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Genetics Final Exam

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What were the expected results of crosses b/w parents with contrasting traits?

a)

Co-Dominance

b)

Recessive

c)

Homozygous

d)

Blending

2.

Is the P1 generation haploid or diploid?

a)

Haploid

b)

Diploid

3.

Which is NOT one of Mendel's Laws?

a)

Law of Independent Assortment

b)

Law of Partial/Incomplete dominance

c)

Law of Dominance and Recessiveness

d)

Law of Segregation

4.

How did Mendel find where the recessive trait went in F1 offspring?

a)

Test Cross

b)

Intercross

c)

Cross b/w P1 generation

5.

What is an intercross?

a)

Cross b/w P1 Generation

b)

Cross b/w F1 Generation

c)

Test Cross

6.

Since there are only two traits being tested for inheritance in the monohybrid cross, the chance that a gamete will have one of the two traits is:

a)

1/2

b)

1/4

c)

1/16

d)

3/4

7.

Crosses involving true-breeding parental strains leads to only one outcome:

a)

heterozygosity

b)

homozygosity

8.

Individuals who are homozygous for one or more genes can only produce _____ genetic gamete type.

a)

two

b)

one

c)

This cannot be determined without the genotypes

d)

16

e)

four

9.

Individuals who are heterozygous for one or more genes can produce at minimum _____ genetically different gamete types

a)

four

b)

one

c)

two

d)

This cannot be determined without the genotypes

10.

What is a Dihybrid Cross?

a)

Crosses b/w two true breeding parents

b)

Crosses that involve two contrasting traits

c)

Crosses that involve one contrasting trait

d)

Crosses b/w two alleles that are absolutely linked

11.

What is the correct order of the phases in meiosis?

a)

Metaphase, Prophase, Anaphase, Telophase

b)

Prophase, Metaphase, Telophase, Anaphase

c)

Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase

d)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

12.

Anaphase during Meiosis 1 is the segregation of alleles from ______

a)

chromatids

b)

non-sister chromatid pairs

c)

sister chromatid pairs

d)

chromosomes

13.

Anaphase during Meiosis II is the segregation of alleles from ______

a)

non-sister chromatid pairs

b)

sister chromatid pairs

c)

chromatids

d)

chromosomes

14.

Which phase of Meiosis does synapsis occur?

a)

Prophase 1

b)

Metaphase 1

c)

Anaphase 1

d)

Telophase 1

15.

By the end of Meiosis in humans, how many chromosomes are there?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

92

d)

27

16.

Meiosis results in ______ gametes:

a)

2

b)

4

c)

1

17.

An example of incomplete or partial dominance:

a)

The recessive trait completely disappearing

b)

Red x White P1= White offspring w/ red spots

c)

Red x White P1= Pink offspring

d)

Red x White P1= White or red offspring w/ pink spots

18.

An example of co-dominance:

a)

The dominant trait completely disappears

b)

White x Red P1= White offspring w/ Red spots

c)

White x Red P1= Pink offspring

d)

White x Red P1= Red and White offspring

19.

Null allele or amorph:

a)

an allele with a novel activity or product. (dominant)

b)

an allele that produces increased amount or activity of product. (dominant)

c)

an allele that produces a reduced amount or activity of product. (recessive)

d)

an allele that produces no product. (recessive)

20.

Hypomorph:

a)

an allele that produces a reduced amount or activity of product. (recessive)

b)

an allele whose activity or product antagonizes the activity of the normal product. (dominant)

c)

an allele that produces increased amount or activity of product. (dominant)

d)

an allele that produces no product. (recessive)

21.

Any change in the DNA base sequence of an organism is a (a)   .

22.

Any of a set of three or more alleles in a population, only two of which can be present in a single diploid organism:

a)

Epistasis

b)

Multiple alleles

c)

Absolute Linkage

d)

Lethality

23.

Blood Groups: A and B are (a)   to O

24.

(a)   is a condition where the expression or lack of expression of one gene is affected by the expression or lack of expression of one or more independently inherited genes.

25.

What is the ratio for epistasis?

a)

can vary depending on recessiveness or dominance

b)

9:3:3:1

c)

3:1

d)

9:3:4

26.

Epistasis requires (a)   or more genes to produce a phenotype.

27.

