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WorksheetsMed Term Chapters 3,4,5,& 11 Gladiator Review
Total questions: 162
Worksheet time: 1hrs 21mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
a-, an-
a)
toward, near to
b)
before, forward
c)
no, without, lack of, apart
d)
away from
2.
ab-
a)
away from
b)
toward, near, to
c)
no, without, lack of, apart
d)
movement
3.
ad-
a)
away from
b)
toward, near, to
c)
no, without, lack of, apart
d)
movement
4.
ambi-
a)
left or right hand
b)
both
c)
relevant, somewhat
d)
two, double
5.
ana-
a)
up, apart, backward
b)
against
c)
down, with, forward
d)
no, without, lack of, apart
6.
ante-
a)
backward, after
b)
away from
c)
before, forward
d)
toward, near to
7.
anti-, contra-
a)
against
b)
backward, after
c)
away from
d)
before, forward
8.
auto-
a)
done
b)
self
c)
for
d)
before, forward
9.
bi-
a)
two, double
b)
either/ or
c)
one, single
d)
slow
10.
bin-
a)
either/ or
b)
one, single
c)
two, double
d)
slow
11.
brachy-
a)
slow
b)
fast
c)
long
d)
short
12.
brady-
a)
slow
b)
fast
c)
long
d)
short
13.
cac-, mal-
a)
weak
b)
strong
c)
good
d)
bad
14.
centi-
a)
one tenth
b)
one thousandth
c)
one hundredth
d)
a long worm-like bug
15.
cata-
a)
down
b)
destructive
c)
up
d)
building
16.
circum-, peri-
a)
circle
b)
around
c)
with
d)
toward, near to
17.
deca-
a)
one hundred
b)
one tenth
c)
ten
d)
one hundredth
18.
de-
a)
delicate
b)
up, toward
c)
destructive
d)
down, away from
19.
di-
a)
either/ or
b)
two, double
c)
single
d)
two, apart
20.
di(s)-
a)
either/ or
b)
two, double
c)
single
d)
two, apart
21.
dia-
a)
two, apart
b)
into
c)
through, between
d)
around
22.
dif-, dis-
a)
together, forming
b)
different
c)
dissonance
d)
apart, free from, separate
23.
dys-
a)
bad, difficult, painful, abnormal
b)
two, double
c)
good, true
d)
between, apart
24.
ec-, ecto-
a)
within, inner
b)
around
c)
out, outside, outer
d)
toward, near to
25.
ep-, epi-
a)
out, outside, outer
b)
within, inner
c)
upon, over, above
d)
superficial
26.
end-, endo-
a)
within, inner
b)
around
c)
out, outside, outer
d)
toward, near to
27.
eu-
a)
bad, difficult, painful, abnormal
b)
neutral
c)
good, normal
d)
different
28.
ex-, exo-
a)
within, inner
b)
around
c)
out, way from
d)
to take out
29.
extra-
a)
outside, beyond
b)
inside
c)
two, double
d)
different
30.
hydro-
a)
water
b)
fire hydrant
c)
oil
d)
attraction
31.
hetero-
a)
one of a kind, unique
b)
different
c)
similar, same, likeness, constant
d)
group
32.
homeo-
a)
one of a kind, unique
b)
different
c)
similar, same, likeness, constant
d)
group
33.
hyper-
a)
anxious
b)
excessive
c)
outside, beyond
d)
deficient
34.
hypo-
a)
layed back
b)
excessive
c)
outside, beyond
d)
deficient
35.
in-
a)
between
b)
for, become
c)
in, into, not
d)
within, into
36.
inter-
a)
between
b)
for, become
c)
in, into, not
d)
within, into
37.
intra-
a)
between
b)
for, become
c)
in, into, not
d)
within, into
38.
mega-
a)
around
b)
excessive
c)
beyond, over, between, change
d)
large, great
39.
meso-
a)
middle
b)
between
c)
beyond, over, between, change
d)
large, great
40.
meta-
a)
around
b)
between
c)
beyond, over, between, change
d)
toward, near to
41.
micro-
a)
small
b)
can't see
c)
large
d)
too small to ever see
42.
milli-
a)
one thousandth
b)
one hundredth
c)
one tenth
d)
too many to count
43.
