Worksheets6th grade Final 2017
Total questions: 124
Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What skill is a scientist using when she listens to the sound that whales make?
a)
making hypothesis
b)
making observations
c)
interpreting data
d)
drawing conclusions
2.
Which of the following is NOT a rule when writing a hypothesis?
a)
It is testable
b)
It is a prediction
c)
It is an if/then statement
d)
It should restate the questions
3.
An experiment that tests only one factor at a time by using a comparison of a control group and an experimental group is?
a)
a dependent variable
b)
an independent variable
c)
a theory
d)
a controlled experiment
4.
Which of the following hypotheses is written correctly?
a)
If a tennis ball is frozen, it won't bounce as high as one that is frozen.
b)
If I freeze a teniis ball, then it will not bounce as high because it is not as elastic.
c)
If I heat up a tennis ball it will bounce high.
d)
Frozen tennis balls will not bounce as high.
5.
The process of obtaining information by using the sense is called a/an
a)
scientific method
b)
conclusion
c)
inquiry
d)
observation
6.
A series of steps designed to help you solve problems and answer questions
a)
observation
b)
scientific method
c)
experiment
d)
hypothesis
7.
In an experiment, the onvariable that is change is called the
a)
independent
b)
dependent
c)
experimental
d)
control
8.
In an experiment the factor that we measure is called the
a)
controlled
b)
independent
c)
conclusion
d)
dependent
9.
A scientist hypothesizes the temperature at which an alligator's egg is incubated will determine whether the alligator will be male or female. The independent variable is
a)
the gender of the alligator
b)
the temperature
c)
the male alligator
d)
the incubator
10.
A scientist hypothesizes the temperature at which an alligator's egg is incubated will determine whether the alligator will be male or female. The dependent variable is
a)
the gender of the alligator
b)
the temperature
c)
the male alligator
d)
the incubator
11.
A scientist conducted an experiment to determine how the amount of salt in a body of water affects the number of plants that can live in the water. In this experiment the independent variable is
a)
the water
b)
the number of plants in the water
c)
the temperature of the water
d)
the amount of salt in the water
12.
A scientist conducted an experiment to determine how the amount of salt in a body of water affects the number of plants that can live in the water. In this experiment the dependent variable is
a)
the water
b)
the number of plants in the water
c)
the temperature of the water
d)
the amount of salt in the water
13.
All the things in an experiment that must be the same to make it fair are called
a)
controlled variables or constants
b)
dependent variables
c)
controlled experiments
d)
independent variables
14.
In science, an educated guess is called a/an
a)
observation
b)
conclusion
c)
question
d)
hypothesis
15.
When you decide whether or not the data supports the original hypothesis, you are
a)
drawing conclusions
b)
asking questions
c)
forming a hypothesis
d)
making observations
16.
When a scientists shares her findings with other scientists she is
a)
experimenting
b)
analyzing data
c)
communicating results
d)
making a hypothesis
17.
In which step of the scientific method do we want to use graphs
a)
analyze data
b)
communicate results
c)
asking questions
d)
making a hypothesis
18.
A scientist who wants to study the effect of fertilizer on plants sets up an experiment. Plant A gets no fertilizer, Plant B gets 5mg of fertilizer each day, and Plant C gets 10mg of fertilizer each day. Which plant is the control group?
a)
Plant A
b)
Plant C
c)
all of them
d)
Plant B
19.
a fracture, or break in Earth's lithosphere, along which blocks of rock move past each other
a)
fault
b)
stress
c)
earthquake
d)
seismic wave
20.
the force exerted when an object presses on, pulls on, or pushes against another object
a)
fault
b)
stress
c)
earthquake
d)
seismic wave
21.
a shaking of the ground caused by the sudden movement of large blocks of rock along a fault
a)
focus
b)
stress
c)
earthquake
d)
seismic wave
22.
vibrations caused by earthquakes
a)
focus
b)
epicenter
c)
earthquake
d)
seismic wave
23.
the point underground where rocks first begin to move
a)
focus
b)
epicenter
c)
seismograph
d)
seismic wave
24.
the point on Earth's surface directly above the focus
a)
focus
b)
epicenter
c)
seismograph
d)
aftershock
25.
an instrument that constantly records ground movements
a)
liquefaction
b)
epicenter
c)
seismograph
d)
aftershock
26.
a smaller earthquake that follows a more powerful earthquake in the same area
a)
liquefaction
b)
tsunami
c)
seismograph
d)
aftershock
27.
a process in which shaking of the ground causes soil to act like a liquid
a)
liquefaction
b)
tsunami
c)
seismograph
d)
aftershock
28.
a water wave triggered by an earthquake, volcanic eruption, or landslide
a)
liquefaction
b)
tsunami
c)
seismograph
d)
aftershock
29.
