Font size
S
M
L
XL
WorksheetsMAP 155 FINAL EXAM REVIEW
Total questions: 99
Worksheet time: 57mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The length of the spinal cord in an adult is ___ inches from the base of the medulla oblongata to the junction between the first (L1) and second (L2) vertebrae.
a)
3-5
b)
13
c)
17-18
d)
33
2.
Interneurons also know as__________, are housed entirely within the CNS.
a)
associative
b)
interactive
c)
reactive
d)
active
3.
Damage to nerve cells without myelin sheath is permanent, because regeneration of nerve cells can only happen when _______ cells are present.
a)
Chwann
b)
Schann
c)
Swan
d)
Schwann
4.
Both the brain and spinal cord are divided into gray matter and ______ matter
a)
yellow
b)
white
c)
red
d)
green
5.
Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 types of neurons?
a)
motor
b)
sensory
c)
inter
d)
outer
6.
Motor neurons are called______ because they transmit messages away from the cell body to the muscles and organs.
a)
defiant
b)
effective
c)
efferent
d)
afferent
7.
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
a)
frontal lobe=most anterior portion of cerebrum
b)
parietal lobe=controls vision
c)
occipital lobe=most posterior portion of cerebrum
d)
temporal lobe=controls hearing and smell
8.
Which part of the brain is responsible for thoughts, judgement, memory, problem solving and language?
a)
hypothalamus
b)
cerebrum
c)
cerebellum
d)
thalamus
9.
Which part of the brain controls body temp, appetite, sleep, sexual desire and emotions?
a)
hypothalamus
b)
cerebrum
c)
cerebellum
d)
thalamus
10.
Which part of the brain consists of the thalamus and hypothalamus?
a)
pons
b)
cerebrum
c)
diencephalon
d)
medulla oblongata
11.
The medical term for fainting is:
a)
coma
b)
syncope
c)
lethargy
d)
aura
12.
Cataract removal is one of the safest & most effective surgeries, with a cure rate of _________% in most cases.
a)
70
b)
80
c)
90
d)
100
13.
The most common symptoms of pinkeye include all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
redness of the sclera of the eye
b)
decreased sensitivity to light
c)
increase in the amount of tears
d)
thick, yellow discharge that crusts the eyelashes
14.
When untreated, the ________ of glaucoma can damage the optic nerve, resulting in blindness.
a)
pressure
b)
bacteria
c)
virus
d)
organisms
15.
Glaucoma affects________.
a)
older adults
b)
younger adults
c)
older females
d)
people of all ages and all races
16.
The cornea, which is located at the front of the eye, may become the site of lesions or abrasions. SIgns and symptoms include:
a)
dry eye
b)
difficulty recognizing colors
c)
blurred vision
d)
sensitivity to darkness
17.
There are specialized anatomic structures that receive the vibration of sound as well as being sensitive to gravity and movements of the head. These structures are connected to the _____ cranial nerve by special nerve fibers.
a)
2nd
b)
3rd
c)
6th
d)
8th
18.
Which of the following is NOT one of the ear's 3 distinct sections?
a)
external
b)
middle
c)
inner
d)
outer
19.
The auditory canal is about 2.5 ____ long.
a)
millimeters
b)
centimeters
c)
meters
d)
inches
20.
There are tiny _____ cells that function as the receptors for hearing and equilibrium (balance).
a)
hair
b)
single
c)
sensory
d)
nucleus
21.
_____ can be caused by viral or bacterial infections, some related to sore throats or colds.
a)
Otitis media
b)
otosclerosis
c)
Meniere's disease
d)
Presbycusis
22.
When____ happens, the overgrowth of the tissue prevents the stapes from transmitting sound vibrations to the inner ear. The result is profound hearing loss involving one or both ears.
a)
Otitis media
b)
otosclerosis
c)
Meniere's disease
d)
Presbycusis
23.
_______, which is most common in older adults, causes patients to have problems hearing high pitched tones as well as normal verbal sounds during conversations.
a)
Otitis media
b)
otosclerosis
c)
Meniere's disease
d)
Presbycusis
24.
