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WorksheetsPhysical Science Final
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A representation of an object, process, or phenomenon is called a(n)
a)
model
b)
physical feature
c)
environment
d)
observation
2.
In a closed system, the only thing that can enter or leave is
a)
energy
b)
matter
c)
air
d)
water
3.
A beaker of water is heated over a laboratory burner. This is an example of a(n)
a)
closed system
b)
open system
c)
geospheric system
d)
biospheric system
4.
A test tube containing plant material and water is sealed and left in sunlight. This is an example of a(n)
a)
closed system
b)
open system
c)
hydrospheric system
d)
biosphereic system
5.
One reason Earth is not entirely a closed system is because
a)
sunlight enters the atmosphere
b)
energy is relfected back into space
c)
the atmosphere loses hydrogen to space
d)
new matter forms on the surface if Earth
6.
The gaseous envelope surrounding Earth is called the
a)
atmosphere
b)
geosphere
c)
biosphere
d)
hydrosphere
7.
Most of Earth's fresh water is
a)
locked up in glacial ice
b)
groundwater
c)
in lakes and rivers
d)
water vapor
8.
The lava from a volcano destroying a nearby forest is an example of
a)
the hydrosphere interacting with he geosphere
b)
the geosphere interacting with the biosphere
c)
the geosphere interacting with the hydrosphere
d)
the atmosphere interacting with the biosphere
9.
A canyon that is formed when rocky ground is eroded by a river is an example
a)
the hydrosphere interacting with the geosphere
b)
the geosphere interacting with the biosphere
c)
the biosphere interacting with the hydrosphere
d)
the atmosphere interacting with the biosphere
10.
Pollution from the chimney of a factory is an example of
a)
the hydrosphere interacting with the geosphere
b)
he geosphere interacting with the biosphere
c)
the biosphere interacting with the hydrosphere
d)
the biosphere interacting with the atmosphere
11.
Most of Earth's liquid form of water is
a)
in clouds
b)
the the ground
c)
in lakes and rivers
d)
in oceans
12.
Phytoplankton play an important role in the carbon cycle because
a)
photosynthesis by phytoplankton removes carbon from the atmosphere
b)
they convert carbon dioxide to methane
c)
they breathe out carbon dioxide into the air
d)
they eat animals that have stored carbon
13.
A sequence of events that repeats itself is known as
a)
system
b)
budget
c)
cycle
d)
model
14.
The carbon cycle is an example of a(n)
a)
atmospheric cycle
b)
biosphereic cycle
c)
hydrologic cycle
d)
biochemical cycle
15.
The process of water exiting a plant through its leaves is known as
a)
transpiration
b)
transportation
c)
evaporation
d)
precipitation
16.
Which of the following statements about energy is true?
a)
Energy cannot change from one form to another
b)
Energy can be created and destroyed
c)
When energy changes forms, most of it is converted to heat
d)
Energy in a system cannot be completely recycled
17.
Which of the following is not a way that carbon can enter the atmosphere?
a)
breathed out by animals
b)
released in volcanic eruptions
c)
photosynthesis
d)
forest fires
18.
The major source of Earth's energy is
a)
geothermal energy
b)
tidal energy
c)
wind energy
d)
solar energy
19.
What would happen to the climate if Earth took in more energy than it released?
a)
the climate would get cooler
b)
the climate would get warmer
c)
the climate would not change
d)
the climate would get cooler, then warmer
20.
Which statement best describes Earth's lithospheric plates?
a)
They are rigid and move about on the asthenosphere
b)
They are made of continental crust that moves through the ocean basins
c)
They do not fit together well, and there are large gaps between the plates
d)
They are made up of cratons pieced together early in Earth's history
21.
The shapes of which two continents' coastlines led to early suggestions they had been joined at one time?
a)
Australia and Africa
b)
Asia and North America
c)
South America and Africa
d)
North America and Australia
22.
