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WorksheetsPS4 / IPA4 - Quiz 5 and 6
Total questions: 93
Worksheet time: 48mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the formulations acyclovir is available in from the list below:
a)
Oral
b)
Parenteral
c)
Topical
d)
Nasal
2.
Quiz 5 - Which counseling point is important for a patient starting oral acyclovir?
a)
Take on empty stomach for best effect
b)
Ensure adequate hydration
c)
Sit up for 30 min after taking
d)
Store in original container
3.
Quiz 6 - Select all of the commonly seen side effects with azelastine from the list below
a)
Headache
b)
Stinging / burning eyes
c)
Bitter taste in mouth
d)
Double vision
4.
Quiz 6 - Which of the following is an opthalmic and nasal antihistamine?
a)
Azelastine
b)
Olopatadine
c)
Montelukast
d)
Epinephrine
5.
Quiz 6 - Which of the following is available as an OTC nasal preparation?
a)
Azelastine
b)
Olopatadine
c)
Montelukast
d)
Epinephrine
6.
Quiz 6 - This proton pump inhibitor can be taken without regard to meals
a)
Dexilant
b)
Lomotil
c)
Protonix
d)
Amitiza
7.
Quiz 6 - Which medications are only available by mouth?
a)
Dexlansoprazole
b)
Dicyclomine
c)
Pantoprazole
d)
Hydroxyzine
8.
Quiz 6 - What is a potential consequence of abrupt discontinuation of dexlansoprazole
a)
Rebound reflux
b)
Hyperreflexia
c)
Rebound hypotension
d)
Tardive dyskinesia
9.
Quiz 6 - What is an option for patients who cannot swallow Dexilant whole?
a)
Open capsule and sprinkle (but do not chew contents)
b)
Open capsule and chew contents
c)
Open capsule and prepare a retention enema
d)
No option, must switch to alternate agent
10.
Quiz 6 - Which is an antispasmodic agent used in patients who have IBS to help with abdominal pain?
a)
Dicyclomine
b)
Linaclotide
c)
Dexlansoprazole
d)
Pantoprazole
11.
Quiz 6 - Patients prescribed Bentyl should be counseled on which adverse effect(s)?
a)
Dry mouth (xerostomia)
b)
Dizziness
c)
Diarrhea
d)
Abdominal cramping
12.
Quiz 6 - Which is an oral combination therapy to manage diarrhea
a)
Lomotil
b)
Protonix
c)
Dexilant
d)
Reglan
13.
Quiz 6 - What class of drug is diphenoxylate?
a)
Opioid-like
b)
Anticholinergic
c)
Neuromuscular blocker
d)
Dopamine agonist
14.
Quiz 6 - What role does atropine have when added to diphenoxylate?
a)
To prevent abuse of diphenoxylate
b)
To prevent excessive constipation
c)
To increase bioavailability of diphenoxylate
d)
To reduce sedative effects of diphenoxylate
15.
Quiz 6 - Which situation would Lomotil be appropriate to manage?
a)
Non-infectious diarrhea
b)
Infectious diarrhea
c)
Diabetic gastroparesis
d)
Chronic constipation
16.
Quiz 5 - When might a patient be prescribed Dificid?
a)
GI infection
b)
Skin infection
c)
Eye infection
d)
UTI
17.
Quiz 5 - Select all the true statements about fidaxomycin from below:
a)
Minimal gut absorption
b)
Macrolide
c)
Efficacious against C. dificile
d)
Many drug-drug interactions (CYP)
e)
Should not use in renal dysfunction
18.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the formulations fluconazole is available in:
a)
Oral
b)
Parenteral
c)
Topical
d)
Vaginal
19.
Quiz 5 - Which of the following is often given as a single oral dose for vaginal yeast infections?
a)
Diflucan
b)
Nizoral
c)
Mycostatin
d)
Tamiflu
e)
Macrobid
20.
