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Part 1 Lecture Review Summer 2025 Update

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What process coats the antigen with antibody to make it more likely to be phagocytosed?
a)
opsonization
b)
blanketing
c)
immunization
d)
framing
2.

Match the following types of cells with their primary function.

a)

cytotoxic T cells

1.

Kill cancer cells and infected cells

b)

B cells

2.

Produce antibodies

c)

mast cells

3.

Play a key role in allergic reactions

d)

eosinophils

4.

Combat parasites

3.

Which type of immunity has memory?

a)

innate

b)

adaptive/acquired

4.
What cell type does HIV target?
a)
cytotoxic T cells
b)
helper T cells
c)
B cells
d)
neutrophils
5.
Which branch of immunity involves B cells?
a)
Cell-mediated
b)
Humoral
6.
A molecule that induces an immune response?
a)
antibody
b)
receptor
c)
antigen
d)
sebum
7.
Which line of defense includes the skin, sweat, mucous membranes, and normal microbiota?
a)
First
b)
Second
c)
Third
8.
Where do T cells mature?
a)
bone marrow
b)
thymus
c)
brain
d)
thyroid
9.

Liz notices that shortly after cutting her arm accidentally, the area around the cut is turning red and feeling hot. Which immune system defense is Liz experiencing?

a)

inflammation

b)

white blood cell clotting

c)

skin

d)

fever

10.
What do B cells produce?
a)
antigens
b)
macrophages
c)
T cells
d)
antibodies
11.

Match the following molecules with their primary function in cell communication.

a)

Cytokines

1.

Involved in immune responses, mediating and regulating immunity, inflammation, and hematopoiesis

b)

Chemokines

2.

Specialized in chemotaxis, guiding the movement of cells towards sites of infection or inflammation

c)

Antigens

3.

Substances that can induce an immune response

d)

White blood cell

4.

Part of the immune system, helping to protect the body from infection and disease

12.

Attack the infected host cell, instead of pathogens.

a)

NK cells

b)

Phagocytes

c)

Mast cells

d)

Granulocytes

13.

This image shows

a)

that the second time you are exposed you make more antibodies

b)

the communication between macrophage and Helper T

c)

that an enzyme speeds up chemical reactions

d)

The bike route Mr. Coyne does at lunch

14.

Antigens are

a)

the proteins made by the B cell to fight infections

b)

the proteins on an organism that trigger the immune system to respond

15.

Match the following types of white blood cells with their correct description.

a)

agranulocytes

1.

WBC's without granules; include lymphocytes and monocytes

b)

erythrocytes

2.

Red blood cells

c)

granulocytes

3.

granule-containing WBC's; include neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

d)

leukocytes

4.

All types of white blood cells

16.

ability of WBC to slip into and out of blood vessels

a)

positive chemotaxis

b)

diapedesis

c)

ameboid motion

d)

hematocrit

17.

Match the following types of WBCs with their characteristics.

a)

basophils

1.

Rarest of WBC; contain histamine-containing granules

b)

eosinophils

2.

Contain large cytoplasmic granules; typically stain red/orange with eosin dye

c)

neutrophils

3.

Most abundant; first responders to bacterial infection

d)

monocytes

4.

Largest of the WBCs; differentiate into macrophages

18.

Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation?

a)

redness

b)

heat

c)

swelling

d)

fever

19.

Fever is one physiological response that our body uses to inhibit pathogens. What is the part of the brain affected by pyrogens to stimulate fever?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Anterior Hypophysis

d)

Hypothalamus

20.

In fever, the body's internal/core temperature is increased to

a)

Increase the rate at which immune cells can function

b)

Reduce the growth of microbes

c)

Both of the above

21.

This diagram is outlining the process of...

a)

Fever

b)

Blood clotting

c)

Phagocytosis

d)

Inflammation

22.

What is the function of antibodies within the immune system?

a)

Antibodies kill off any antigen that enters the body.

b)

Antibodies are only made when you are given a vaccination for specific antigens.

c)

Antibodies bind to specific antigens to flag them for destruction.

d)

Antibodies are part of an external defense mechanism.

23.

Match the following antibodies with the correct description of their primary function or characteristic.

a)

Ig G

1.

Antibody that can move thru the placenta

b)

Ig A

2.

Main antibody type found in mucous secretions

c)

Ig M

3.

First antibody to reach the site of infection

d)

Ig E

4.

Involved in allergy and antiparasitic responses

24.

What is Herd Immunity?

a)

When a group of animals become immune to an illness

b)

The number of people someone with an infection can possibly spread the illness to

c)

Becoming immune to a vaccine and having it not work

d)

When a large amount of people protect those who haven't gotten vaccinated

25.

Match the following types of immunity with their correct descriptions.

a)

Natural Passive Immunity

1.

Immunity acquired by a child through mother's milk

b)

Natural Active Immunity

2.

Immunity that occurs when a person's own immune system produces antibodies in response to the presence of a pathogen when a person gets sick

c)

Artificial Active Immunity

3.

Immunity that occurs through vaccines

26.