a mountain that forms as continental crust crumples and bends into folds
a)
folded mountain
b)
fault-block mountain
c)
volcano
d)
lava
30.
mountains that form as blocks of rock move up or down along normal faults
a)
folded mountain
b)
fault-block mountain
c)
volcano
d)
lava
31.
an opening in Earth's crust through which molten rock, rock fragments, and hot gases erupt
a)
pyroclastic flow
b)
fault-block mountain
c)
volcano
d)
lava
32.
magma that has reached Earth's surface
a)
pyroclastic flow
b)
acid rain
c)
volcano
d)
lava
33.
mixture of volcanic gas with rock fragments which forms a dense cloud of superhot gases and rock fragments that race downhill
a)
pyroclastic flow
b)
acid rain
c)
geyser
d)
lava
34.
rain that contains large amounts of acid
a)
pyroclastic flow
b)
acid rain
c)
geyser
d)
lava
35.
water shoots into the air
a)
pyroclastic flow
b)
acid rain
c)
geyser
d)
lava
36.
Earth rotates around an imaginary line running through its center called
a)
axis of rotation
b)
revolution
c)
season
d)
equinox
37.
the motion of one object around another
a)
axis of rotation
b)
revolution
c)
season
d)
equinox
38.
patterns of temperature changes and other weather trends over the course of a year
a)
solstice
b)
revolution
c)
season
d)
equinox
39.
sunlight shines equally on the northern and southern hemispheres
a)
solstice
b)
mare
c)
season
d)
equinox
40.
the area of sunlight is at a maximum in one hemisphere and a minimum in the other
a)
solstice
b)
mare
c)
season
d)
equinox
41.
dark area on the moon is called a lunar
a)
solstice
b)
mare
c)
season
d)
eclipse
42.
occurs when a shadow makes the Sun or the Moon seem to grow dark
a)
umbra
b)
mare
c)
penumbra
d)
eclipse
43.
the darkest part during an eclipse
a)
umbra
b)
mare
c)
penumbra
d)
eclipse
44.
a spreading cone of lighter shadow during an eclipse
a)
umbra
b)
mare
c)
penumbra
d)
eclipse
45.
Earth's average distance from the Sun
a)
astronomical unit
b)
ellipse
c)
terrestrial planet
d)
gas giant
46.
a flattened circle or orbit
a)
astronomical unit
b)
ellipse
c)
terrestrial planet
d)
gas giant
47.
the four planets closest to the sun
a)
astronomical unit
b)
ellipse
c)
terrestrial planet
d)
gas giant
48.
made mainly of hydrogen, helium and other gases
a)
astronomical unit
b)
ellipse
c)
terrestrial planet
d)
gas giant
49.
an orbit is in the shape of a slightly flattened circle
a)
Kepler's 1st Law
b)
Kepler's 2nd Law
c)
Kepler's 3rd Law
d)
Eccentricity
50.
planet speeds up as it gets closer to the sun
a)
Kepler's 1st Law
b)
Kepler's 2nd Law
c)
Kepler's 3rd Law
d)
Eccentricity
51.
describes the relationship between orbital radius and planet's period
a)
Kepler's 1st Law
b)
Kepler's 2nd Law
c)
Kepler's 3rd Law
d)
Eccentricity
52.
how flat it is
a)
Kepler's 1st Law
b)
Kepler's 2nd Law
c)
Kepler's 3rd Law
d)
Eccentricity
53.
the brightness that a star would have at a distance of 32.6 light-years from Earth
a)
absolute magnitude
b)
apparent magnitude
c)
albedo
d)
parallax
54.
the brightness of a star as seen from Earth
a)
absolute magnitude
b)
apparent magnitude
c)
albedo
d)
parallax
55.
the measure of the amount of energy reflected back into space
a)
greenhouse effect
b)
apparent magnitude
c)
albedo
d)
parallax
56.
an apparent shift in the position of an object when viewed from different locations
a)
greenhouse effect
b)
H-R diagram
c)
albedo
d)
parallax
57.
the actual process of greenhouse gases absorbing heat in the atmosphere.
a)
greenhouse effect
b)
H-R diagram
c)
Habitable zone
d)
parallax
58.
graph that shows the relationship between a star's surface temperature and absolute magnitude
a)
greenhouse effect
b)
H-R diagram
c)
Habitable zone
d)
light-year
59.
the distance from the Sun that the Earth can be and still support life on its surface
a)
main sequence
b)
H-R diagram
c)
Habitable zone
d)
light-year
60.
the distance that light travels in one year; about 9.46 trillion kilometers
a)
main sequence
b)
high mass star
c)
Habitable zone
d)
light-year
61.
the location on the H-R diagram where most stars lie
a)
main sequence
b)
high mass star
c)
low mass star
d)
light-year
62.