The inheritance of two or more genes together instead of independently can be defined as (a)   .

28.

Linkage of genes does not restrict the genetic diversity of the offspring in any cross other than monohybrid.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Linkage should occur for all the genes present on the same chromosome because these genes are on the same physical ‘particle’.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Are genes (traits) that are carried on the same chromosome, which is a common occurrence, always absolutely linked?

a)

Yes

b)

No

31.

Under strict genetic linkage, the only result will be _____ types

a)

this depends on the recombination frequency

b)

parental

c)

non-parental

d)

there is no specification

32.

What mode of Inheritance is represented by this pedigree?

a)

Mitochondrial

b)

x-Linked Dominant

c)

X-Linked Recessive

d)

Autosomal Recessive

33.

What mode of Inheritance is represented by this pedigree?

a)

Mitochondrial

b)

X-linked recessive

c)

Autosomal recessive

d)

X-linked dominant

34.

What mode of Inheritance is represented by this pedigree?

a)

Autosomal dominant

b)

X-linked dominant

c)

Autosomal recessive

d)

X-linked recessive

35.

What mode of Inheritance is represented by this pedigree?

a)

X-linked recessive

b)

X-linked dominant

c)

Mitochondrial

d)

Autosomal recessive

36.

Copying DNA into RNA DNA-dependent RNA polymerase is (a)   .

37.

(a)   is the breaking of hydrogen bonds using DNA Helicase.

38.

Transcription takes place in the (a)   .

39.

(a)   nucleotides are in a codon.

40.

The 7-methyl guanine cap is added to where?

a)

5'

b)

3'

c)

at the start codon

d)

at the stop codon

41.

The 5' untranslated region includes the start codon?

a)

Yes

b)

No

42.

The translated region in a DNA sequence includes the stop codon:

a)

True

b)

False

43.

(a)   is the concept that the order of nucleotides in the DNA of a gene corresponds directly with the order of nucleotides in the RNA and, in turn, with the order of the amino acids in a protein.

44.

Which of the following are STOP codons?

a)

AUG

b)

UAA

c)

UAG

d)

UGA

45.

Which codon is the universal start codon?

a)

UAG

b)

AGU

c)

AUG

d)

UGA

46.

The stage in Meiosis where:

-Chromosomes decondensed

-Nuclear envelope reforms

-Daughter cells are split into 2

a)

Metaphase

b)

Telophase I

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase II

47.

In Prophase, the exchange of DNA in tetrads forms non-sister chromosomes.

a)

Independent Assortment

b)

Recombination

c)

Crossing over

d)

Synapsis

48.

The random alignment of tetrads on the metaphase plate during meiosis 1:

a)

Synapsis

b)

Independent Assortment

c)

Crossing over

d)

S-Phase

49.

2 sister chromatids containing maternal and paternal DNA come together to form a tetrad in Prophase 1.

a)

Independent Assortment

b)

Random Assortment

c)

Crossing over

d)

Synapsis

50.

Dyads are split into monads in Meiosis 1

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Homologous chromosomes separate and move to opposite poles. Tetrads to Dyads or Dyads to Monads.

a)

Metaphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Cytokenisis

52.

Independent assortment occurs in:

a)

Metaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

S-Phase

d)

Interphase

53.

Synapsis AND crossing over occurs in:

a)

Interphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Metaphase

54.

A (a)   can be used to find the genotype of a dominant individual by crossing them w/ a homozygous recessive genotype.

55.

The only possible outcome from crosses involving true-breeding parental strains:

a)

heterozygosity

b)

homozygosity

c)

heterozygous recessive

d)

homozygous recessive

56.

A set of 1 maternal and 1 paternal chromosome synapsed together =

a)

Non-Sister Chromosome

b)

Sister Chromosome

c)

Homologous Chromosome

d)

Chromatid

57.

A tetrad= ____ chromosomes and ____ chromatids

a)

2

b)

8

c)

4

d)

3

58.

There is no new DNA after Telophase 1:

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Gene interaction is when several genes influence a particular characteristic:

a)

True

b)

False

60.

What is charged tRNA

a)

tRNA after electrolysis

b)

RNA that is translated

c)

tRNA w/ a ribosome attached

d)

RNA that is transcripted

61.