When the immune system of a person starts to attack their own body cells that it's supposed to protect, this can be classified as

a)

immune disorder

b)

autoimmune disease

c)

multiple sclerosis

d)

rheumatoid arthritis

27.

Match the following hypersensitivity reactions with their examples.

a)

Type I

1.

Bronchial Asthma (IgE and histamine)

b)

Type II

2.

Hemolytic anemia (IgG or IgM mediated cell destruction)

c)

Type III

3.

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (Immune complex mediated)

d)

Type IV

4.

Contact Dermatitis (T-cell mediated)

28.

What is the role of complement proteins?

a)

A complement of proteins that cause the influx of gastric secretions to digest large particles of chyme.

b)

Activate other proteins in a domino fashion resulting in a cascade of reactions which attract phagocytes.

c)

Proteins that increase Vital Capacity (VC), which is the maximum amount of air that can be expired after taking the deepest breath.

d)

Protein bars that provide energy when a Red Bull energy drink just does not help enough.

29.

What is the term for the engulfment and digestion of pathogens by immune cells?

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Phagocytosis

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Pinocytosis

30.

What are the two groups of the immune system?

a)

Acquired and Innate

b)

Acquired and Learned

c)

External and Internal

d)

Complex and Simple

31.

Your respiratory tract, gastrointestinal tract, mucous membranes, and lesions/cuts/abrasions (skin) can all be considered:

a)

Reservoirs

b)

Portals of entry/ exit

c)

Fomites

d)

None of the above

32.

Pathogenicity is

a)

The degree in a microorganism

b)

When the microbe is in a party

c)

The ability to cause disease

d)

None

33.

Identify the given structure

a)

antigen

b)

antibody

c)

hormone

d)

MHC

34.

Inflammation

a)

causes reduced blood circulation to the damaged/infected area

b)

brings more phagocytes to the damaged/infected area

c)

releases Natural Killer cells

d)

produces antibodies

35.

Interferons

a)

cause vasodilation

b)

cause cell lysis

c)

cause antiviral proteins to be made in uninfected cells

d)

activate the complement cascade

36.

Chemical that causes the blood vessels around the infection to dilate (expand) so that more blood can flow to the infection

a)

Stomach acid

b)

Mucus

c)

Epithelial cells

d)

Histamines

37.

What is phagocytosis?

a)

WBCs

b)

When a cells eat other cells

c)

When a cell collapses

d)

When a cell releases nutrients

38.

The most inclusive set of symptoms of inflammation is ________.

a)

heat, pain, and redness

b)

pain and whitening of the surrounding tissue

c)

swelling and pain

d)

swelling, heat, redness, and pain

39.

Which of the following are outcomes of activation of the complement system? (select all that apply)

a)

Activation of T cells

b)

More inflammation

c)

Restriction of phagocytosis

d)

Lysis of a target cell

e)

bring more phagocytes to the area

40.

Lysozymes found in your tears, saliva, and blood are most effective against

a)

Viruses

b)

Bacteria

c)

Fungi

d)

Protozoans

41.

Which of the following bacteria is more susceptible to the membrane attack complex (MAC):

a)

Gram negative

b)

Gram positive

c)

Mycolic acid

42.

The protective protein of the epidermis that aids in waterproofing the skin, hair, and nails is termed _______.

a)

keratin

b)

dermis

c)

adipose

d)

actin

43.

Glycoprotein responsible for keeping membranes moist and trapping microbes:

a)

Tears

b)

Blood

c)

Mucus

d)

Lysozyme

44.

Immunity that you are born with:

a)

adaptive

b)

innate

45.

Immunity that you aquire throughout your lifetime:

a)

adaptive

b)

innate

46.

Phagocytes digest microbes within a:

a)

lysosome

b)

phagocyte

c)

phagolysosome

d)

vacuole

47.

What is a tight junction?

a)

When the space between cells are closer together than they normally should be

b)

A chemical reaction

c)

A specialized connection of two adjacent animal cell membranes that prevents substances from passing through

48.
This junction allows communication between two cells with adjoining plasma membrane channels.
a)
Desmosomes
b)
TIght Junctions
c)
Gap Junctions
d)
Plasmodesmata
49.

Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria both utilize __________________ as a method of adhesion.

a)

Fimbriae

b)

MSCRAMMS

c)

Pili

d)

Afimbriae

50.

Protein that is released by bacteria and pokes holes in host cell membranes.

a)

Invasin

b)

Coagulase

c)

Cadherin

d)

Perforin

51.

Pyrogens cause:

a)

Vomiting

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Fever

d)

Itching

52.

Ergot is a hallucinogenic toxin released by some:

a)

Fungi

b)

Prion

c)

Virus

d)

Bacteria

53.

Allow the digestion of blood clots:

a)

Coagulases

b)

Collagenase

c)

Hyaluronidase

d)

Kinases

54.

Which of the following are both portals of entry and exit.

a)

Gastrointestinal tract

b)

Mucus membranes

c)

Skin

d)

All of these

55.