Quiz 5 - This medication should be used with caution in patients at risk for QT prolongation (i.e. already have underlying cardiac issues or concomitant QT prolonging agents)
a)
Fluconazole
b)
Nystatin
c)
Rifamixin
d)
Acyclovir
21.
Quiz 5 - Which class of drugs should not be co-administered with Diflucan?
a)
CYP 3A4/5 substrates
b)
Penicillin
c)
Highly protein-bound agents
d)
Short-acting beta agonists
22.
Quiz 6 - Select all of the dosage forms for fluticasone:
a)
Nasal spray
b)
Oral inhalation
c)
Oral tablet
d)
Topical
23.
Quiz 6 - What would Flovent HFA be used to treat?
a)
Asthma (maintenance)
b)
Asthma (acute bronchospasm)
c)
Anaphylaxis
d)
Allergic rhinitis
24.
Quiz 6 - What class of drug is Flonase?
a)
Nasal corticosteroid
b)
Nasal antihistamine
c)
Nasal mast cell inhibitor
d)
Nasal TNF inhibitor
25.
Quiz 6 - Select all of the important counseling points for a patient starting fluticasone nasal spray:
a)
Do not spray in eyes / mouth
b)
Do not spray directly towards the septum
c)
Store in fridge
d)
Prime before use / after prolonged non-use
e)
Wash mouth after each use to prevent thrush
26.
Quiz 6 - This antihistamine has multiple indications such as anxiety, dermatitis, and nausea/vomiting
a)
Hydroxyzine
b)
Metoclopramide
c)
Linaclotide
d)
Azelastine
27.
Quiz 6 - Which of the following is one of the most sedating antihistamines?
a)
Hydroxyzine
b)
Montelukast
c)
Azelastine
d)
Olopatadine
28.
Quiz 6 - Select all of the reasons hydroxyzine should be used cautiously in geriatric patients
a)
Anticholinergic effects can lead to constipation and dry mouth
b)
Can lead to confusion and sedation
c)
Requires a renal dosage adjustment (can accumulate in geriatric)
d)
Has opposite effects in geriatric patients (can increase itchiness)
29.
Quiz 5 - When counseling on oral ketoconazole, what should be mentioned?
a)
Take with acidic beverage (i.e. cola) for best absorption
b)
Take with dairy / milk for best absorption
c)
Co-administer with folic acid to prevent toxicity
d)
Avoid overhydration with this medication
30.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the formulations ketoconazole is available in:
a)
Oral
b)
Topical
c)
Parenteral
d)
Transdermal patch
e)
Rectal suppository
31.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the important considerations when determining appropriateness of use for systemic ketoconazole:
a)
Liver function
b)
Renal function
c)
IV access
d)
Whether fungal vs bacterial
e)
Other medications (many drug-drug interactions)
32.
Quiz 6 - Which are important counseling points regarding linaclotide?
a)
Take on empty stomach for best effect
b)
Ensure adequate hydration
c)
May cause diarrhea (stop if becomes severe)
d)
Do not open capsules
33.
Quiz 6 - Which of the following is classified as a secretagogue?
a)
Linzess
b)
Protonix
c)
Reglan
d)
Lomotil
34.
Quiz 6 - Select all of the following which are ONLY available as oral formulation?
a)
Linaclotide
b)
Lubiprostone
c)
Pantoprazole
d)
Diphenoxylate/atropine
e)
Metoclopramide
35.
Quiz 6 - Which of the following patients might be prescribed Amitiza, per package labeling?
a)
Female with diarrhea from IBS
b)
Male with constipation from IBS
c)
Male with constipation from opioids
d)
Female with constipation from IBS
36.
Quiz 6 - Which of the following are important administration instructions for lubiprostone?
a)
Take with adequate water
b)
Swallow whole
c)
May lead to nausea, take with food
d)
Take close to bedtime (sedating)
37.
Quiz 6 - Select all of the following medications which should be adjusted in cases of hepatic impairment
a)
Lubiprostone
b)
Linaclotide
c)
Montelukast
d)
Metoclopramide
38.