What molecular agent is responsible for the translation of mRNA?

a)

amino acids

b)

polypeptides

c)

nucleotides

d)

ribosomes

62.

How many codons are possible based on the fact that each codon is 3 bases long and there are 4 possible RNA bases (A, U, G, and C)

a)

34

b)

64

c)

108

d)

32

63.

What determines where translation will end on an mRNA molecule?

a)

Missense

b)

Mutation

c)

Stop codon

d)

Start codon

64.

What is the minimum # of different tRNA's that can exist if each codon has it's own unique tRNA?

a)

62

b)

61

c)

32

d)

34

65.

How many genetically different gamete types can an individual homozygous for 3 genes produce? EX: AABBCC

a)

6

b)

1

c)

3

d)

8

66.

In humans, the haploid # of chromosomes is 23. Based on this info, how many tetrads are present in a human primary gametophyte during Prophase I of meiosis?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

4

d)

3

67.

At which stage of Meiosis are tetrads split into dyads?

a)

Cytokenisis

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

68.

Allelic variation is _____ by mutation.

a)

Increased

b)

Decreased

c)

Not affected

d)

Nulled

69.

What are the sequences in chromosomal DNA that never end up coding for anything in mature mRNA?

a)

TR

b)

extrons

c)

introns

d)

UTR

70.

Where do the 40s subunits bind to on a mature mRNA strand?

a)

Start codon

b)

Poly A tail

c)

Stop codon

d)

7MeG

71.

Where does the 40s subunit STOP on a mRNA strand?

a)

The untranslated region

b)

7MeG

c)

Start codon

d)

Stop codon

72.

A mutation that changes the DNA sequence and ends up coding for a stop codon.

a)

Termination

b)

Silent

c)

Nonsense

d)

Missense

73.

A mutation that changes the last nucleotide in a codon but has no affect on the protein product.

a)

Subunit

b)

Silent

c)

Missense

d)

Nonsense

74.

A mutation in DNA that causes a change in the amino acid sequence

a)

Frame shift

b)

Insertion

c)

Missense

d)

Deletion

75.

How many nucleotides are in a "reading frame"?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

6

d)

However many are in the UTR

76.

Insertion or deletion mutations will change the reading frame by 1 or 2 nucleotides:

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Deleting or Inserting 3 nucleotides will have an effect on the reading frame.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

After the 40s subunit stops. The ____ forms.

a)

anti-codon

b)

30s subunit

c)

60s subunit

d)

poly A tail

79.

In crosses b/w true breeding sheep w/ black wool and white wool. The offspring were 9/16 black, 3/16 grey, and 4/16 white. How many genes are involved in the color specification?

a)

A test cross is needed to find the genotypes

b)

2

c)

3

d)

1

80.

What do you need to know to determine the distance between two genes on a map?

a)

If they are contrasting traits

b)

Recombination Frequency

c)

Genetic Linkage

d)

If they are absolutely linked

81.

Translation occurs in the _____

a)

Nucleus

b)

Amino acids

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide membrane

82.

5' ... A T G G C C T G G A C T T C A ... 3'

is a ______ strand

a)

mRNA

b)

sense strand

c)

anti-sense strand

d)

polypeptide

83.

3' ... T A C C G G A C C T G A A G T ...5'

is a _____ strand.

a)

tRNA

b)

Anti-sense strand

c)

Sense strand

d)

mRNA

84.

5' ... A U G G C C U G G A C U U C A... 3'

is a ______ strand.

a)

anti-sense

b)

sense strand

c)

tRNA

d)

mRNA

85.

Genetic distances are determined by recombination frequencies.

Closer together- (a)   frequent

86.

increase in the activity of a gene to produce more product

a)

Charged

b)

Neutrality

c)

Gain-of-function-

d)

Loss-of-function

87.

An allele whose activity or product antagonizes the activity of the normal product. (dominant)

a)

Null allele

b)

Antimorph

c)

Hypermorph

d)

Neomorph

88.

Which blood group is an example of a co-dominant phenotype?

a)

OO

b)

AO

c)

AB

d)

BO

89.

What are the antibodies' (acceptors) for the A & B antigens?

a)

anti-A

b)

none

c)

A & B

d)

anti-B

90.

____ is null for the A/B carbohydrate

a)

AO

b)

AB

c)

O

d)

BO

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