give off the most heat, but they do not last as long
a)
main sequence
b)
high mass star
c)
low mass star
d)
light-year
63.
do not give off as much heat as larger stars, but they last a long time
a)
main sequence
b)
high mass star
c)
low mass star
d)
light-year
64.
a large volume of air in which temperature and humidity are nearly the same in different locations at the same altitude
a)
air mass
b)
front
c)
cold front
d)
warm front
65.
is a boundary between air masses
a)
air mass
b)
front
c)
cold front
d)
warm front
66.
cold air moves under warm air forcing warm air up
a)
stationary front
b)
front
c)
cold front
d)
warm front
67.
move slowly and bring warm, humid air
a)
stationary front
b)
occluded front
c)
cold front
d)
warm front
68.
forms when a cold mass meets a warm mass but neither have enough force to move the other
a)
stationary front
b)
occluded front
c)
high-pressure system
d)
warm front
69.
warm air mass is caught between two cold air masses
a)
stationary front
b)
occluded front
c)
high-pressure system
d)
low-pressure system
70.
is formed when air moves all the way around a high-pressue center
a)
station model
b)
occluded front
c)
high-pressure system
d)
low-pressure system
71.
is a large weather system that surrounds a center of low pressure
a)
station model
b)
isobars
c)
high-pressure system
d)
low-pressure system
72.
diagram that displays data from many different weather measurements for a particular location
a)
station model
b)
isobars
c)
high-pressure system
d)
low-pressure system
73.
lines joining places on a map that have the same air pressure
a)
station model
b)
isobars
c)
high-pressure system
d)
isotherms
74.
lines joining places that have the same temperature
a)
station model
b)
isobars
c)
high-pressure system
d)
isotherms
75.
the long-term average weather condition that occur in a particular region; determined by two main factors: temperature and precipitation
a)
climate
b)
microclimate
c)
El Nino
d)
Global warming
76.
small areas with climate conditions that differ from those around them
a)
climate
b)
microclimate
c)
El Nino
d)
Global warming
77.
an occasional climatic event in which the trade winds weaken, reversing the normal pattern of high and low presures across the Pacific Ocean
a)
marine climate
b)
microclimate
c)
El Nino
d)
Global warming
78.
a gradual increase in the overall temperature of the earth's atmosphere generally attributed to the greenhouse effect caused by increased levels of carbon dioxide, chlorofluorocarbons, and other pollutants
a)
marine climate
b)
continental climate
c)
El Nino
d)
Global warming
79.
occur near the ocean, usually along the west coasts of continents
a)
marine climate
b)
continental climate
c)
ocean current
d)
Global warming
80.
occur in the interior of continents
a)
marine climate
b)
continental climate
c)
ocean current
d)
climate zone
81.
are streams of water that flow through oceans in regular patterns
a)
marine climate
b)
continental climate
c)
ocean current
d)
climate zone
82.
is one of the major divisions in a system for classifying the climates of different regions based on the characteristics they have in common
a)
marine climate
b)
continental climate
c)
ocean current
d)
climate zone
83.
What causes an earthquake?
a)
a rise of magma
b)
a sudden movement of blocks of rock
c)
a buildup of seismic waves
d)
a change in Earth's magnetic poles
84.
Earthquakes release energy in the from of
a)
seismic waves
b)
faults
c)
stress lines
d)
seismograms
85.
Most damage from an earthquake usually occurs
a)
below the focus
b)
far from the epicenter
c)
at the focus
d)
near the epicenter
86.
To locate the epicenter of an earthquake, scientists need seismographs from at least _ seismic stations.
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
87.
the seismic waves that usually cause the most damage are
a)
surface waves
b)
tsunami waves
c)
primary waves
d)
secondary waves
88.
About 80% of all earthquakes occur in a belt around the
a)
Pacific Ocean
b)
San Andres fault
c)
North American Plate
d)
American Rift Valley
89.
In a strike-slip fault, blocks of rock move _ along the fault plane
a)
up
b)
down
c)
sideways
d)
up and down
90.
One method of making a building earthquake resistant is to
a)
add sand under the foundation
b)
reduce the use of steel
c)
make the walls of brick
d)
use cross braces
91.
In areas where the lithosphere is being pulled apart, the crust
a)
folds and crumples into mountains
b)
breaks into blocks separated by faults
c)
slides down into the mantle
d)
develops a subduction zone
92.
When two plates carrying continental crust collide, the rock of the continents
a)
folds
b)
melts
c)
expands
d)
stretches
93.
The movement of huge blocks of rock along a fault can produce
a)
lava plugs
b)
volcanoes
c)
fault-block mountains
d)
folded mountains
94.