Quiz 6 - Which of the following is classified as a prokinetic agent
a)
Reglan
b)
Protonix
c)
Lomotil
d)
Dexilant
39.
Quiz 6 - What formulation(s) is metoclopramide available in?
a)
Oral
b)
Parenteral
c)
Sublingual
d)
Transdermal patch
e)
Suppository
40.
Quiz 6 - Although rare, this side effect of metoclopramide is related to its ability to cross the blood brain barrier and act as a dopamine antagonist
a)
Tardive dyskinesia
b)
Pyelonephritis
c)
Depression
d)
Dementia
41.
Quiz 6 - Select the medication which is renally adjusted
a)
Metoclopramide
b)
Linaclotide
c)
Pantoprazole
d)
Dicyclomine
42.
Quiz 6 - Which would be helpful in diabetic gastroparesis to reduce nausea and vomiting?
a)
Reglan
b)
Protonix
c)
Linzess
d)
Amitiza
43.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the antiviral agents from the list below
a)
Zovirax
b)
Valtrex
c)
Tamiflu
d)
Flagyl
44.
Quiz 6 - Select all of the potential side effects for Nasonex:
a)
Headache
b)
Pharyngitis
c)
Viral infection
d)
Epistaxis (bloody nose)
e)
Acute exacerbation of asthma
45.
Quiz 6 - Select all of the glucocorticoids from the list below:
a)
Nasonex
b)
Nasacort
c)
Linzess
d)
Singulair
e)
Flovent
46.
Quiz 6 - Select all of the glucocorticoids from the list below:
a)
Lomotil
b)
Amitiza
c)
Kenalog
d)
Singulair
e)
Flonase
47.
Quiz 6 - Select all of the useful counseling points for mometasone nasal spray from below:
a)
Could take up to 2 weeks for full effect
b)
Must prime first (provide instructions)
c)
Make sure to aim towards the septum
d)
Take by mouth if nose is too congested
48.
Quiz 6 - What should patient's self-monitor when taking Singulair, per the Black Box Warning
a)
Serious but rare neuropsychiatric events (including aggression, nightmares, others)
b)
Severe hypotension (must monitor BP daily)
c)
Renal toxicity (seen by blood in urine)
d)
Hypoglycemia (must monitor blood glucose weekly)
49.
Quiz 6 - Which correctly describes montelukast's mechanism of action?
a)
Leukotriene receptor antagonist
b)
Histamine receptor antagonist
c)
Mast cell stabilizer
d)
Glucocorticoid agonist
50.
Quiz 6 - Select all of the indications for montelukast:
a)
Allergic rhinitis
b)
Asthma
c)
Anaphylaxis
d)
Atopic dermatitis
e)
Arrhythmia
51.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the antifungal agents from this list:
a)
Diflucan
b)
Nizoral
c)
Mycostatin
d)
Tamiflu
e)
Macrobid
52.
Quiz 5 - Select the medications from the list below which have multiple CYP-related drug interactions when given systemically
a)
Diflucan
b)
Nizoral
c)
Valtrex
d)
Tamiflu
53.
Quiz 5 - How is mupirocin administered?
a)
Topically
b)
Orally
c)
Parenterally
d)
Rectally
54.
Quiz 5 - When might Bactroban be prescribed?
a)
Skin wound with Staph infection
b)
Vaginal yeast infection
c)
C. dificile diarrheal infection
d)
Anaerobic bacterial infection
55.
Quiz 5 - How is nitrofurantoin administered?
a)
By mouth
b)
Parenterally
c)
Rectally
d)
Topically
56.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the important considerations when determining appropriateness of use for nitrofurantoin:
a)
Pregnancy status
b)
Renal function
c)
Site of infection (cystitis vs pyelonephritis)
d)
Concomitant QT prolonging Rx
e)
Concomitant blood thinners
57.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the correct statements regarding oral nystatin suspension
a)
It works locally in GI tract (is not absorbed)
b)
Has many drug-drug interactions
c)
Often instructed to "swish and spit" when used for oral infections
d)
Requires renal dose adjustments
e)
Must wash out mouth after using to avoid thrush
58.
