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Biology 1620 Midterm Study Questions

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 23hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which is NOT a scientific theory for how organic compounds appeared on earth?

a)

They came from outer space.

b)

Primitive bacteria introduced them.

c)

Lightning striking water caused them to form.

d)

They were formed near volcanoes.

2.

In 1953, Miller and Urey tested a hypothesis relating to the origin of life. What step in the origin of life were they interested in?

a)

The development of a genetic code.

b)

The origin of protocells.

c)

The formation of organic compounds.

d)

The polymerization of organic macromolecules.

3.

Scientists discovered that dripping a mixture of water and compounds important to living organisms on hot clay, ________________ were spontaneously generated.

a)

Protocells, including the phospholid bilayers

b)

Polymerized macromolecules

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Amino Acids

4.

Which of the following macromolecules can act as both a genetic code and a catalyst in the replication of genetic codes, suggesting it played an important role in the origin of life.

a)

DNA

b)

Ribosome

c)

RNA

d)

Protein

5.

Which of the following organisms is least likely to show up in the fossil record?

a)

Scorpion

b)

Bird

c)

Slug

d)

Snail

6.

Which of the following methods would be the most precise way to age a fossil horse that wasn't more than 70,000 years old?

a)

Analyzing petroglyphs of the horse made by ancient native peoples

b)

Relative position in the sedimentary rock

c)

Uranium dating

d)

Carbon dating

7.

When did Eukaryotes appear in the fossil record?

a)

2.5 bya

b)

545mya

c)

3.5bya

d)

4.6bya

8.

The branch of biology specifically focused on determining an organism's evolutionary relationships is known as:

a)

Systematics

b)

Archaeology

c)

Taxonomy

d)

Classification

9.

Who really got the ball rolling in regards to the scientific naming of organisms?

a)

Aristotle

b)

Plato

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Carolus Linnaeus

10.

In which level of the classification hierarchy would you find the group Mammalia?

a)

Order

b)

Genus

c)

Class

d)

Family

11.

Which level of classification represents the most similar group of species?

a)

Family

b)

Domain

c)

Genus

d)

Order

12.

If two sister taxa and a more distantly related species are group without their common ancestor, what kind of grouping is generated?

a)

Polyphyletic

b)

Monophyletic

c)

Homeostatic

d)

Paraphyletic

13.

Which trait of prokaryotes makes a straightforward linear, branching tree of life unlikely?

a)

Horizontal Gene Transfer

b)

Asexual Reproduction

c)

Sexual Reproduction

d)

Vertical Gene Transfer

14.

Only minke whale meat may be legally sold in Japan. If scientists generate a monophyletic clade that includes two types of humpback whales and one sample taken from a Japanese market, what has most likely occurred?

a)

The Japanese government is conducting a sting operation to determine who will unknowingly purchase illegal whale meat.

b)

Humpback whale meat is being sold illegally.

c)

Minke whale meat was contaminated with Humpback whale DNA.

d)

Scientists were sloppy and incorrectly placed the sample in a clade with Humpback whales.

15.

The branch lengths of all phylogenetic trees closely correspond to time.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Lamarck introduced the idea of "Descent with Modification" before Charles Darwin.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Which experience in Darwin's life was most useful to him in the formulation of his theory of Evolution?

a)

Medical School at Edinburgh.

b)

The voyage of the Beagle.

c)

Elementary school at Shrewsbury.

d)

Clergy school at Cambridge.

18.

In South America, Darwin experience an earthquake that raised the land at sea-level. This experience provided Darwin with evidence supportive of his theory from which branch of academia?

a)

Geology

b)

Biogeography

c)

Island Studies

d)

Anatomy

19.

Different species of this organism from different islands in the Galapagos provided Darwin with support for his theory by showing that species change as they colonize new areas.

a)

Green Iguana

b)

Mockingbird

c)

Penguin

d)

Marine Iguana

20.

Due to the young age, geology, and location of the Galapagos Islands, what can we conclude is the most likely mechanism used by iguanas to get to the islands from mainland South America?

a)

Being carried by humans via canoes.

b)

Swimming after evolving the ability to survive in the ocean.

c)

Rafting on a large mass of vegetation, such as a tree.

d)

Walking across a connecting land bridge during a recent ice age.

21.

Charles Darwin and Alfred Russell Wallace are most noted for their discovery of:

a)

The idea that species acquire traits during their lifetime that they pass on to their offspring.

b)

The second law of thermodynamics as it relates to the ecological requirements of aquatic zebra mussels.

c)

The mechanism for evolution: Natural Selection.

d)

The theory that species change over time.

22.

