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Midterm: signs and symptoms practice

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Shortness of breath, especially when lying down

a)

Cough

b)
Hyperventilation
c)
Tachypnea
d)
Orthopnea
2.

Difficult or labored breathing; shortness of breath

a)
hyperventilation
b)
asthma
c)
dyspnea
d)
coughing
3.

Sort the signs and symptoms with the type of heart failure

Categorize the following

Jugular vein distension

Orthopnea

Peripheral edema

Pulmonary edema

Coughing

Hepatomegaly

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

Ascites

Crackles in the lungs

Left heart failure
Right heart failure
4.

Patient presents with symptoms of pulmonary edema, including paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND), orthopnea, and cough.

a)

Left ventricular heart failure

b)

Right ventricular heart failure

c)

Angina pectoris

d)

Endocarditis

5.

Patient presents with symptoms of peripheral edema, including jugular neck vein distension (JND), swelling in feet, and hepatomegaly.

a)

Left ventricular heart failure

b)

Right ventricular heart failure

c)

Angina pectoris

d)

Endocarditis

6.

Which symptom is indicative of left-ventricular heart failure?

a)

chest heaviness

b)

jugular vein distension (JVD)

c)

chest pain that radiates to the shoulder, arm, and jaw

d)

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)

7.

Which symptom is indicative of right-ventricular heart failure?

a)

chest heaviness

b)

jugular vein distension (JVD)

c)

chest pain that radiates to the shoulder, arm, and jaw

d)

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)

8.

Which signs/symptoms are indicative of myocardial infarction?
(select ALL correct answers)

a)

Jugular vein distention

b)

Diaphoresis

c)

Chest pain that lasts more than an hour

d)

Expectoration

9.

Rhonchi and wheezing upon auscultation

a)

acute rhinitis

b)

acute bronchitis

c)

meningitis

d)

systemic lupus erythematosus

10.

Increase in the anteroposterior diameter of the chest wall resembling the shape of a barrel (barrel chest)

a)

Emphysema

b)

Bronchial asthma and bronchitis

c)

Type I hypersensitivity

d)

Rheumatoid arthritis

11.

Absence of breath sounds during auscultation

a)

Angina pectoris

b)

Pneumothorax

c)

Asthma

d)

Barrel chest

12.

Urticaria, nasal and conjunctival discharge, bronchial asthma, and allergic gastroenteritis

a)

Type I hypersensitivity

b)

Type II hypersensitivity

c)

Type IIII hypersensitivity

d)

Type IV hypersensitivity

13.

Which is a classic sign/symptom of a type I hypersensitivity?

a)

Orthopnea

b)

Jugular vein distension

c)

Urticaria

d)

Hemoptysis

14.

Red "butterfly" rash across the cheeks and nose.

a)

DiGeorge Syndrome

b)

Rheumatoid arthritis

c)

Antiphospholipid syndrome

d)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

15.

Sore throat, fever, trouble swallowing, shortness of breath, abdominal pain.
Reed-Sternberg cells are present upon biopsy.

a)

Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma

b)

Hodgkin's Lymphoma

c)

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

d)

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

16.

3 year old patient presents with frequent infections, diarrhea, and fatigue.
Which white blood cell cancer is most likely?

a)

Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma

b)

Hodgkin's Lymphoma

c)

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

d)

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

17.

Shock (severe hypotension), confusion, tachycardia, and scant or no urine output.

a)

Anemia of acute blood loss

b)

Anemia of chronic blood loss

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma

18.

Petechiae and bleeding from gums.

a)

Anemia of acute blood loss

b)

Sickle cell anemia

c)

Antiphospholipid syndrome

d)

Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)

19.

Most common anemia worldwide

a)

Anemia of acute blood loss

b)

Sickle cell anemia

c)

Iron-deficiency anemia

d)

Pernicious anemia

20.

Patient presents with pallor, fatigue, shortness of breath, dizziness, and has desire to eat non-food items (pica).

a)

Anemia of acute blood loss

b)

Sickle cell anemia

c)

Iron-deficiency anemia

d)

Pernicious anemia

21.

Usual signs and symptoms of anemia include (select ALL that apply)

a)

Pallor

b)

Fatigue

c)

Dizziness

d)

Hypertension

e)

Easy bruising

22.

Vaso-occlusive crisis including severe pain in multiple sites due to tissue hypoxia in various body organs

a)

Sickle cell anemia

b)

Immune thrombocytopenic purpura

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Erythroblastosis Fetalis

23.