Quiz 6 - Which of the following is the route of administration for Patanase?
a)
Nasal
b)
Oral
c)
Inhalation
d)
Topical
59.
Quiz 6 - Which is the indication for olopatadine?
a)
Seasonal allergic rhinitis
b)
Chronic urticaria
c)
Asthma
d)
Exercise intolerance
60.
Quiz 6 - Select all of the important things to mention when instructing a patient on the use of olopatadine?
a)
Prime before first use (and prolonged non-use)
b)
Avoid spraying in the eyes
c)
Do not share with others
d)
Blow nose immediately after use
61.
Quiz 6 - Select all of the important side effects to mention when counseling on the use of Patanase
a)
Dysgeusia (such as bitter taste)
b)
Headache
c)
Epistaxis (nose bleed)
d)
Lightheadedness
e)
Rapid heartbeat
62.
Quiz 5 - When should oseltamivir be given?
a)
Within 48 hours of influenza symptom onset
b)
Within 5 days of COVID symptom onset
c)
Within 24 hours of vaginal yeast infection symptom onset
d)
Within 3 days of RSV infection symptom onset
63.
Quiz 6 - Which nutrients may be depleted from pantoprazole and others in its class?
a)
Vitamin B12
b)
Magnesium
c)
Vitamin D
d)
Calcium
64.
Quiz 6 - What formulation(s) is pantoprazole available in?
a)
Oral
b)
Parenteral
c)
Sublingual
d)
Transdermal patch
e)
Suppository
65.
Quiz 5 - When should nirmatrelvir / ritonavir be given?
a)
Within 48 hours of influenza symptom onset
b)
Within 5 days of COVID symptom onset
c)
Within 24 hours of vaginal yeast infection symptom onset
d)
Within 3 days of RSV infection symptom onset
66.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the correct statements from below regarding nirmatrelvir / ritonavir:
a)
Many CYP-related drug interactions
b)
Requires renal dose adjustments
c)
Not recommended in severe hepatic impairment
d)
Combination product (2 antiviral medications)
67.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the correct administration instructions for Paxlovid:
a)
Do not remove tablets from blister card until ready to take the dose
b)
All tablets in a dose should be taken at once or right after each other
c)
Can break/chew tablets if needed
d)
Must take with a full meal
68.
Quiz 5 - Which of the following have significant drug interactions with nirmatrelvir / ritonavir and should not be given together?
a)
Colchicine
b)
Amiodarone
c)
Rivaroxaban
d)
Carbamazepine
e)
Propranolol
69.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the appropriate counseling points for a patient taking AZO from the list below:
a)
It may discolor urine (brown-red)
b)
It can discolor contact lenses
c)
Should take with food to prevent nausea
d)
Do not take with NSAIDs
70.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the routes terbinafine may be administered
a)
Oral
b)
Topical
c)
Parenteral
d)
Ophthalmic
71.
Quiz 6 - Select all of the correctly paired brand/generic combinations from below:
a)
Triamcinolone (Nasacort)
b)
Triamcinalone (Kenalog)
c)
Triamcinolone (Nasonex)
d)
Fluticaonse (Nasacort)
e)
Mometasone (Nasonex)
72.
Quiz 5 - Which would be an indication for terbinafine?
a)
Toenail fungus (onychomycosis)
b)
Body ringworm (tinea corporis)
c)
Athlete's foot (tinea pedis)
d)
Jock itch (tinea cruris)
e)
Scalp ringworm (tinea capitis)
73.
Quiz 5 - Truvada is a combination product which contains which 2 drug classes?
a)
2 NRTIs
b)
NRTI and NNRTI
c)
Purine analog and neuraminidase inhibitor
d)
Nitroimidazole and lincosamide
74.