Which of the following statements best explains Darwin's theory of descent with modification by means of natural selection?

a)

The appearance of new traits is coincident with the appearance of environmental conditions to which those traits are favorable.

b)

Survival and reproduction of the fittest.

c)

As organisms change their behavior, their physical and genetic traits will better match their surroundings, leading to adaptation.

d)

Survival of the fittest.

23.

The wing of a bird and the wing of a bat developed via convergent evolution. Which of the following is the best term to describe these traits?

a)

Analogous Morphologies

b)

Molecular Analogies

c)

Molecular Homologies

d)

Homologous Morphologies

24.

Height and mass are both examples of this kind of trait.

a)

Discrete

b)

Quantitative

25.

What is the major source for changes to the sequence of DNA within a gene?

a)

Gene Duplication

b)

Fertilization

c)

Mutations

d)

Sexual Recombination

26.

Which is the best definition for the term "population"?

a)

All individuals of a single species found throughout the earth.

b)

All individuals of a species that live in the same area, that interbreed to produce fertile offspring.

c)

All individuals of all species in a given area, assuming they can produce fertile offspring within their own group.

d)

All individuals of a species in a given area, even if they are unable to produce fertile offspring via interbreeding.

27.

Which of the following is NOT an assumption of Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?

a)

Mutations do not occur.

b)

Natural selection is occurring.

c)

Random mating is occurring.

d)

It is a very large population.

28.

The tendency for a small population that colonizes a new island to have a drastically different genetic makeup compared to its mainland relatives is known as:

a)

The Founder Effect

b)

The Bottleneck Effect

c)

The Reproductive Outlier Effect

d)

Sexual Selection

29.

Suppose in a population of flowers, in which the homozygous dominant individuals are red, the heterozygotes are pink, and the homozygous dominant individuals are white, there are 64 red, 32 pink, and 4 white. Assuming the population is in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium, what ratio of the alleles are recessive?

a)

0.04

b)

0

c)

0.20

d)

0.80

30.

What is the term for the selective event in which the extremes of a trait have increased survival and reproduction?

a)

Stabilizing Selection

b)

Dysfunctional Selection

c)

Directional Selection

d)

Disruptive Selection

31.

All but which of the following prokaryote traits differ from eukaryote traits.

a)

Unique flagella

b)

Most have cell wall

c)

DNA is the genetic code.

d)

Nucleoid

32.

Heterocysts in Anabaena allow for the division of labor among cell types. The regular cells convert carbon dioxide into carbohydrates, while the heterocyst convert which abundant atmospheric gas into an organic compound?

a)

Phosphorus

b)

Oxygen

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Nitrogen

33.

Which of the following structures is necessary during conjugation?

a)

Pilus

b)

Fimbriae

c)

Test

d)

Flagellum

34.

This specific small piece of genetic material found in some bacteria can be given to other bacteria via conjugation. It conveys antibiotic resistance.

a)

R Plasmid

b)

Nucleoid

c)

F Factor

d)

Nucleus

35.

Prokaryotes are, on average, ____ times smaller than eukaryotes.

a)

50

b)

10

c)

2

d)

100

36.

Which of the following body shapes is NOT common in prokaryotes?

a)

Spiral

b)

Cuboidal

c)

Spherical

d)

Rod-shaped

37.

Penicillin breaks through the peptidoglycan cross-linkages in which bacterial group?

a)

Gram-negative

b)

Gram-positive

38.

Bacteria reproduce or share genetic information in all but which of the following ways?

a)

Transformation

b)

Binary fission

c)

Conjugation

d)

Meiosis and fertilization

39.

This protist is known for causing red tides.

a)

Amoeba

b)

Brown algae

c)

Dinoflagellate

d)

Parabasalid

40.

The SAR clade is named after all but which of the following groups:

a)

Alveolates

b)

Archaea

c)

Rhizaria

d)

Stramenophiles

41.

In the scientific skills exercise, we learned that the wheat mitochondrion shares the following percentages of DNA with the listed species:

M. capricolum 35%

A. nidulans 34%

A. tumefaciens 48%

E. coli 35%

Which of the bacteria is most likely to be closely related to the ancestor of the mitochondria?

a)

E. coli

b)

A. tumefaciens

c)

A nidulans

d)

M. capricolum

42.

Phycoerythrin is the red pigment in red algae. Which of the following statements about it is true?

a)

It is the only pigment involved in photosynthesis in the organism.

b)

It insulates the algae from the pressure of great depths.

c)

It prevents ice crystal formation in algae living at great depths.

d)

It enables the algae to photosynthesize at great depths.

43.

Diplomonads sometimes contain mitosomes, which are reduced forms of which cell organelle (and which can lack the critical electron transport chain, resulting in anaerobic respiration needs)?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

44.

Which of the following is the best generalization of protists?

a)

Mostly unicellular

b)

Mostly mixotrophic

c)

All mixotrophic

d)

All unicellular

45.