____ is frequently caused by hearing loss, loud noises, medicine & other health problems, such as allergies, tumors, and problems arising from the cardiovascular system.
a)
Tinnitus
b)
cerumen
c)
tetanus
d)
epithelial
25.
In actuality, part of what we refer to as smell is really_____.
a)
sight
b)
sound
c)
touch
d)
taste
26.
_______ are microscopic bumps on the tongue.
a)
chicken pox
b)
measles
c)
mumps
d)
taste buds
27.
_____ is our oldest, most primitive & pervasive sense. It's the 1st sense we experience in the womb & the last one we lose before death.
a)
taste
b)
touch
c)
sound
d)
sight
28.
The shape of the auditory canal is_______.
a)
square
b)
irregular
c)
slightly curved
d)
jagged
29.
The ____ is used to view the inner part of the eye.
a)
microscope
b)
telescope
c)
ophthalmoscope
d)
otoscope
30.
Errors of ______ occurs when the eyeball is either too long or too short, the lens loses it elasticity, or the lens or cornea has an irregular curvature.
a)
retraction
b)
refraction
c)
renunciation
d)
retrusion
31.
The ability to distinguish colors depends on the cones of the retina, which react to light and permit us to see shades of red, green and _______.
a)
yellow
b)
black
c)
blue
d)
white
32.
An eye exam every ____ is important to monitor changing conditions in the patient's vision.
a)
6 months
b)
one year
c)
1-2 years
d)
4-5 years
33.
The myopic eye requires a ________ lens to correct vision.
a)
concave
b)
convex
c)
congruent
d)
convoluted
34.
The hypothalamus connects the endocrine & _____systems.
a)
circulatory
b)
nervous
c)
digestive
d)
reproductive
35.
_____ affects the growth of ovarian follicles and eggs in females & the production of sperm in males.
a)
FSH
b)
PRL
c)
MSH
d)
Calcitonin
36.
_______ controls skin pigmentation in the epidermis.
a)
PRL
b)
LH
c)
MSH
d)
all of the above
37.
The thyroid has _______ lobes.
a)
3
b)
2
c)
4
d)
6
38.
A normal fasting blood glucose level is ______mg/dL.
a)
10-30
b)
70-100
c)
101-200
d)
121-500
39.
If hypothyroidism goes untreated, there is an associated risk of ____ due to high levels of LDL.
a)
heart disease
b)
cancer
c)
liver damage
d)
bladder infection
40.
Graves disease is the _______ of hyperthyroidism.
a)
most common form
b)
most deadly form
c)
rarest type
d)
quickest spreading type
41.
Insulin is a(n) ___ that lowers blood sugar by allowing the body's cells to absorb glucose from the blood.
a)
vitamin
b)
organ
c)
hormone
d)
carbohydrate
42.
The most common form of diabetes is______.
a)
gestational
b)
IDDM
c)
NIDDM
d)
non-glucose-dependant diabetes mellitus
43.
Which of the following is NOT one of the classic symptoms of diabetes?
a)
weight gain
b)
frequent urination
c)
excessive thirst
d)
excessive hunger
44.
Type _____ diabetes is ideally treated with diet and exercise, along with administration of oral hypoglycemic medication to help control the blood sugar levels.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
45.
Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 types of diabetes?
a)
IDDM
b)
type 4
c)
gestational
d)
NIDDM
46.
The thymus gland is actually composed of lymphoid tissue and is located in the mediastinal cavity, in front of & above the ________.
a)
lungs
b)
pancreas
c)
heart
d)
small intestines
47.
Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, is responsible for ______ syndrome, as regulated by the sympathetic nervous system.
a)
hit and run
b)
punch and kick
c)
stop or go
d)
fight or flight
48.
Which of the following terms means excessive calcium in the blood?
a)
hypercalcemia
b)
hyponatremia
c)
hyperkalemia
d)
hypoglycemia
49.