Strong evidence that two continents were once joined night include similarities in
a)
the current locations of rivers emptying into the ocean
b)
similar coastline rock formations
c)
similar plants growing on the continents today
d)
all of the above
23.
Which of the following is an important reason why Wegner's continental drift hypothesis was not widely accepted?
a)
Not all of the continents appear as though they were once joined
b)
Wegener did not present any fossil evidence
c)
Wegener could not explain how the continents moved
d)
The magnetic properties of rocks had not yet been discovered
24.
The theory of plate tectonics help explain the locations of
a)
The earthquakes and the lithosphere
b)
Volcanoes and the mantle
c)
The mantle and the lithosphere
d)
Earthquakes and volcanoes
25.
Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of at least one type of plate boundary?
a)
earthquake activity
b)
volcanic activity
c)
high heat flow
d)
lack of geological activity
26.
The rift valley along a mid-ocean ridge marks
a)
a boundary between two plates
b)
a region where subduction is occuring
c)
a region where a deep- sea trench is forming
d)
a boundary between oceanic and continental crust
27.
Minerals in igneous rocks can show the direction of Earth's
a)
polarity field at the time the rocks formed
b)
magnetic field at the time the rocks formed
c)
heat flow field at the time the rocks formed
d)
transform field at the time the rocks formed
28.
With the increasing distance from a mid-ocean ridge marks, sea-floor become
a)
older
b)
younger
c)
more magnetic
d)
less magnetic
29.
Which of the following statements about the Mid-Atlantic Ridge is false?
a)
Hydrothermal vents have been found there
b)
A volcanic island arc has formed along it
c)
New rocks are forming there
d)
Earthquakes occur there
30.
Both collision boundaries and subduction boundaries are type of
a)
transform boundaries
b)
spreading boundaries
c)
divergent boundaries
d)
convergent boundaries
31.
When two oceanic plates converge, the one that subducts is the one that
a)
reaches the boundary first
b)
is moving slower
c)
is moving faster
d)
is denser
32.
A chain of volcanoes commonly forms when
a)
a continental plate subducts
b)
an oceanic plate suducts
c)
two continents collide
d)
two plates slide past one another
33.
If two plates carrying continental crust share a convergent boundary, a likely result is that
a)
a divergent plate boundary will form
b)
one continent will subduct under the other
c)
the continents will eventually become welded together
d)
earthquake activity will stop in the region
34.
The fracture zones that offset portions of Mid-ocean ridges are an example of what type of boundary
a)
convergent
b)
transform
c)
divergent
d)
collsion
35.
Which of the following is not a hypothesis about the cause of plate movements
a)
terrane sliding
b)
mantle convection
c)
ridge push
d)
slab pull
36.
Which statement about Pangaea is true?
a)
the cratons formed when Pangaea broke up
b)
the break up of Pangeaea is process that is continuing today
c)
before the break up of Pangaea, Earth's lithosphere was not broken into plates
d)
There is no geological eveidence that Earth's landmass were once joined together
37.
Only a portion of the N American craton is visible because
a)
the rest has been eroded away
b)
the rest has melted in magma
c)
the rest has been buried beneath under material
d)
the rest has been subducted under the Pacific plate
38.
Deep sea sediments most likely contribute subcontinent growth by being
a)
pushed to the surface by earthquakes
b)
deposited by rivers by continental margin
c)
erupted as magma at a spreading center
d)
scraped off in a subduction zone and left at the surface
39.
Which of the following statements about a terrane is false?
a)
it has rocks that are the same age as those in surrounding areas
b)
it is completely bounded by major faults
c)
it has fossils different than those in surrounding areas
d)
the magnetic record of rocks in the terrance is different than the magnetic record of rocks in surrounding areas
40.
Compared to the average elevation of the continents, the average depth of the ocean is about
a)
one half as great
b)
one quarter as great
c)
two times as great
d)
four times as great
41.