mono-
a)
one
b)
alone
c)
between
d)
contagious
44.
multi-
a)
many, much
b)
too little
c)
one of a kind, unique
d)
get bigger exponentially
45.
oligo-
a)
a few
b)
many, much
c)
scanty, little
d)
one of a kind, unique
46.
pan-
a)
within, inner
b)
attraction
c)
toward
d)
all
47.
para-
a)
beyond, over, between, change
b)
beside, alongside, abnormal
c)
helper
d)
toward, near to
48.
poly-
a)
too good
b)
one of a kind, unique
c)
get bigger exponentially
d)
many, much, excessive
49.
post-
a)
late
b)
beside, in front of
c)
after, behind
d)
within, into
50.
pre-
a)
early
b)
before, in front of
c)
after, behind
d)
within, into
51.
primi-
a)
early
b)
first
c)
important
d)
olden
52.
pro-
a)
better than
b)
beside, in front of
c)
before, in front of
d)
strong
53.
pseudo-
a)
semi-, half
b)
half
c)
sort of true
d)
not true, false
54.
quadri-
a)
one fourth
b)
four
c)
two, double
d)
vehicle
55.
retro-
a)
backward
b)
old
c)
forward
d)
new
56.
semi-, hemi-
a)
two, double
b)
whole
c)
truck engine
d)
half
57.
sub-
a)
below, under, beneath
b)
inferior to
c)
above
d)
substitution
58.
super-
a)
high
b)
great
c)
upper, above
d)
above, beyond
59.
supra-
a)
high
b)
great
c)
upper, above
d)
above, beyond
60.
sym-, syn-
a)
without
b)
together, with
c)
full
d)
identify
61.
tachy-
a)
slow
b)
full
c)
rapid
d)
excessive
62.
tri-
a)
three
b)
two, double
c)
one
d)
excessive
63.
uni-
a)
one
b)
two, double
c)
alone
d)
identify
64.
The lining of the heart is called the:
a)
endocardium
b)
epicardium
c)
pericardium
d)
myocardium
65.
Which term means pertaining to between the atria?
a)
intrathecal
b)
interarterial
c)
interatrial
d)
transatrial
66.
Which term means hardened artery?
a)
arteriosclerosis
b)
arteriostenosis
c)
angiosclerosis
d)
atherosclerosis
67.
Which term means enlarged heart?
a)
cardiorrhexis
b)
cardiostenosis
c)
cardiosclerosis
d)
cardiomegaly
68.
A heart specialist would be called a:
a)
cardiologist
b)
phlebotomist
c)
coronologist
d)
hemangiologist
69.
Which term means high pressure?
a)
hypermanometer
b)
hypotension
c)
hypertension
d)
supratension
70.
Which terms means process of recording a vessel?
a)
angiogram
b)
ateriography
c)
hemangiography
d)
angiography
71.
Which term means listening to the sounds within the body?
a)
stethoscope
b)
auscultation
c)
palpations
d)
murmur
72.
Which term means a yellow fatty deposit of lipids in an artery?
a)
arterioma
b)
ischemia
c)
plaque
d)
stent
73.
Which of the following terms means to flow backward?
a)
infarct
b)
regurgitation
c)
stent
d)
palpation
74.
Which abbreviation is an arrhythmia?
a)
MR
b)
ECC
c)
Vfib
d)
MI
75.
Which abbreviation stands for high blood pressure?
a)
CSD
b)
bpm
c)
BP
d)
HTN
76.
Which combining form means chest?
a)
angi/o
b)
steth/o
c)
phleb/o
d)
sp
77.
Which term means fast heart beat?
a)
fibrilation
b)
tachycardia
c)
hypercardia
d)
bradycardia
78.
Fibrillation means that:
a)
the heartbeat is dangerously irregular
b)
the heart is beating too fast
c)
the heart has stopped beating
d)
the heart has suffered a heart attack
79.
Heart valve stenosis means that the valve is:
a)
too large
b)
too loose
c)
too small
d)
too stiff
80.
The most common form of arteriosclerosis is:
a)
polyarteritis
b)
pericarditis
c)
atherosclerosis
d)
atheroma
81.