Which of the following terms means insufficient sugar in the blood?
a)
hypercalcemia
b)
hyponatremia
c)
hyperkalemia
d)
hypoglcemia
50.
Which of the following statements regarding insulin is NOT true?
a)
Insulin reduces blood sugar levels.
b)
Insulin stimulates the cells of the body to take in glucose from the bloodstream.
c)
Insulin is secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreas.
d)
Insulin is most active after you have eaten a meal.
51.
Which of the following terms refers to having an excessive amount of hair?
a)
edema
b)
exophthalmos
c)
gynecomastia
d)
hirsutism
52.
An enlargement of the thyroid gland is called:
a)
insulinoma
b)
goiter
c)
adenocarcinoma
d)
myxedema
53.
Which of the following medications is used to treat hyperglycemia?
a)
corticosteroids
b)
insulin
c)
vasopressin
d)
thyroid replacement hormone
54.
Which of the following diagnostic procedures can be used to measure the levels of hormones in the blood?
a)
fasting blood sugar
b)
protein-bound iodine test
c)
radioimmunoassay
d)
total calcium
55.
Hypothermia is a state of body temperature lower than_____ degrees F.
a)
35
b)
55
c)
75
d)
95
56.
Patients with ______ burns should have the area irrigated with large amounts of water.
a)
superficial
b)
full thickness
c)
upper airway
d)
chemical
57.
Which of the following is NOT a common sign of shock?
a)
pale skin
b)
weak and rapid pulse
c)
extreme hunger
d)
bluish skin
58.
When using the AED, it is critical NOT to be ______ the patient when delivering the shocks or analyzing their response.
a)
touching
b)
talking to
c)
looking at
d)
breathing on
59.
Convulsions, or __________, are produced by disorganized electrical activity in the brain & are characterized by involuntary muscle contractions that may alternate between contractions and relaxation of muscles.
a)
heart attacks
b)
seizures
c)
strokes
d)
fainting spells
60.
The most appropriate treatment for anaphylactic shock is ______.
a)
epinephrine
b)
IV dopamine
c)
insulin injections
d)
intubation
61.
An _____ is a cut with smooth edges, made with a knife or other sharp object.
a)
avulsion
b)
ablation
c)
abrasion
d)
incision
62.
According to FEMA, _________ are the most violent storms occurring in nature.
a)
blizzards
b)
tsunamis
c)
floods
d)
tornados
63.
During a medical emergency, as an MA, you have a legal responsibility to act within your scope of ________.
a)
interest
b)
specialty
c)
practive
d)
education
64.
Laws that protect health care professionals who volunteer in an emergency situation are known as:
a)
HIPAA
b)
Hippocratic laws
c)
good samaritan laws
d)
advance directives
65.
Which of the following conditions poses the greatest emergency to a patient?
a)
severe eye injury
b)
chest pain
c)
severe vomiting and diarrhea
d)
poisoning
66.
A patient who is conscious, capable of moving air through the upper airway, and can produce a strong cough likely has a:
a)
partial airway obstruction with poor air exchange
b)
total airway obstruction
c)
partial airway obstruction with good air exchange
d)
total obstructed airway with poor air exchange
67.
To assist someone who is choking, stand behind the patient and put your arms around his or her abdomen, between the xiphoid process and the ____.
a)
tip
b)
navel
c)
pelvic bone
d)
zygote process
68.
_______ are the leading cause of death for both men and women.
a)
strokes
b)
seizures
c)
heart attacks
d)
aneurysms
69.
Respiratory shock requires_____.
a)
respiration and immediate transport to the ER
b)
sugar ingestion
c)
IV dopamine and fluids
d)
epinephrine and warm shower
70.
Which term means double vision?
a)
hemianopia
b)
nyctalopia
c)
diplopia
d)
exotropia
71.
Which term means record of hearing?
a)
otogram
b)
auriculogram
c)
audiogram
d)
keratometry
72.
Tears are produced by the:
a)
lacrimal apparatus
b)
conjunctiva
c)
eyeball
d)
lens
73.