Quiz 5 - Select all indications for emtricitabine - tenofovir disoproxil from the list below:
a)
HIV
b)
Pre-exposure HIV prophylaxis (PrEP)
c)
Hepatitis B
d)
Hepatitis A
75.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the appropriate counseling points for Truvada from the list below:
a)
Take with/without food
b)
Swallow tablets whole
c)
Skip doses if you feel well
d)
Take close to bedtime (sedating)
76.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the correct statements regarding Truvada
a)
Can cause Hepatitis B flare (if co-infected)
b)
May exacerbate osteopenia
c)
Can cause hair loss
d)
Can cause significant weight loss
e)
Can lead to increased risk of COVID
77.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the agents from below which is only available by mouth
a)
Dificid
b)
Valtrex
c)
Tamiflu
d)
Paxlovid
78.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the agents from below which is only available by mouth
a)
Zovirax
b)
Nizoral
c)
Diflucan
d)
Dificid
e)
Truvada
79.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the following medications which require renal dose adjustments
a)
Phenazopyridine
b)
Mupirocin
c)
Acyclovir
d)
Nitrofurantoin
80.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the following medications which require renal dose adjustments
a)
Truvada
b)
Dificid
c)
Nizoral
d)
Diflucan
81.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the following medications which require renal dose adjustments
a)
Paxlovid
b)
Tamiflu
c)
Valtrex
d)
Mavyret
e)
Truvada
82.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the medications requiring renal dose adjustment from the list below:
a)
Zovirax
b)
Valtrex
c)
Paxlovid
d)
Diflucan
e)
Mycostatin
83.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the medications requiring renal dose adjustment from the list below:
a)
Macrobid
b)
Bactroban
c)
Nizoral
d)
Tamiflu
e)
Truvada
84.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the following would lead to increased bleeding when combined with warfarin:
a)
Phenazopyridine
b)
Acyclovir
c)
Ketoconazole
d)
Fluconazole
85.
Quiz 5 - Which of the following best describes valacyclovir?
a)
Prodrug of acyclovir (requires less daily dosing)
b)
Metabolite of acyclovir (requires more daily dosing)
c)
Parenteral version of acyclovir
d)
Topical version of acylcovir
86.
Quiz 5 - Which of the following medications could be used to treat a patient with an HSV infection?
a)
Valtrex
b)
Zovirax
c)
Tamiflu
d)
Paxlovid
e)
Truvada
87.
Quiz 6 - Select all of the medications listed below which are only available as oral formulations
a)
Dexilant
b)
Lomotil
c)
Singulair
d)
Protonix
e)
Metoclopramide
88.
Quiz 6 - Select all of the medications listed below which are included in the Beers list
a)
Dexlansoprazole
b)
Dicyclomine
c)
Hydroxyzine
d)
Metoclopramide
e)
Pantoprazole
89.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the formulations metronidazole is available in:
a)
Oral
b)
Parenteral
c)
Vaginal
d)
Topical
e)
Rectal
90.
Quiz 5 - Select all the types of "bugs" Flagyl would treat from the list below:
a)
Trichomonas
b)
Anerobic bacteria
c)
Gram positive bacteria
d)
Candida
e)
Viruses
91.
Quiz 5 - Select all of the important counseling points for metronidazole from the list below:
a)
Avoid concomitant alcohol (can cause severe vomiting)
b)
Must take on empty stomach
c)
May cause severe dizziness when standing
d)
Separate from polyvalent cations such as calcium
e)
May cause nausea
92.
Quiz 5 - Select of the following which should be dosed adjusted in hepatic impairment?
a)
Metronidazole
b)
Nystatin
c)
Acyclovir
d)
Nitrofurantoin
93.
Quiz 5: Select all of the appropriate counseling points for nitrofurantoin
a)
May cause urine discoloration (brown)
b)
Best to take with food
c)
Take the missed dose as soon as you remember but not too close to next dose
d)
Store in refrigerator
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