Signs and symptoms include lethargy, cognitive impairment, and characteristic “cherry red spot” on the retina.
Genetic disorder that usually results in death before the age of 3.

a)
Huntington's disease
b)
Cystic fibrosis
c)
Sickle cell anemia
d)
Tay-Sachs disease
24.

Genetic condition that causes chronic cough, upper respiratory infections, and GI disturbances.

a)

Sickle Cell Anemia

b)

Down Syndrome

c)

Tay-Sachs Disease

d)

Cystic Fibrosis

25.

Genetic disorder with signs and symptoms that include lack of control of movements (chorea), cognitive decline, depression, and dementia.

a)

Cystic Fibrosis

b)
Huntington's disease
c)

Tay-Sachs Disease

d)

Down Syndrome

26.

Initially presents with "lockjaw" and then generalized muscle spasms with uncontrollable, rigid arching of the back may occur.

a)

Shingles

b)

Walking pneumonia

c)

Chickenpox

d)

Tetanus

27.

Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in a biopsy sample

a)

Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma

b)

Hodgkin's Lymphoma

c)

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

d)

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

28.

Match the symptom with the most likely disease/disorder

a)

Butterfly rash over cheeks and nose

1.

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

b)

Jugular vein distension (JVD)

2.

Right-side heart failure

c)

Pica

3.

Iron-deficiency anemia

d)

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND)

4.

Left-side heart failure

e)

Petechiae

5.

Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)

29.

Match the symptom with the most likely disease/disorder

a)

Decreased consciousness

1.

Anemia of acute blood loss

b)

Lockjaw

2.

Tetanus

c)

Chorea (uncontrollable dance-like movements)

3.

Huntington's Disease

d)

Urticaria

4.

Type I hypersensitivity (allergies)

e)

Haemophilus Influenzae infection

5.

Meningitis

30.

Match the symptom with the most likely disease/disorder

a)

Peripheral edema, especially in the legs and feet

1.

Right-side heart failure

b)

Chest pain that is managed with medication

2.

Angina pectoris

c)

Sudden onset chest pain that is indicative of permanent tissue damage

3.

Myocardial infarction

d)

Decreased urinary output

4.

Left-side heart failure

e)

Rhonchi and wheezing on auscultation

5.

Acute bronchitis

31.

Which infectious disease is characterized by painful muscle stiffness and muscle spasms?

a)
Influenza
b)
Malaria
c)
Tetanus
d)
Cholera
32.

Muscle paralysis is a characteristic sign of which infectious disease?

a)
Influenza
b)
Measles
c)

Botulism

d)
Tuberculosis
33.

Signs and symptoms of this genetic disorder include tremors and involuntary movements that become worse over time, and eventually progress to behavioral changes.

a)
Parkinson's disease
b)
Huntington's disease
c)
Multiple sclerosis
d)
Alzheimer's disease
34.

The signs and symptoms of this genetic disorder include progressive deterioration of mental and physical ability in newborns. Life expectancy is 3-5 years of age.

a)
Sickle cell anemia
b)
Tay-Sachs disease
c)
Huntington's disease
d)
Cystic fibrosis
35.

Select all of the diseases that are most commonly caused by bacterial infections

a)

Candidiasis

b)

Community-acquired pneumonia

c)

Malaria

d)

Botulsim

e)

Mononucleosis

36.

Antibiotics are used to treat ​ (a)   infections.

Choose from the below words
bacterial
viral
fungal
37.

Match the terms and definitions

a)

Abnormal connection between two structures

1.

Fistula

b)

White blood cells

2.

Leukocytes

c)

Bacteria that causes tetanus

3.

clostridium tetanus

d)

Something found during a physical or lab test

4.

Sign

e)

The cause of a disease

5.

Etiology

38.

Genetic disorder characterized by increased mucus production in the lungs, which restricts airways and increases risk of respiratory infections.

a)
Bronchitis
b)
Pneumonia
c)
Asthma
d)
Cystic fibrosis
39.

Sort the phases of wound healing in order

a)

Hemostasis

b)

Inflammation

c)

Proliferation

d)

Wound contracture and remodeling

1)
2)
3)
4)
40.

Increase in white blood cell count; can be as a result of inflammation.

a)

Hemolysis

b)

Leukopenia

c)

Leukocytosis

d)

Hyperleukocytes

41.

Match the cellular adapation with its description

a)

Hypertrophy

1.

Increased cell size

b)

Atrophy

2.

Decreased cell size

c)

Hyperplasia

3.

Increase in cell number

d)

Dysplasia

4.

Abnormal cell growth

e)

Metaplasia

5.

Transformation of one cell type into another

42.

What kind(s) of cellular adaptations increase the risk of cancer? Select ALL correct answers.

a)

Hyperplasia

b)

Dysplasia

c)

Metaplasia

d)

Atrophy

43.