Which layer of the eye is responsible for supplying blood to the eye?
a)
retina
b)
choroid
c)
sclera
d)
lens
74.
Which cranial nerve carries hearing and equilibrium sensory information to the brain?
a)
vestibulocochlear
b)
facial
c)
trigeminal
d)
auditory
75.
The ossicles are located in which cavity of the ear?
a)
external
b)
middle
c)
inner
d)
none of the above
76.
The inner ear is located within the ____ bone.
a)
parietal
b)
frontal
c)
occipital
d)
temporal
77.
Which term is not spelled correctly?
a)
otomicosis
b)
labyrinthectomy
c)
salpingotomy
d)
tympanorrhexis
78.
A glucometer is a type of ________ used to test glucose levels in patients.
a)
incubator
b)
autoclave
c)
handheld photometer
d)
disposable specimen container
79.
IM injections are given in 1 of 4 sites. These include all of the following muscles EXCEPT the _______.
a)
deltoid
b)
biceps
c)
vastus lateralis
d)
dorsogluteal
80.
Insulin injections are typically done in all of the following EXCEPT:
a)
arms
b)
abdomen
c)
feet
d)
thighs
81.
All needles and syringes should be placed in a ______ sharps container, needle down, as soon as they are used.
a)
blue
b)
green
c)
white
d)
red
82.
IM injections are always given at a _______ degree angle.
a)
30
b)
45
c)
90
d)
120
83.
SC injections is usually given at a ______ degree angle to skin surface
a)
30
b)
45
c)
90
d)
120
84.
The last step in performing manual capillary puncture is to:
a)
remove the gloves
b)
perform hand hygiene
c)
apply a bandage over clean gauze at the puncture site
d)
record the procedure in the medical reocrd of the patient
85.
Which of the following sites are commonly used for manual capillary puncture?
a)
the middle or ring finger
b)
the thumb
c)
the heel of the foot on an adult
d)
all of the above
86.
Needles used for blood draws are:
a)
made of copper
b)
hollow
c)
reusable
d)
rounded at the tip
87.
Capillary puncture is used for blood test for all of the following EXCEPT
a)
glucose levels
b)
cholesterol levels
c)
plasma studies
d)
hematocrit levels
88.
A tourniquet should not be left in place for more than:
a)
30 seconds
b)
3 minutes
c)
60 seconds
d)
6 minutes
89.
Diabetic patients who have not eaten in too long are at risk for:
a)
a spike in glucose levels in the blood
b)
dehydration
c)
insulin shock
d)
all of the above
90.
Times New Roman is a recommended resume font as it is easy to:
a)
retype
b)
read
c)
fax
d)
copy
91.
The ______ is a summary of your qualifications, which include your employment history, experience, training, and education. For your first position, this is generally a one page document.
a)
application
b)
reference sheet
c)
resume
d)
cover sheet
92.
Which of the following items should lead your resume?
a)
education
b)
objective statement
c)
professional summary
d)
desired salary and benifits
93.
It is a good idea to include your ___ in a resume
a)
desired salary
b)
desired benefits package
c)
references
d)
grades from final exams
94.
Power words help your resume stand out from others. All of the following are power words EXCEPT:
a)
remaining
b)
reduced
c)
enhanced
d)
improved
95.
The module 6 video compares a resume without accomplishments to a:
a)
car without wheels
b)
report card without grades
c)
child without ice cream cone
d)
a house without a door
96.
Recent graduates without a lot of work experience in the field they are entering may want to list which of the following first?
a)
education
b)
goals
c)
references
d)
skills
97.
It is best to leave specific numbers out of a resume and instead provide examples of _____ experience that are generalized.
a)
education
b)
work
c)
mental
d)
physical
98.
It is common today for companies to require job seekers to submit resumes to an __________
a)
job site
b)
school email
c)
electronic site
d)
mailbox
99.
If you don't have relevant employment history, what should you include on your resume?
a)
babysitting jobs held during high school
b)
relevant skills and experience from externship
c)
classes taken with assignment details
d)
nothing, just leave this area blank
Reset
