as enhancements to existing ones. - The bank has retained its own management team for its projects. There will be an in-house project manager, development manager and test manager for each project. Some staff may work on more than one project, depending on the overall size. - An enhancement is being made to allow existing customers to authorise their own loans online, from �1k to �10k by answering a series of questions. Which of the following best describes the usefulness of a test policy in this scenario?

C. The test policy will ensure that all team members understand what is required by the bank to create high quality products.

A. The test policy will ensure that all members from both sets of teams understand what their roles and responsibilities are.

B. The test policy will identify the risks of each project, and ensure that all staff knows how to deal with them.

D. The test policy will remind staff of the usefulness of using their own knowledge to conduct testing.

26. The aircrew of a national air defence force has requested changes to the existing aviation software that provides on-board information about the combat environment. The air force is currently engaged in a peace-keeping mission in another country and has come under unexpected threats. - The development life cycle is the V model. The software house needs to change their test management process to ensure delivery at the right time and quality. - The software changes are coming in as the aircrew request them, as a result of their engagements with hostile forces. - The aircrew have requested that the changes are made as quickly as possible. The project manager has decided to revisit the test management process. The changes will come as small change requests. The team have worked on the project for over 25 years, with little staff turnover. The project manager has asked for your advice on test estimation. Which of the following would you recommend?

D. Ask the tester who will be doing the testing for a best guess.

A. Conduct a test point analysis on each change request definition.

B. Analyse data from previous projects to find changes similar to each change request, and use this to estimate the time required.

C. Ask the developers how long the change will take to implement and allocate 50 per cent of this to testing.

30. A new system is being created. A form of iterative development, Agile development, is being used. The requirements capture process is typical of iterative development projects in that limited requirements are available. The functionality for the first iteration has been sketched out, but there is a real need for a quality system to be delivered, in good time. Which of the following would provide the best reasoning for using walkthroughs on the first set of requirements?

D. They will enable a wide range of stakeholders to understand what will be built and tested for the first iteration.

A. They will ensure that managers understand what will be delivered for each iteration, so they can provide contingency.

B. Given the interest in quality, the requirements can be reviewed in detail, to ensure that the developers understand what is required.

C. Lessons can be learnt from the first iteration, which should help to improve on performance for subsequent iterations.

31. It is unusual to find the full inspection process being followed routinely in iterative development projects � they are usually too costly in time and money. Which part of the inspection process could we make use of here, to best effect?

A. Train the moderators for the technical reviews so that they can manage the process better.

B. Inspect the requirements for every other iteration to improve overall quality of the system.

C. Collect metrics at the end of each iteration on defects being found by severity and priority, and use this to plan for the next iteration.

D. Include the managers in the reviews so that they can appreciate the costs involved better and provide more contingency for things going wrong.

32. A major supermarket is upgrading its online store in response to recent changes in consumer spending. It has reduced its �premium� products range by offering less organic meat and vegetables and less exotic fruit and vegetables. It has increased its �friendly� product range by increasing its locally sourced produce, and its �fair-trade� range by including more products from overseas where growers are assured a fair price for their products. The front-end design is changing to allow customers to select their shopper preferences, which are: # environmentally friendly; # family friendly; # fair to all. Customers will then be offered products falling into each of these categories. The changes to the front end are considered to be simple, when compared with the changes required to the back end, to provide each customer group with the correct product choices. The development life cycle is Agile development. One of the developers has begun creating a high-level design to help clarify the product categories. He has decided to hold a review of the high-level design. Which one of the following review types would be suitable for the high-level design, for the reasoning given?

A. A walkthrough of the design, so that those building the front end can understand how their software will interact with the back end.

B. A technical review of the design so that each product category can be tightly defined before the functionality is built.

C. An inspection of the design to see if it can be easily reused for later iterations.

D. A management review of the design to ensure that it will be fit for purpose.

34. Which of the following statements is true?

A. You can use CMMI’s continuous representation to concentrate improvement efforts on your own primary areas of need

B. You can use CMMI’s staged representation to concentrate its improvement efforts on your own primary areas of need

C. You cannot use CMMI’s uses a staged representation to measure your organization’s level of maturity

D. You cannot use CMMI’s uses a continuous representation to improve your organization’s level of maturity

35. Which of the following is a typical characteristic of testing for a safety critical system project?

A. Traceability of test results to regulations

B. Delivery date met through extensive bug deferral

C. Project insurance used to reduce the need for testing

D. Low complexity of the system

36. Which of the following test progress monitoring metrics derives entirely from incident tracking?

A. Percentage of test cases prepared

B. Percentage of test cases passed and failed

37. Which of the following is an activity in the ISTQB fundamental test process?

B. Plan, prepare, perform, and perfect

38. Which of the following statements captures a key difference between preventive and reactive test strategies?

A. Test analysts are involved earlier in the lifecycle with preventive strategies

B. Test analysts are involved earlier in the lifecycle with reactive strategies

C. Test analysts invest more time in coverage analysis with reactive strategies

D. Test analysts invest more time in exploratory testing with preventive strategies

39. Assume you are testing a banking application. You plan to use production data for testing. The production data includes personal information classified as private and confidential by the laws governing the organization. Which of the following tasks might be part of test implementation?