The process of engulfing another cell that subsequently becomes a mutualistic organelle is known as:

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

Endothermy

c)

Endosymbiosis

d)

Pinocytosis

46.

Approximately how many species of plants are known to exist today?

a)

500,000

b)

10,000

c)

1,000,000

d)

290,000

47.

Which is the closest relative of plants?

a)

Red Algae

b)

Charophytes

c)

Brown Algae

d)

Chlorophytes

48.

Which is not an adaptation to life on land?

a)

Photosynthesis using carbon dioxide.

b)

Stomata in the leaves.

c)

Protective coatings for spores.

d)

Sturdy stem structures.

49.

Early plants likely benefited from mycorrhizae, which __________.

a)

Provided a ready-made, rootlike system of filaments in the soil.

b)

Increased carbon dioxide uptake from the air.

c)

Increased nitrogen fixation in root nodules of the plant.

d)

Blocked against ultraviolet radiation, which is more prevalent on land.

50.

During the moss life cycle, which of the following is the predominant multicellular life-stage, on which the other life-stage must depend for survival?

a)

Haptophyte

b)

Lycophyte

c)

Sporophyte

d)

Gametophyte

51.

Which of the following correctly shows how the fern life cycle differs from the moss life cycle?

a)

Water isn't required for sperm transport from the antheridium to the archegonium in ferns.

b)

The gametophyte stage of ferns is much reduced compared to the sporophyte stage.

c)

The gametophyte stage in ferns is diploid.

d)

The sporophyte stage of ferns is much reduced compared to the gametophyte stage.

52.

Which group of vascular, seedless plants once dominated the forests of earth, but it now is found only as small forms such as the quillwort?

a)

Monilophytes

b)

Lycophytes

c)

Hornworts

d)

Liverworts

53.

Which is the correct definition of a seed?

a)

A spore, surrounded by a protective coat.

b)

The germination cell for any plantlike organism.

c)

A spore, surrounded by food, protected by a coat.

d)

An embryo, surrounded by food, in a protective coat.

54.

Microsporangia release microspores, which ultimately develop into _____ in seed plants.

a)

The male gametophyte

b)

The stigma

c)

The female gametophyte

d)

The pollen coat

55.

Which part of the seed is wholly provided by the female gametophyte?

a)

Food

b)

Pollen grain

c)

Seed coat

d)

Embryo

56.

Which of the following is NOT true of the tough, woody structure we call a pine cone?

a)

It contains the ovules.

b)

It is where the megaspores undergo meiosis.

c)

It is where the microspores undergo meiosis.

d)

It is the site of fertilization of the egg cell by the sperm.

57.

Which is one possible reason the angiosperms have succeeded better than the gymnosperms (at least during the last 66 million years)?

a)

They can produce seeds without the use of vascular tissue.

b)

They do not have to expend energy in making sugar-rich fruits.

c)

They have insect and other living pollinators.

d)

They have tougher cuticles and smaller leaves.

58.

What is the most likely reason for the Gymnosperms taking over the land from the seedless plants?

a)

The dinosaurs became more common.

b)

The climate became wetter.

c)

The gymnosperms had flowers, which increased their reproductive success.

d)

The climate became drier.

59.

Which of the following is NOT a gymnosperm?

a)

Cycad

b)

Mormon Tea

c)

Oak Tree

d)

Redwood Tree

60.

Which habitat is the stronghold of today's Gymnosperms?

a)

The Temperate Grassland of the Great Plains.

b)

The Taiga Forest of Canada and Siberia.

c)

The Temperate Forest of the Eastern USA and Europe.

d)

The Amazon Rainforest of South America.

61.

Which of the following is a feature of plants that leads to their much greater individual diversity when compared with animals?

a)

Indeterminate Growth

b)

Determinate Growth

c)

Asexual Reproduction

d)

Sexual Reproduction

62.

Which of the following is NOT a major goal of roots for the plant as a whole?

a)

Energy Acquisition

b)

Water Acquisition

c)

Mineral Acquisition

d)

Structural Stabilization

63.

Plants like strawberries have modified stems called ______, which send off baby plants to reproduce the plant asexually.

a)

Rhizomes

b)

Tubers

c)

Stolons

d)

Apical Meristems

64.

Which of the following is NOT a major goal of leaves for the plant?

a)

Energy Acquisition

b)

Water Acquisition

c)

Transpiration

d)

Carbon Dioxide Acquisition

65.

Based on your knowledge of monocot and eudicot leaf structure, which of the following plants is a eudicot?

a)

Wheat

b)

Maple Tree

c)

Corn

d)

Iris

66.