Which of the following is a floating clot that has broken off a clot somewhere else in the body?
a)
embolus
b)
thrombophlebitis
c)
hemangioma
d)
thrombus
82.
A weakened and ballooned artery is called a(n):
a)
arteriosclerosis
b)
aneurysm
c)
phlebitis
d)
artherosclerosis
83.
Varicose veins in the anal region are called:
a)
hemorrhoids
b)
phlebomegaly
c)
phleboma
d)
aneurysm
84.
Which of the following conditions is caused by inflamed veins causing the formation of blood clots within the vein?
a)
angioma
b)
vericose veins
c)
polyarteritis
d)
thrombophlebitis
85.
Which of the following deagnostic procedures is a blood test?
a)
Holter monitor
b)
cardiac enzymes
c)
cardiac scan
d)
Doppler ultrasound
86.
Which of the follwoing diagnostic procedures measures cardiac fitness?
a)
cardiac enzymes
b)
serum lipoprotein test
c)
stress test
d)
angiography
87.
Which procedure uses a heart-lung machine?
a)
cardiopulmonary resuscitation
b)
Holter Monitor
c)
extracorporeal circulation
d)
stress testing
88.
Which surgical procedure would be used to join together two arteries?
a)
bypass graft
b)
arterial anastomosis
c)
endarterectomy
d)
arterial stent
89.
Which of the following abbreviations stands for a heart attack?
a)
HTN
b)
MI
c)
CAD
d)
MR
90.
Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure?
a)
CABG
b)
MI
c)
CHF
d)
HTN
91.
Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure?
a)
CABG
b)
MI
c)
CHF
d)
HTN
92.
Which surgical procedure uses a blood vessel obtained from another part of the body?
a)
coronary artery bypass graft
b)
arterial anastomosis
c)
aneurysmectomy
d)
intracoronary artery stent
93.
Which procedure uses a heart-lung machine?
a)
cardiopulmonary resuscitation
b)
Holter Monitor
c)
extracorporeal circulation
d)
stress testing
94.
Which therapeutic device is used to treat ventricular fibrillation?
a)
pericardiocentesis
b)
implantable cardioverter-defribillator
c)
extracorporeal circulation
d)
pacemaker
95.
Which surgical procedure is used to treat varicose veins?
a)
stent placement
b)
embolectomy
c)
ligation and stripping
d)
aneurysmectomy
96.
Which surgical procedure would be used to join together two arteries?
a)
bypass graft
b)
arterial anastomosis
c)
endarterectomy
d)
arterial stent
97.
Which medication increases the force of cardiac muscle contractions?
a)
diuretics
b)
antiarrhytmics
c)
beta-blocker drugs
d)
cardiotonic
98.
Which of the following medications does NOT treat hypertension?
a)
ACE inhibitors
b)
calcium channel blockers
c)
vasoconstrictors
d)
beta-blockers
99.
Which of the following abbreviations stands for a heart attack?
a)
HTN
b)
MI
c)
CAD
d)
MR
100.
Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure?
a)
CABG
b)
MI
c)
CHF
d)
HTN
101.
Which of the following terms means excessive calcium in the blood?
a)
hypercalcemia
b)
hyponatremia
c)
hyperkalemia
d)
hypoglycemia
102.
Which of the following terms means insufficient sodium in the blood?
a)
hypercalcemia
b)
hyponatremia
c)
hyperkalemia
d)
hypoglycemia
103.
Which of the following terms means excessive potassium in the blood?
a)
hypercalcemia
b)
hyponatremia
c)
hyperkalemia
d)
hypoglycemia
104.
Which of the following terms means insufficient sugar in the blood?
a)
hypercalcemia
b)
hyponatremia
c)
hyperkalemia
d)
hypoglycemia
105.
Which of the following hormones is critical in emergency situations?
a)
cortisol
b)
aldosterone
c)
epinephrine
d)
thyroxine
106.
Which term refers to the condition in which body tissues contain excessive amounts of fluid?
a)
edema
b)
expophthalmos
c)
gynecomastia
d)
hirsutism
107.
Which term refers to bulging eyeballs?
a)
edema
b)
exophthalmos
c)
gynecomastia
d)
hirsutism
108.