A. Identifying security-related quality risks

40. A Software Company hired a new test manager to manage their testing department. There are 20 testers in the department and 3 of them are located in a different city than the rest of the team. Test team is expected to receive a new build next week for qualification. The project has high visibility from upper management and it is very important for the test manager to complete the qualification on-time. Three (3) new servers were ordered previously to setup the test environment for this new project. There are only 3 days left to begin testing and environment management (EM) team says they are busy with another project at the moment and setup will not be done until next week. If the network is not setup, testing will be impacted. What is your advice to the new test manager?

A. Have a meeting with EM Manager and Project Manager and explain the situation and the project risk if servers are not setup in 3 days. Let the project manager make a decision.

B. Wait till EM team is done with their project.

C. Request testers to do the testing on old systems even though they do not have correct pre-requisite software.

D. Hire two additional testers to complete the project on-time.

43. Assume that the failure of a particular on-hoard computer software application on an airplane can cause a catastrophic failure of the airplane itself. Which level of code coverage is required under DO-178B standard?

D. Modified condition / decision, decision, and statement

45. Which of the following ways of monitoring test progress is usually measured subjectively?

C. Confidence in product quality

A. Remaining level of quality risk

D. Defect discovery and resolution

46. For software that, if it were to fail, could cause an airplane to explode during take-off, flight, or landing, what is the level of code coverage required during testing?

A. Modified Condition/ Decision, Decision, and Statement

47. Which of the following statements is true?

D. Failure mode and effect analysis can focus testing efforts but the documentation effort tends to be very large.

A. Failure mode and effect analysis is always quantitative risk analysis.

B. Failure mode and effect analysis can identify propagated errors easily.

C. Failure mode and effect analysis is the preferred form of quality risk analysis on schedule-driven projects.

48. What is accuracy testing?

C. Testing to determine the capability of the software product to provide the right or agreed results or effects with the needed degree of precision.

A. Testing with respect to user needs, requirements, and business processes conducted to determine whether a system satisfies the acceptance criteria.

B. Simulated or actual operational testing by potential users, customers, or an IT dependent test team at the developers’ site, but outside the development organization.

D. Testing to determine the ease by which users with disabilities

50. What is an incident?

C. Any event occurring that requires investigation

A. Any condition that deviates from expectation

B. A flaw in a component or system

D. A human action that produces an incorrect result

Đề TM Testing Genius Part 1

Authored by Nhung Dương

Other

Professional Development

Used 5+ times

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50 questions

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

1. What is domain knowledge?

A. Understanding the business problem the system solves

B. Understanding the technology that underlies the system.

C. Understanding the essential of software testing

D. Understanding organizational politics

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

2. Which of the following statements captures the difference between static and dynamic analysis?

A. In static analysis, the system under test is running; in dynamic analysis it is not

B. In dynamic analysis, the system under test is running; in static analysis it is not

C. Dynamic analysis is effective a building confidence in the system, static analysis is not

D. Static analysis is effective a building confidence in the system, dynamic analysis is not

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

3. Which of the following gives the Deming improvement cycle, in the correct order?

A. Plan Check Do Act

B. Plan Do Check Act

C. Plan Experiment Evaluate Revise

D. Plan Experiment Revise Evaluate

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

4. Which of the following entities is best situated to prioritize incidents for action?

A. Tester

B. Developer

C. Business analyst

D. Triage meeting

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

5. Which of the following statements is true?

A. The ISO/IEC 61508 standard does not address coverage

B. The ISO/IEC 61508 standard implies structural coverage

C. The ISO/ IEC 61508 standard requires 100% structural, requirements, and risk coverage

D. The ISO/ EEC 61508 standard requires structural coverage but only during unit testing

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

6. In a review, who is the moderator?

A. The main person responsible for the review

B. Any person who performs an independent evaluation to ascertain compliance

C. The person who identifies and describes anomalies

D. The person who records each defect mentioned

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION

30 sec • 1 pt

7. How does the Advanced syllabus group test tools?

A. For testers or for developers

B. By test tasks

C. By user role

D. By cost

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Đề TM Testing Genius Part 1

1. What is domain knowledge?

2. Which of the following statements captures the difference between static and dynamic analysis?

3. Which of the following gives the Deming improvement cycle, in the correct order?

4. Which of the following entities is best situated to prioritize incidents for action?

5. Which of the following statements is true?

6. In a review, who is the moderator?

7. How does the Advanced syllabus group test tools?

8. In an IEEE 829-compliant test documentation regime, which of the following is an IEEE 829 document that describes variances between the test plan and what actually happened during a test execution period?

9. IEEE 10440-1993 specifies a standard for defect reporting. Which of the following attributes should be in a defect report as per ISTQB Syllabus?

10. Which of the following is NOT associated with tester motivation?

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