Sort the stages of acute inflammation in order

a)

Vascular permeability

b)

Cellular chemotaxis

c)

Systemic responses

1)
2)
3)
44.

Phase of acute inflammation where inflammatory mediators cause blood vessels to dilate and become more permeable.

a)

Vascular permeability

b)

Cellular chemotaxis

c)

Systemic responses

45.

Phase of acute inflammation where chemical signals attract platelets and other white blood cells to the site of injury

a)

Vascular permeability

b)

Cellular chemotaxis

c)

Systemic responses

46.

Phase of acute inflammation involving whole-body symptoms, such as fever, pain, and swollen lymph nodes.

a)

Vascular permeability

b)

Cellular chemotaxis

c)

Systemic responses

47.

A labratory-produced image that is used to diagnose chromosomal abnormalities.

a)

Chromosomal microarray analysis

b)

PCR

c)

Chromatography

d)

Karyotype

48.

This cellular adaptation often occurs in response to repeated environmental stressors, such as toxins.

a)

Hypertrophy

b)

Atrophy

c)

Metaplasia

d)

Hyperplasia

49.

Cellular adaptation in response to decreased metabolic demand, for example because of prolonged bed rest.

a)
Atrophy
b)
Hypertrophy
c)
Hyperplasia
d)
Metaplasia
50.

Match the pathogen to the infectious disease

a)

Clostridium tetani

1.

Tetanus

b)

Epstein-Barr Virus

2.

Mononucleosis

c)

Clostridium botulinum

3.

Botulism

d)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

4.

Community-acquired pneumonia

e)

Staphylococcus aureus

5.

MRSA infection

51.

Biopsy finds presences of abnormal cells called Reed-Sternberg cells

a)

Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

b)

Acute myeloid leukemia

c)
Hodgkin's lymphoma
d)

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

52.

Match the cancer to the type of white blood cell that affected

a)

Abnormal B cells (Reed-Sternberg cells)

1.

Hodgkin's Lymphoma

b)

Proliferation of precursor B cells

2.

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

c)

Proliferation of precursor B cells or precursor T cells (lymphoid stem cells)

3.

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

d)

Cancer of T cells, B cells, or NK cells

4.

Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma

53.

Reed-Sternberg cells are abnormal ​ (a)   that are characteristic of ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
B cells
Hodgkin's Lymphoma
Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma
T cells
NK cells
54.

Cancer caused by proliferation of precursor B cells, that do not differentiate into mature B cells.

Patients are often asymptomatic at the time of presentation.

a)

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

b)

Hodgkin's Lymphoma

c)

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

d)

Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma

55.

Aggressive cancer caused by proliferation of stem cell precursors of T or B cells.

More common in children than adults.

a)

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

b)

Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

c)

Hodgkin's Lymphoma

d)

Non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma

56.

Characteristic sign of Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

a)

Bullseye rash

b)

Heberden's nodes

c)

Butterfly rash on face

d)

Jaundice

57.

Match the diesease/disorder to the type of hypersensitivity

a)

Type I hypersensitivity

1.

Allergies

b)

Type II hypersensitivity

2.

Blood transfusion reactions

c)

Type III hypersensitivity

3.

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

d)

Type IV hypersensitivity

4.

Contact dermatitis

58.

A patient presents with a butterfly rash across the bridge of nose and cheeks, fever, joint pain, and fatigue. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)
Multiple sclerosis
b)
Rheumatoid arthritis
c)
Fibromyalgia
d)
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
59.

Immunodeficiency characterized by recurrent respiratory infections suchs as bronchitis, sinusitis, and/or pneumonia.

a)

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease

b)

DiGeorge Syndrome

c)

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome

d)

Selective IgA deficiency

60.

A 6-week-old infant presents with a history of many different kinds of infections and failure to thrive.

a)

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Disease

b)

DiGeorge Syndrome

c)

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome

d)

Selective IgA deficiency

61.

Select ALL of the signs/symptoms that are common for all types of anemia

a)

Pallor

b)

Fatigue

c)

Shortness of breath

d)

Dizziness

e)

Easy bruising

62.

A substantial decrease in blood volume, such as after traumatic injury, is most likely to cause what kind of anemia?

a)

Hemolytic anemia

b)

Iron-deficiency anemia

c)

Pernicious anemia

d)

Anemia of acute blood loss

63.

A patient has anemia with extremely low blood pressure. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Hemolytic anemia

b)

Iron-deficiency anemia

c)

Pernicious anemia

d)

Anemia of acute blood loss

64.