The density of water 4°C is 1.0 g/cm^3. What is the density of ice at 0°C?
a)
.92 g/cm^3
b)
1 g/cm ^3
c)
1.2 g/cm^3
d)
none of the above
42.
Many of the basic tools of modern oceanography were developed to meet military needs during
a)
the Revolutions War
b)
World War I
c)
World War II
d)
the Vietnam War
43.
The average mass of dissolved salts in 1000 grams of seawater is
a)
1 gram
b)
35 grams
c)
70 grams
d)
100 grams
44.
Which pair of factors would both cause salinity to increase?
a)
evaporation and freezing of sea water
b)
freezing of sea water and precipitation
c)
precipitation and melting of sea ice
d)
melting of sea ice and evaporation
45.
Two factors used to identify a water mass are
a)
salinity and type of phytoplankton typesof phytoplankton
b)
oxygen concentration and water temperature
c)
types of phytoplankton and oxygen concentration
d)
water temperature and salinity
46.
Th most abundant ion in seawater
a)
calcium
b)
chloride
c)
sodium
d)
sulfate
47.
Sample P is 100 grams of water from the ocean surface in the North Atlantic. Sample Q is 350 grams of water from the ocean surface in the South Pacific. Which statement is not true?
a)
Both samples contain abou thte smae percentage of chloride ions
b)
Both smaples contain abou tthe smae mass of dissolved ions
c)
both samples contain the same type of ions
d)
both samples contain magnesium ions
48.
Which of the following can be removed in usable quantities fro seawater?
a)
copper
b)
iron
c)
magnesium
d)
uranium
49.
Why are gold and silver not mined from seawater?
a)
These metals do not occur in seawater
b)
Gold and silver can be mined more cheaply on land
c)
these metals have few uses and do not need to be mined from seawater
d)
currently, there is no known method of removing gold and silver from seawater
50.
If one half of the solar energy that strikes the ocean surface is absorbed in the first meter, and one half of what remains is absorbed in the second meter, and so on, what fraction of the original sunlight reaches a depth of 3 meters?
a)
1/4
b)
1/8
c)
1/16
d)
1/32
51.
What percent of the ocean's volume is made up by the mixed layer?
a)
about 2%
b)
about 5%
c)
about 30%
d)
none of the above
52.
Which of the following is one factor that causes heat to be mixed evenly in the mixed layer?
a)
swimming plankton
b)
temperature differences
c)
strong winds
d)
density differences
53.
The zone in which seawater temperatures change rapidly is called the
a)
seasonal layer
b)
mixed layer
c)
thermocline
d)
none of the above
54.
The Straits of Gibraltar prevent polar water from entering the
a)
Atlantic Ocean
b)
Baltic Sea
c)
Indian Ocean
d)
Mediterranean Sea
55.
Salinity tends to be above average
a)
in area of high precipitation
b)
where large rivers enter the ocean
c)
where icebergs are melting
d)
in hot areas
56.
Diatoms are one of the most abundant types of
a)
bacteria
b)
salt
c)
phytoplankton
d)
zooplankton
57.
Why are diatom shells found in ocean-floor sediments?
a)
diatoms are eaten by creatures that live on the ocean floor
b)
diatoms form large groups called blooms
c)
diatom shells settle to the ocean floor after the diatoms die
d)
many diatoms live on the ocean floor
58.
Th deep rich waters of the ocean are
a)
rich in both oxygen and carbon dioxide
b)
poor in both oxygen and carbon dioxide
c)
rich in oxygen but poor in carbon dioxide
d)
poor in oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide
59.
Smokers are vents on the sea floor that emit smoke that is black due to fine particles of
a)
iron sulfide
b)
bacteria
c)
basaltic magma
d)
soot
60.
Surface currents in the ocean are primarily driven by
a)
winds
b)
waves
c)
temperature differences
d)
density differences
61.
Surface currents flowing away from the equator carrry
a)
cool water
b)
upwelling water
c)
warm water
d)
downwelling water
62.