The ability to cause disease by overcoming host defenses is termed __________, whereas ____________ is the degree to which the pathogen overcomes host defenses.

a)

pathogenicity; virulence

b)

virulence; pathogenicity

56.

The _____measures the potency of a microbe’s toxin, whereas the _____ measures a microbe’s overall virulence.

a)

LD50; ID50

b)

ID50; LD50

57.

_______________are proteins secreted by pathogens that scavenge iron deposits from host cells.

a)

MSCRAMMS

b)

Siderophores

c)

Fimbriae

d)

Bacteriocins

58.

When a pathogen alters its PAMPs and is no longer recognized by host antibodies, _____________ has occurred.

a)

Conversion

b)

Affinity

c)

Immunity

d)

Antigenic variation

59.

To cause disease, pathogens must first:

a)

Enter the host

b)

Adhere to host tissues

c)

Penetrate or evade host defenses

d)

Damage the host tissues

e)

Exit from the host

60.

Exotoxins are only found in G- bacteria.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Endotoxins are only found in G- cells.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

The presence of "mycotoxin" indicates that a patient has a _____ infection.

a)

bacterial

b)

fungal

c)

protozoal

d)

viral

63.

If a patient has toxemia, where have toxins been found?

a)

blood

b)

lymph

c)

skin

d)

brain

64.

The ID50 for Campylobacter sp. is 500 cells; the ID50 for Cryptosporidium sp. is 100 cells. Which of the following statements is not true?

a)

Both microbes are pathogens.

b)

Both microbes produce infections in 50% of the inoculated hosts.

c)

Cryptosporidium is more virulent than Campylobacter.

d)

Campylobacter and Cryptosporidium are equally virulent; they cause infections in the same number of test animals.

e)

The severity of infections caused by Campylobacter and Cryptosporidium cannot be determined by the information provided.

65.

Exerts its effect when the bacterium dies

a)

exotoxin

b)

endotoxin

c)

neurotoxin

d)

cytotoxin

66.
Which type of disease spread is called "zoonotic"?
a)
Through contaminated soil
b)
Person-to-person
c)
Animal-to-Person
d)
Through a vector
67.

An infection acquired by an individual in a healthcare facility.

a)

endogenous

b)

exogenous

c)

nosocomial

d)

opportunistic

68.

David noticed some physical or psychological changes after getting sick. What are these changes called?

a)

symptoms

b)

transmission

c)

treatment

d)

prevention

69.

In general, what is the common mechanism of action of antifungals?

a)

stop cell wall synthesis

b)

stop protein synthesis

c)

stop nucleic acid synthesis

d)

they target sterols in the plasma membrane

70.

Selective toxicity means that

a)

the drug kills only a small subset of microbes

b)

the drug kills bacteria but not helminths

c)

the drug kills microbes but is not harmful to the host

d)

the drug can be used at a wide range of concentrations

71.

It is most difficult to find a drug with selective toxicity when

a)

the microbe is prokaryotic

b)

the microbe is a bacteria

c)

the microbe has been newly discovered

d)

the microbe has many cellular similarities to human cells

72.

Over half of the antibiotics are made by

a)

bacteria

b)

fungi

c)

helminths

d)

protozoa

73.

Which of the following are mechanisms of action of antimicrobial drugs (choose all that apply)

a)

damaging the plasma membrane

b)

inhibit nucleic acid synthesis

c)

altering cell surface receptors on the bacteria

d)

inhibit metabolic pathways

74.

Bacteria become resistant to Penicillin when:

a)

they have enzymes that break B-lactam rings

b)

have enzymes that reinforce B-lactam rings

c)

develop a membrane within their cell wall

d)

Phagocytose the drug

75.

This antibiotic works by interfering with bacteria's ability to copy their DNA. This stops them from reproducing.

a)

Tetracyclines

b)

Penicillin (beta-lactam)

c)

Fluoriquinolones

d)

Sulfa antibiotics (sulfonamids)

76.

This antibiotic works by interfering with an B vitamin (folate) that bacteria require to survive. They can't reproduce or grow well without that vitamin.

a)

Tetracyclines

b)

Penicillin (beta-lactam)

c)

Fluoriquinolones

d)

Sulfa antibiotics (sulfonamids)

77.

What is communicable?

a)

spread of disease or infection from person to person with (in)direct contact

b)

spread of disease or infection by viruses communicating with each other

c)

communicating to your physician the need for a physical

d)

spread of infectious people by bacteria communicating with other bacteria

78.

How are protein synthesis-inhibiting antibiotics selectively toxic?

a)

The eukaryotic RNA polymerase is structurally different from prokaryotic.

b)

Eukaryotes do not need to synthesize proteins.

c)

The eukaryotic ribosome is structurally different from prokaryotic.

d)

Eukaryotes use a completely different mechanism to synthesize proteins.

79.

Drugs that block protein synthesis would mostly like effect

a)

cell wall

b)

ribosomes

c)

DNA

d)

capsule

80.

Drug that competes with normal substrate for enzyme's active site is

a)

competitive inhibition

b)

synergistic effect

c)

selectively toxic