Signs and symptoms of this type of anemia can include hair loss, ice eating, cheilitis (red, chapped corners of the mouth), glossitis (inflammation of the tongue), and spoon-shaped nails

a)

Vitamin C-deficiency anemia

b)

Calcium-deficiency anemia

c)

Iron-deficiency anemia

d)

Zinc-deficiency anemia

65.

This sign can be indicitive of hemolytic anemia

a)

Ice eating

b)

Butterfly rash

c)
Jaundice
d)
Fever
66.

Which is an example of a hemolytic anemia?

a)

Anemia of acute blood loss

b)

Iron-deficiency anemia

c)

Erythroblastosis Fetalis

d)

Pernicious anemia

67.

Sudden onset of petechiae and purpura, usually following a viral infection.

a)

Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

b)

Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

c)

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

d)
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
68.

All of these are signs/symptoms of myocardial infarciton.

Match the terms to the definitions.

a)

Diaphoresis

1.

Sweating

b)

Dyspnea

2.

Shortness of breath

c)

Levine's Sign

3.

Clenching fist over chest

d)

Pallor

4.

Pale appearance

69.

A patient presents with dyspnea, extreme anxiety, diaphoresis, and radiating chest pain. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a)
Myocardial infarction
b)
Pneumonia
c)

Heart failure

d)

Pneumothorax

70.

Necrotic death of tissue due to inadequate blood supply

a)
Apoptosis
b)

Ischemia

c)

Infarction

d)
Gangrene
71.

Select all of the signs/symptoms that are indicitive of myocardial infarction

a)

Levine's sign

b)

Diaphoresis

c)

Absence of breath sounds on one side

d)

Weak pulses

e)

Persistant cough

72.

Absence of breath sounds on ausculation is a sign of...

a)

COPD

b)

Bronchitis

c)

Asthma

d)

Pneumothorax

73.

Signs and symptoms include localized lymphadenopathy (swollen lymph nodes), wheezing, and persistant cough with clear, yellow, or green sputum.

a)

Asthma

b)

Acute bronchitis

c)

Pneumonia

d)

Pleural effusion

74.

Accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal space

a)
Ascites
b)
Hemoptysis
c)
Pleural effusion
d)
Edema
75.

Elevated levels of Cardiac Troponin I (cTnI) in the blood.

a)

Myocardial infarction

b)

Atrial fibrilation

c)

Infective endocarditis

d)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

76.

​ (a)   is an abnormal or irregular heartbeat.

Examples include ​ (b)   , which is the lack of coordinated atrial contractions,

and ​ (c)   , which is a life-threatening quivering of the ventricles.

Choose from the below words
Dysrhythmia
Atrial fibrillation
Ventricular fibrillation
77.

Chest pain that worsens with excercise, but is relieved by rest and mediacations.

a)
Stable angina
b)
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
c)
Acute myocardial infarction
d)

Heart failure

78.

What are the three components of Virchow's triad?

a)
Increased oxygen levels, blood vessel dilation, low blood pressure
b)
Dehydration, inflammation, infection
c)
High cholesterol, low platelet count, arterial stiffness
d)
Stasis of blood flow, endothelial injury, hypercoagulability
79.

Patients are prescribed anticoagulants after orthopedic surgery to avoid this potential complication.

a)
Cardiovascular disease
b)
Infection at the surgical site
c)
Joint stiffness after surgery
d)

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

80.

Crackles in the lungs upon auscultation are most indicative of what disease or disorder involving the heart?

a)

Endocarditis

b)

Unstable Angina

c)

Right Ventricular Heart Failure

d)

Left Ventricular Heart failure

81.

Signs or symptoms of heart failure due to increased hydrostatic pressure and edema

a)

Backwards effects

b)

Forwards effects

82.

Twisted, enlarged veins at the skin's surface

a)

Varicosity

b)
Aneurysm
c)
Deep vein thrombosis
d)

Atherosclerosis

83.

What are the lab assays PT (prothrombin time) and aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) used to assess?

a)

Blood clotting

b)

Plasma lipid levels

c)

Electrical activity of the heart

d)

Blood pressure in the legs compared to the arms

84.

What disorder could be treated with oral ferrous sulfate?

a)

Hodgkin's lymphoma

b)

Anemia of acute blood loss

c)

Iron-deficiency anemia

d)

Unstable angina

85.

Match the blood disorder with the description

a)

Decreased hemoglobin concentration

1.

Anemia

b)

Decreased number of platelets

2.

Thrombocytopenia

c)

Blood clot, often in the legs

3.

Deep vein thrombosis

d)

Prolonged prothrombin time (PT)

4.

Coagulation factor deficiency