Which term refers to having an excessive amount of hair?
a)
edema
b)
exophthalmos
c)
gynecomastia
d)
hirsutism
109.
Gynecomastic is the:
a)
development of an excessive amount of hair
b)
development of irregular menstrual periods
c)
development of breast tissue in a male
d)
excessive growth of the body
110.
An enlargement of the thyroid gland is called:
a)
insulinoma
b)
goiter
c)
adenocarcinoma
d)
myxedma
111.
Which of the following diagnostic procedures uses ultrasound?
a)
radioimmunossay
b)
thyroid echography
c)
thyroid function test
d)
thyroid scan
112.
Which of the following diagnostic procedures uses radioactive iodine as part of the test?
a)
thyroid scan
b)
thyroid echography
c)
two-hour postprandial
d)
thyroid function test
113.
Which of the following diagnostic procedures can be used to measure the levels of hormones in the blood?
a)
fasting blood sugar
b)
protein-bound iodine test
c)
radioimmunoassay
d)
total calcium
114.
Which of the following medications can be used to control diabetes insipidus?
a)
corticosteroids
b)
insulin
c)
vasopressin
d)
thyroid replacement hormone
115.
Which of the following medications has strong anti-inflammatory properties?
a)
corticosteroids
b)
insulin
c)
vasopressin
d)
thyroid replacement hormone
116.
Which of the following medications is used to treat hyperglycemia?
a)
corticosteroids
b)
insulin
c)
vasopressin
d)
thyroid replacement hormone
117.
Which of the following abbreviations stands for a pathological condition?
a)
ACTH
b)
TSH
c)
FSH
d)
DM
118.
Which of the following abbreviations stands for a diagnostic lab test?
a)
TSH
b)
DM
c)
FBS
d)
FSH
119.
Which of the following diagnostic procedures uses radioactive iodine as part of the test?
a)
thyroid scan
b)
thyroid echography
c)
two-hour postprandial
d)
thyroid function test
120.
Which of the following diagnostic procedures can be used to measure the levels of hormones in the blood?
a)
fasting blood sugar
b)
protein-bound iodine test
c)
radioimmunoassay
d)
total calcium
121.
Which of the following medications can be used to control diabetes insipidus?
a)
corticosteroids
b)
insulin
c)
vasopressin
d)
thyroid replacement hormone
122.
Which of the following medications has strong anti-inflammatory properties?
a)
corticosteroids
b)
insulin
c)
vasopressin
d)
thyroid replacement hormone
123.
Which of the following medications is used to treat hyperglycemia?
a)
corticosteroids
b)
insulin
c)
vasopressin
d)
thyroid replacement hormone
124.
Which of the following abbreviations stands for a pathological condition?
a)
ACTH
b)
TSH
c)
FSH
d)
DM
125.
The opposite action from flexion is:
a)
plantar flexion
b)
extension
c)
inversion
d)
eversion
126.
Movement away from the midline of the body is called:
a)
adduction
b)
flexion
c)
abduction
d)
circumduction
127.
Pointing the toes downward is called:
a)
plantar flexion
b)
extension
c)
depression
d)
dorsiflexion
128.
Which motion occurs at the thumb?
a)
opposition
b)
circumduction
c)
eversion
d)
rotation
129.
Turning the palm upward is called:
a)
pronation
b)
supination
c)
rotation
d)
circumduction
130.
_______ is the decrease in bone mass that results in thinning and weakening of the bone.
a)
osteomalacia
b)
exsostosis
c)
osteoporosis
d)
Paget's disease
131.
The medical term for humpback is:
a)
exostosis
b)
scoliosis
c)
kyphosis
d)
lordosis
132.
Which term means that the fracture is protruding through an open skin wound?
a)
simple fracture
b)
compression fracture
c)
pathologic fracture
d)
compound fracture
133.
Which type of fracture is commonly seen in children?
a)
greenstick
b)
comminuted fracture
c)
simple fracture
d)
stress fracture
134.
Which type of fracture is the bone shattered?
a)
greenstick
b)
Colles' fracture
c)
comminuted fracture
d)
pathologic fracture
135.
