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WorksheetsSemester 2 Review-Bio
Total questions: 57
Worksheet time: 3hrs 7mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
2.
Structure A refers to the _____.
a)
chromatid
b)
chromosome
c)
centromere
3.
Structure B is pointing to the _____.
a)
chromosome
b)
centromere
c)
DNA
d)
chromatid
4.
Structure C is pointing to one ____.
a)
chromatid
b)
chromosome
c)
centromere
d)
DNA
5.
Bacteria divide through a procell called binary fission
a)
True
b)
False
6.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have -
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
7.
These are the 3 parts of a DNA nucleotide.
a)
base, sugar, histone
b)
base, phosphate, ATP
c)
sugar, histone, glucose
d)
phosphate, sugar, base
8.
The building block(monomer) for DNA is a ____.
a)
nucleic acid
b)
nucleotide
c)
chromatid
d)
chromosome
9.
Where does a cell contain it's genetic material?
a)
nucleus
b)
nucleolus
c)
cytoskeleton
d)
golgi
10.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
11.
Which of the following produces identical DNA in cells?
a)
pollination
b)
mitosis
c)
osmosis
d)
fertilization
12.
Which of the following cell types is formed by meiosis?
a)
muscle cells
b)
skin cells
c)
sperm cells
d)
blood cells
13.
Which process is necessary for the inherited traits of an organism to be passed along by sexual reproduction?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
mutation
d)
fission
14.
Which cellular process is shown?
a)
meiosis
b)
endocytosis
c)
mitosis
d)
phagocytosis
15.
Which of the following best describes meiosis?
a)
It is carried out in all tissues theat require cell replacement
b)
It occurs only in cells in the reproductive structures of an organism
c)
It happens in all of the tissues except the brain and spinal cord
d)
It is the first stage of mitosis
16.
Which best describes the process shown?
a)
mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is ltered
b)
segregation of sister chromatids
c)
condensation and segregation of the alleles
d)
crossing-over which alleles are exchanged
17.
Which of the following represents chromosome # during fertilization?
a)
n+n=2n
b)
n=n
c)
2n=n+n
d)
2n=2n
18.
If an intestinal cell in a butterfly contains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would contain
a)
3
b)
6
c)
12
d)
24
19.
How is the process used to produce sex cells different from the process used to produce body cells?
a)
only the process used to make sex cells uses spindle fibers
b)
only the process used to make sex cells produces haploid cells
c)
only the process used to make sex cells can result in mutations
d)
only the process used to make sex cells requires DNA replication
20.
A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many would be present in its body cells?
a)
20
b)
40
c)
80
d)
160
21.
What is a phenotype?
a)
The expression of a trait; what you see.
b)
refers to the genetic makeup of an individual
c)
An organism that has the same genes for a trait (ex. TT or tt)
d)
the passing of traits from parent to offspring
22.
A human usually has _____ total chromosomes.
a)
6
b)
22
c)
4
d)
46
23.
Having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
24.
Which of the following alleles is homozygous recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
T
25.
Which cells are considered gametes?
a)
sperm/egg
b)
adult cells
c)
zygote
d)
somatic cells
26.
Which cells are the product of meiosis?
a)
gametes
b)
zygote
c)
adult cells
d)
child
27.
In the human life cycle what letter best represents when mitosis occurs?
a)
A
b)
B
28.
The dominant trait as seen in this punnett square is
a)
yellow pea seeds
b)
green pea seeds
c)
there is no dominant seed
d)
Jolly green giant
29.
What are the possible genotypes for this cross?
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
30.
How many alleles (letters) does a child get from EACH parent for each trait?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
31.
In a heterozygous genotype, the ___________ allele takes over in the phenotype.
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
c)
lower case letter
d)
both
32.
Complex molecule that carries genetic information that defines an organism's traits. It is stored in the nucleus.
a)
DNA
b)
protein
c)
RNA
d)
glucose nucleic acid (GNA)
33.