Which tissue type protects the plant on the outside?

a)

Ground

b)

Dermal

c)

Vascular

d)

Connective

67.

Xylem is responsible for sending ___________ from the roots to the leaves.

a)

Oils and Sugars

b)

Water and Minerals

c)

Energy and Minerals

d)

Sugars and Water

68.

Leaf cells that focus on photosynthesis are most likely:

a)

Xylem Cells

b)

Parenchyma

c)

Collenchyma

d)

Sclerenchyma

69.

Which bulk flow response is hypothesized to speed up the flow of sugar in the phloem?

a)

Negative Pressure

b)

Transpiration

c)

Positive Pressure

d)

Root Pressure

70.

Which of the following does NOT open up the stomata via guard cell regulation?

a)

Putting the plant out in sunlight.

b)

Pumping potassium ions into the guard cells.

c)

Pumping potassium ions out of the guard cells.

d)

Hydrating the plant.

71.

Which property of water keeps them connected in a column from roots to leaves, enabling bulk transport upwards?

a)

Tension

b)

Cohesion

c)

Negative Pressure

d)

Adhesion

72.

Which cells contain the Casparian Strip, which blocks the flow of water and minerals in the root?

a)

Megasporangium

b)

Endodermis

c)

Periderm

d)

Epidermis

73.

Which route allows water to flow along the hydrophilic cell walls?

a)

Symplastic

b)

Apoplastic

c)

Endodermal

d)

Protoplasm

74.

A plant cell in a hypotonic solution would:

a)

Become turgid

b)

Lyse

c)

Become flaccid

d)

Plasmolyze

75.

Which of the following is true of water potential?

a)

Water potential is equal to 1MPa at sea level.

b)

Solute potenial is always positive.

c)

Water will flow from a low water potential to a high water potential.

d)

Water will flow from a high water potential to a low water potential.

76.

Why do Venus Fly Traps and Genlisea plants need to capture and digest animals?

a)

To obtain energy.

b)

To obtain carbon.

c)

To obtain water via the animals' bodily fluids.

d)

To obtain essential elements.

77.

Which soil particles are the largest, creating air pockets between them in the soil, which is a benefit to plant roots?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Dirt

78.

Which is the best definition for humus, and important component of topsoil?

a)

Weathered rocks and minerals dissolved in the soil.

b)

Nematodes and Bacteria.

c)

Decaying organisms and organic matter.

d)

Living organisms such as insects and roots.

79.

Loam is considered the best soil for plants because it:

a)

Contains no clay, only sand and silt.

b)

Contains mostly silt, with only limited amounts of sand and clay.

c)

Contains only sand, which is great for minerals.

d)

Contains equal amounts of sand, silt, and clay.

80.

What do plants secrete to assist with cation exchange in the soil?

a)

Nitrate ions.

b)

Sodium ions.

c)

Water.

d)

Hydrogen ions.

81.

Recently, we have attempted to reclaim soil contaminated by toxic chemicals through which process:

a)

Phytoremediation

b)

Erosion control

c)

Adjusting soil pH

d)

Irrigation

82.

What is the benefit the plant gains when Rhizobium bacteria enter via an infection thread and form a clump of bacterioids?

a)

A consistent source of nitrogen.

b)

Calcium ions via cation exchange.

c)

Increased absorption of water and minerals via mycorrhizae.

d)

Carbohydrates for energy.

83.

Which is true of all transgenic plants?

a)

They are the result of the hybridization of two closely related plants.

b)

They produce toxins to kill pests.

c)

They are resistant to plant diseases.

d)

They have a gene from a different species.

84.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for asexual reproduction?

a)

Fragmentation

b)

Apomixis

c)

Mitosis

d)

Meiosis

85.

What is the predominant mechanism for seed dispersal in dandelions and maple trees?

a)

Water

b)

Animal transport

c)

Wind

d)

None of the above

86.

Which part of the plant emerges first from the seed?

a)

Cotyledon

b)

First true leaves

c)

Shoot Apex

d)

Radicle

87.

Which part of the flower becomes the fruit, generally?

a)

Ovary

b)

Stigma

c)

Ovule

d)

Sepal

88.

What is unique about angiosperm fertilization?

a)

Two sperm cells fertilize the female gametophyte, generating two zygotes. One zygote dies.

b)

Two sperm cells fertilize the female gametophyte; one the egg cell, the other forms a 3n cell that becomes the endosperm

c)

One sperm cell fertilizes the egg cell, and another sperm reproduces via mitosis to become endosperm.

d)

Three sperm cells fertilize the female gametophyte, forming the endosperm.

89.

How many cells are within a pollen grain?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

1

d)

3

90.

What part of the flower is mainly for its protection during development?

a)

Stamen

b)

Sepal

c)

Petal

d)

Style