Volcanoes in the Ring of Fire are supplied with magma rising from
a)
spreading centers
b)
hot spots
c)
rift valleys
d)
subduction zones
95.
Before magma erupts it collects under a volcano in a
a)
chamber
b)
caldera
c)
crater
d)
vent
96.
The explosiveness of a volcanic eruption depends mostly on the _ of the magma
a)
gas content
b)
silica content
c)
amount
d)
temperature
97.
The type of magma erupting from a volcano determines the volcano's
a)
size
b)
age
c)
shape
d)
location
98.
Volcanic ash can be carried thousands of kilometers from an eruption by
a)
lava flows
b)
pyroclastic flows
c)
landslides
d)
winds
99.
In a volcanic region, water moving through the ground gets _ by magma or hot rock
a)
melted
b)
dissolved
c)
erupted
d)
heated
100.
How long does it take Earth to turn once on its axis of rotation?
a)
an hour
b)
a day
c)
a month
d)
a year
101.
How long does it take Earth to orbit the Sun?
a)
an hour
b)
a month
c)
a day
d)
a year
102.
About how long does it take the Moon to revolve once around Earth?
a)
an hour
b)
a month
c)
a day
d)
a year
103.
Why is it hotter in summer than in winter?
a)
Earth gets closer to and farther from the Sun
b)
Sunlight strikes the ground at higher and lower angles
c)
Earth turns fasater in some seasons
d)
Earth revolves around the Sun more times in some seasons
104.
The dark maria on the Moon formed from
a)
dried-up seas
b)
finely-broken rocks
c)
large shadows
d)
lava-filled craters
105.
The lunar highlands have more impact craters than the maria, scientists know that the highlands
a)
are older than the maria
b)
are younger than the maria
c)
are flatter than the maria
d)
are darker than the maria
106.
Why is just one side of the Moon visible from Earth?
a)
the Moon does not rotate on its axis as it orbits Earth
b)
the Moon rotates once in the same amount of time that it orbits
c)
half of the Moon is always unlit by the Sun
d)
Half of the Moon does not reflect light
107.
Why does the Moon seem to change shape from week to week?
a)
clouds block part of the Moon
b)
the Moon move through Earth's shadow
c)
the Moon is lit in different ways
d)
different amounts of dark-colored side of the Moon face Earth
108.
Which words describe the different shapes that the Moon appears to be?
a)
waning and waxing
b)
waning and crescent
c)
waxing and gibbous
d)
crescent and gibbous
109.
During a total eclipse of the Moon, the Moon is
a)
in Earth's umbra
b)
in Earth's penumbra
c)
between Earth and the Sun
d)
casting a shadow on Earth
110.
Even though orbits are ellipses, what shape is a typical planet's orbit most like?
a)
a short rectangle
b)
an egg-shaped
c)
a long, narrow oval
d)
a circle
111.
What do all four gas giants have that terrestrial planets do not have?
a)
atmospheres
b)
solid surfaces
c)
moons
d)
rings
112.
Which of these is usually used to describe the distances of stars?
a)
astronomical units
b)
light-years
c)
kilometers
d)
miles
113.
How do lower-mass stars differ from higher-mass stars?
a)
they develop more quickly
b)
they develop more slowly
c)
they end up as black holes
d)
they have too little mass to produce energy
114.
Which term describes the Milky way?
a)
spiral galaxy
b)
elliptical galaxy
c)
irregular galaxy
d)
quasar
115.
Jet streams generally flow toward the
a)
north
b)
south
c)
east
d)
west
116.
Winds curve as they move across Earth's surface because of
a)
the Coriolis effect
b)
air pressure
c)
humidity
d)
relative humidity
117.
Which is the name for an air mass that forms over the ocean near the equator?
a)
maritime tropical
b)
maritime polar
c)
continental tropical
d)
continental polar
118.
A meteorologist is a scientist who
a)
predicts meteor showers
b)
studies maps
c)
studies weather
d)
changes the weather
119.
An isobar shows locations with the same
a)
temperature
b)
rainfall
c)
air pressure
d)
wind speed
120.
Which is produced when a warm air mass pushes a colder air mass?
a)
a stationary front
b)
a cold front
c)
a warm front
d)
a thunderstorm
121.
Compared with warm fronts, cold fronts are
a)
faster moving
b)
less dense
c)
more cloudy
d)
less steep
122.
Which statement is usually true of high-pressure systems in North America?
a)
they bring fair weather
b)
they change quickly
c)
the air in them is cold and dense
d)
the air in them moves counterclockwise
123.
Compared with weather patterns, climate patterns are more
a)
severe
b)
long-term
c)
local
d)
unusual
124.
What is El Nino?
a)
a change in wind patterns and ocean currents
b)
an increase in carbon dioxide levels
c)
a decrease in global temperature
d)
a change in solar energy
100 %