The winds that are most involved in forming ocean currents worldwide are the
a)
West Wind Drift and trade winds
b)
trade winds and westerlies
c)
westerlies and monsoons
d)
trade winds and monsoons
63.
In some regions there is a seasonal reversal in the directions of surface ocean currents due to a reversal in
a)
seasonal upwelling patterns
b)
seasons pf the year
c)
seasonal wind direction
d)
seasonal temperature patterns
64.
Two examples of warm ocean currents are the
a)
Gulf stream and the Kuroshio Current
b)
Kurshio Current and the Canary Current
c)
Canary Current ad the California Current
d)
California Current and the Gulf stream
65.
The British Isles and Iceland both have warmer climates than they would otherwise because
a)
warm, moist air blows over the Labrador Current and warms it
b)
thick fogs provide insulation to hold heat in
c)
currents caryy icebergs farther south before they melt
d)
the North Atlantic Drift carries warm water across the Atlantic
66.
Which of the following contains a core of Sargasso Sea Water?
a)
cold-core rings on the continent side of the Gulf Stream
b)
cold-core rings on the ocean side of the Gulf Stream
c)
warm-core rings on the continent side of the Gulf Stream
d)
warm-core rings on the ocean side of the Gulf Stream
67.
What type of current flows in the opposite direction of wind- related currents?
a)
oppositional currents
b)
density currents
c)
countercurrents
d)
tidal currents
68.
Deep ocean currents are driven by
a)
tidal forces
b)
differences in density
c)
differences in oxygen content
d)
changes in conveyor belt cirulation
69.
The circulation of ocean water is an efficient way to transport
a)
heat
b)
oxygen
c)
density
d)
evaporation
70.
Changes in density that lead to the formation of deep ocean density currents include all of the following excpet
a)
evaporation
b)
cooling
c)
freezing
d)
melting
71.
Turbidity current densit results from water mixing with
a)
higher salinity water
b)
colder water
c)
cold-core water rings
d)
sediment particles
72.
When seawater freezes, most of the salt
a)
is included in the ice, increasing its density
b)
is left behind, increasing the density of the remaining seawater
c)
is included in the ice, decreasing its density
d)
is left behind, decreasing the density of the remaining seawater
73.
The cause of the density current that flows over the Strait of Gibraltar into the Atlantic Ocean is
a)
cooling
b)
evaporation
c)
freezing
d)
mixing with sediment
74.
Upwelling is important to sea life because it
a)
cools the surface water
b)
brings nutrients to the surface water
c)
keeps ocean temperature uniform
d)
brings carbon dioxide to the surface
75.
Upwelling occurs along the western edges of continents, where surface water
a)
flows away from land
b)
flows toward land
c)
flows northward along the coastline
d)
stops flowing
76.
Major commercial fishing areas are usually located in areas
a)
where density current form
b)
where seawater oxygen levels are high
c)
of persistent upwelling
d)
that experience frequent turbidity currents
77.
The gravitational pulls of the moon and sun cause the Earth's tides. The sun's effect is about
a)
one quarter that of the moon's
b)
half that of the moon's
c)
equal to that of the moon's
d)
double that of the moon's
78.
Tides are the highest when Earth is in line with
a)
the moon
b)
the sun
c)
both the sun and moon
d)
the tidal range
79.
The difference between high tide and low tide is most noticable
a)
on the open ocean
b)
during neap tides
c)
when the moon is at apogee
d)
in long, narrow bays
80.
The deepest earthquakes tend to occur at
a)
collision boundaries
b)
divergent boundaries
c)
transform boundaries
d)
subduction boundaries
81.
The part of a seismograph that does not move during an earthquake is the
a)
base
b)
drum
c)
pen
d)
record sheet
82.
What is the minimum of seismograph stations needed to locate an epicenter?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
83.
One seismograph station, by itself, can determine the
a)
direction to the epicenter
b)
location of the epicenter
c)
distance to the epicenter
d)
location of the plate boundary
84.