Which disease is caused by a Vitamin D deficiency?
a)
osteoporosis
b)
greenstick fracture
c)
Paget's disease
d)
rickets
136.
This condition is commonly called a ruptured disk.
a)
herniated nucleus pulposus
b)
ankylosing spondylitis
c)
spina bifida
d)
spondylolisthesis
137.
An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called:
a)
lordosis
b)
exostosis
c)
scoliosis
d)
kyphosis
138.
An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called:
a)
lordosis
b)
exostosis
c)
scoliosis
d)
kyphosis
139.
Spina bifida is a congenital anomaly that affects which bone?
a)
femur
b)
hip
c)
skull
d)
vertebrae
140.
________ is the forward sliding of a lumbar vertebra over the vertebra below it.
a)
Spina bifida
b)
Spondylolisthesis
c)
Spondylosis
d)
Talipes
141.
Which of the following diagnostic procedures is used to detect osteoporosis?
a)
dual-energy absorptiometry
b)
myelography
c)
bone scan
d)
arthrography
142.
Which of the following diagnostic procedures is useful in identifying a herniated nucleus pulposus?
a)
dual-energy absorptiometry
b)
myelography
c)
bone scan
d)
arthrography
143.
Which surgical procedure relieves pressure on a compressed spinal nerve?
a)
bunionectomy
b)
arthroplasty
c)
laminectomy
d)
osteotomy
144.
Which procedure examines the inside of a joint?
a)
athroplasty
b)
arthrotomy
c)
arthrocentesis
d)
arthroscopy
145.
Surgery performed to realign bone fragments is called a(n):
a)
open reduction
b)
external fixation
c)
traction
d)
internal fixation
146.
Which of the following is a reason for performing an amputation?
a)
uncontrollable infection
b)
crushing injury
c)
tumor
d)
all of these
147.
Which of the following conditions is commonly treated by bone reabsorption inhibitors?
a)
Paget's disease
b)
osteoporosis
c)
osteoarthritis
d)
both Paget's disease and osteoporosis
148.
Strong anti-inflammatory drugs like corticosteroids are used to treat which condition?
a)
osteoarthritis
b)
fractures
c)
rheumatoid arthritis
d)
osteoporosis
149.
Which of the following abbreviations stands for a surgical procedure?
a)
TKA
b)
LE
c)
RA
d)
FX
150.
Muscle wasting is the common term for:
a)
adhesion
b)
atrophy
c)
spasm
d)
dystonia
151.
Which of the following is a sudden, involuntary, strong muscle contraction?
a)
hyperkinesia
b)
myopathy
c)
dyskinesia
d)
spasm
152.
Intermittent claudication is:
a)
severe neck spasms
b)
wasting muscules
c)
severe leg pain when walking very short distances
d)
a type of muscular dystrophy
153.
Which of the following conditions is caused by overuse or overstretching?
a)
strain
b)
muscular dystrophy
c)
ganglion cyst
d)
fibromyalgia
154.
Which of the following abbreviations is a pathological condition?
a)
IM
b)
MD
c)
CPK
d)
LLE
155.
Which of the following abbreviations is a diagnostic test?
a)
IM
b)
MD
c)
DXA
d)
JRA
156.
Which of the following are the fingers?
a)
tarsals
b)
scapulae
c)
metacarpals
d)
phalanges
157.
Which term means abnormal tone?
a)
atonia
b)
dystonia
c)
hypotonia
d)
myotonia
158.
Which term means an increase in muscle bulk?
a)
hypertrophy
b)
atrophy
c)
hyperkinesia
d)
myomegaly
159.
Widesprad aching and pain in the muscles and soft tissue is called:
a)
carpal tunnel syndrome
b)
fibromyalgia
c)
repetitve motion disorder
d)
polymyositis
160.
Which of the following abbreviations is a record of the strength and quality of muscle contractions?
a)
ORIF
b)
DTR
c)
EEG
d)
EMG
161.
Applying a pulling force on a fracture in order to restore normal alignment is called:
a)
traction
b)
fixation
c)
fusion
d)
arthroplasty
162.
Which diagnostic imaging procedure uses a radioactive dye to produce an image?
a)
myelography
b)
bone scan
c)
arthroscopy
d)
absorptiometry
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