What is another way of saying "hybrid"?
a)
heterozygous
b)
homozygous dominant
c)
homozygous recessive
d)
none of these choices
34.
Two heterozygous parents produce offspring. What is the probability of the HETEROZYGOUS GENOTYPE appearing in the offspring generation?
a)
75%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
35.
HH crossed with Hh. What is the probability of hh?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
36.
What is another way of saying "purebred"?
a)
homozygous
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
heterozygous
37.
If coat color in a rabbit population is a polygenic trait, which process might have produced the graph below?
a)
disruptive selection
b)
stabilizing selection
c)
directional selection
d)
genetic equilibrium
38.
When two populations no longer interbreed, what is the result?
a)
genetic equilibrium
b)
reproductive isolation
c)
stabilizing selection
d)
recombinant DNA
39.
Mutations and the genetic recombination that occurs during sexual reproduction are both sources of
a)
genetic variation
b)
stabilizing selection
c)
genetic equilibrium
d)
genetic drift
40.
If species A and B have very similar genes and proteins, what is probably TRUE?
a)
species A and B share a relatively recent common ancestor
b)
species A evolved independently of species B for a long period
c)
species A is younger than species B
d)
species A is older than species B
41.
Natural selection acts directly on ______, not ______. However phenotypes depend on genotypes, so natural selection may affect allele frequencies in gene pool
a)
genotypes, phenotypes
b)
chromosomes, phenotypes
c)
phenotypes, genotypes
d)
alleles, organisms
42.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
43.
which of the following describes natural selection
a)
it acts on genetic material directly
b)
it acts on existing physical traits
c)
it forms new traits
d)
it forms new genetic material
44.
Physical geographic separation (ex. canyon or a river) of a population, leading to speciation.
a)
reproductive isolation
b)
geographic isolation
c)
speciation
d)
gene pool
45.
Genetic variation can arise from a random change in the DNA of a gene. The change is called a(n)
a)
mutation
b)
gene flow
c)
gene pool
d)
allele
46.
Why would a population with a large amount of genetic variation be more likely to survive a severe climate change in its environment?
a)
Individuals will only create offspring well-suited to the climate change
b)
The individuals would produce more offspring
c)
Individuals better suited to the new climate will help less-suited individuals survive
d)
Some individuals will posses traits better suited to the new climate and be more likely to pass them on
47.
the hind leg bones in a whale are examples of
a)
homologous structures
b)
analogous structures
c)
fossils
d)
vestigals
48.
A bird that can easily outcompete other birds for food and that can produce many eggs has a high
a)
life expectancy
b)
mutation rate
c)
fitness
d)
adaptability
49.
In addition to observing living organisms, Darwin studied the preserved remains of ancient organisms called
a)
fossils
b)
adaptations
c)
homologies
d)
vestigial structures
50.
Who is known for his development of the theory of evolution?
a)
a) Einstein
b)
b) Mendel
c)
c) Darwin
d)
d) Hooke
51.
Structures that have different mature forms but develop from the same embryonic tissue are called
a)
analagous
b)
adaptations
c)
homologous
d)
fossils
52.
An inherited characteristic that increases an organism's ability to survive and reproduce in its specific environment is called (n)
a)
vestigial structure
b)
adaptation
c)
speciation
d)
analagous structure
53.
The process by which all organisms change slowly over time because of slight gene variations is called
a)
natural selection
b)
artificial selection
c)
evolution
d)
gene pool
54.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
55.
Wich lizard has the highest fitness?
a)
Lizard A
b)
Lizard B
c)
Lizard C
d)
Lizard D
56.
In a healthy stable desert ecosystem, what will likely happen to the pop. of rattlesnakes over the years?
a)
The desert will be crawling with snakes eating everything else.
b)
The population won't change much.
c)
The snakes will eventually die off.
d)
The number will be all over the place with no pattern.
57.
What is the random part of natural selection?
a)
Changes in DNA that cause variation are random.
b)
Natural selection is totally random. You never know who will survive.
c)
Actually, all parts of natural selection are random.
d)
Predators pick their prey randomly.
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