The Richter scale
a)
predicts earthquake location
b)
determines earthquake damage
c)
measures earthquake magnitude
d)
locates earthquake epicenters
85.
The Mohorovicic discontinuity occurs between the crust and the
a)
outer core
b)
lithosphere
c)
mantle
d)
none of the above
86.
Which statement about the cause of building collapse during an earthquake is false?
a)
buldings on bedrock survive earthquakes better than buildings on soil
b)
most buildings can survive horizontal shaking better than vertical shaking
c)
soils under buildings may settle from severe shaking
d)
some soils under buildings become liquefied due to severe shaking
87.
How many times more energy does an earthquake with Richter magnitude 8 release than an earthquake with Richter magnitude 6?
a)
about 2 times more energy
b)
about 31 times more energy
c)
about 961 times more energy
d)
about 1,000,000 times more energy
88.
In an earthquake's shadow zone
a)
both P wavesand S waves from the earthquake are received
b)
P waves from the earthquake are received but S waves are not
c)
S waves from the earthquake are received but P waves are not
d)
neither P waves nor S waves from the earthquakes are received
89.
Which of the following is the cause of most major earthquakes?
a)
the eruption of a volcano
b)
the collapse of a cavern
c)
the impact of a meteorite
d)
strain that builds up along faults at or near plate boundaries
90.
Which is the following statements about surface waves is false?
a)
They squeeze and stretch rock materials
b)
they cause particles of rock to travel at right angles to the direction of the waves
c)
they can travel through any material
d)
they are also called primary waves
91.
Which of the following statements about surface waves is true?
a)
Surface waves travel more quickly than P waves
b)
some surface waves cause particles of rock to move from side to side
c)
surface waves are also called S waves
d)
surafce waves are only perceived very close to the epicenter
92.
Most modern seismograph stations have equipment that records all of the following data except
a)
an exact Richter magnitude
b)
up and down motions
c)
north-south side-to-side motions
d)
east-west side-to-side motions
93.
Which of the following statements about aftershocks is false?
a)
There may be as many as 100 aftershocks in a day after an earthquake
b)
aftershocks can cause damage to buildings
c)
the frequency of aftershocks after an earthquake increases over time
d)
aftershocks are usually not as strong in magnitude as the initial earthquake
94.
Which of the following locations is the most seismically active?
a)
Chicago, Illinois
b)
Stracuse, New York
c)
Clermont, Florida
d)
New Madrid, Missouri
95.
Which of the following statements is a difference between the New Madrid, Missouri, earthquakes that occurred in 1811 and 1812 and most other large earthquakes?
a)
The New Madrid earthquakes occured far from a plate boundary
b)
the New Madrid earthquakes were stronger than any other earthquakes in history
c)
the New Madrid earthquakes were caused by volcanic eruption
d)
the New Madridearthquakes did not produce surface waves
96.
What data would help scientists identify where a seismic gap may exist along a fault?
a)
the locations of the foci of earthquakes that have occurred in the past along the fault
b)
the distance between the epicenters of the two mostrecent earthquakes along the fault
c)
a map showing the locations of large cities near the fault line
d)
the distance between the foci of the two most recent earthquakesalong the fault
97.
Which conclusion is supported by studies of earthquake waves passing through Earth?
a)
No earthquake waves can pass through Earth's core
b)
the mantle is a liquid
c)
the inner core is a liquid
d)
the outer core is a liquid
98.
Liquefaction would be most likely to occur
a)
as a result of earthquakes that happen underwater
b)
in loose sediments
c)
the inner core is a liquid
d)
the outer core is a liquid
99.
the transition zone separtes
a)
S waves and P waves
b)
the inner core from the outer core
c)
the upper mantle from the lower mantle
d)
the outer core from the mantle
100.
Scientists hypothesize in order to explain
a)
what they think will happen in a certain situation
b)
the procedure for an experiment
c)
how theories work
d)
why a theory should be made into a law
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