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Fire Inspector Part 2

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The procedure, in order, to perform a main drain test is 1) Record the static pressure, 2) Open fully (slowly) the main drain, 3) Record the flow pressure, 4) Close the drain slowly

a)

The procedure is correct

b)

The procedure is not correct

2.

What time of the year is prefeable for the performance of trip tests?

a)

Spring

b)

Summer

c)

Fall

d)

Winter

3.

How often should the main drain test be conducted?

a)

Bi-weekly

b)

Weekly

c)

Quarterly

d)

Annually

4.

What tyoe of quick-opening device speeds the release of air from the system?

a)

Dry-pipe exhauster

b)

Dry-pipe accelerator

c)

Pipe blower

d)

Pneumatic accelerator

5.

The required air pressure for dry-pipe systems above trip pressure is ____ psi.

a)

5

b)

7

c)

10

d)

20

6.

On what type of fire is a Halon extinguishing system most effective?

a)

Class A

b)

Class A and Class D

c)

Class B and Class C

d)

Class D

7.

A wet chemical system is most effective on fires caused by which of the following?

a)

Lightning

b)

Smoldering paper

c)

Electrical sparks

d)

Cooking hazards

8.

High expansion foam is hazardous due to:

a)

Toxicity

b)

Poisonous nature

c)

Lack of visibility

d)

All options

9.

What type of automatic alarm-initiating device is considered to be among the oldest types of fire detection systems in use but are also the slowest of all of the different types of alarm initiating systems to activate? These devices are placed in high areas of a room, generally on the ceiling and detect heat by either the expansion or melting of heated material or the changes in resistance of the heated material.

a)

Rate of rise heat detectors

b)

Fixed-temperature heat detectors

c)

Smoke detectors

d)

Photoelectric smoke dector

10.

What type of heat detector functions on the principle that the ambient temperature within a room will increase faster from fire than from normal atmospheric temperature?

a)

Continuous line detector

b)

Smoke detector

c)

A rate-of-rise heat detector

d)

Fixed-temperature heat detector

11.

Which heat detector operates on the principle of the differing thermal expansion rates of dissimilar metals?

a)

Fusible device

b)

Thermoelectric detector

c)

Continuous line detector

d)

Bimetallic

12.

Which of the following types of actions are considered to be necessary for the fire inspector to fulfill their responsibilites, for which fire inspectors are not generally held liable?

a)

Ministerial acts

b)

Discretionary acts

c)

Both Ministerial and Discretionary acts

d)

Neither of these

13.

What type of action is described by the manner in which a fire inspector performs an act or enforces a policy?

a)

Ministerial actions

b)

Discretionary actions

c)

Both types of actions

d)

Neither of these actions

14.

A fire inspector should be familar with the Board of Appeals and the appeals process with emphasis on which of the following?

a)

Whether or not further action is required (is this a general or one-tim variance)

b)

Can the fire inspector continue to enforce the codes on the property during the appeal process?

c)

If the property owner wins the appeal, how will that affect the fire inspector when enforcing that particular section of the fire code or ordinance for other property owners in the future.

d)

All three of these options

15.

When a federal agancy has established standards in a particular region, who is generally responsible for enforcing those standards

a)

The Consumer Risk Services

b)

The federal agency that established the standards

c)

The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

d)

The fire inspectors of each fire department in that region

16.

The contents of a report should

a)

Inform

b)

Analyze

c)

Recommend

d)

All three options

17.

Carbon steel is not used to store cryogenic liquids because it becomes too brittle at these temperatures (-130 degrees F).

a)

True

b)

False

18.

The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system described by which of the following?

a)

Numbers zero (0) to four (4)

b)

Numbers one (1) to five (5)

c)

Letters "A" to "E"

d)

Numbers ten (10) to fifteen (15)

19.

If liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) containers are located in the same vicinity as flammable or combustible liquid storage tanks, how much space should be separating the gas containers and storage tanks?

a)

At least 18 inches

b)

At least 3 feet

c)

At least 10 feet

d)

At least 20 feet

20.

Horizontal tanks should be at least ___ feet apart

a)

3

b)

6

c)

12

d)

20

21.

Horizontal tanks containing Class I,II, or Class IIIA liquids, the distances between the tanks must be at least...

a)

3 feet

b)

6 feet

c)

one-sixth the sum of their diameters

d)

24 feet

22.

When evaluating flammable and combustible liquid storage tanks, the size of the tank is relatively unimportant.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Wet chemical is:

a)

Sodium bicarbonate

b)

Potassium bicarbonate

c)

Potassium carbonate

d)

Sodium acetate

24.

What operating temperature is most common for sprinklers used in conditions of ordinary room temperatures?

a)

165 degrees Fahrenheit

b)

212 degrees Fahrenheit

c)

100 degrees Fahrenheit

d)

302 degrees Fahrenheit

25.

What component is often installed along with alarm check valves to prevent false alarms?

a)

Wet-pipe riser

b)

Retard chamber

c)

Pressure check valve

d)

Water motor gong

26.

What is the most common size of orifice used in automatic sprinklers?

a)

3/4 inch

b)

1/2 inch

c)

2 inch

d)

1 inch

27.

Standpipe systems are divided into zones when the height of a building exceeds what height

a)

100 feet

b)

275 feet

c)

500 feet

d)

125 feet

28.

When opening a PIV, the valve should be backed off ___ turn(s).

a)

1/4

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

29.

When does a carbon dioxide cylinder need refilling?

a)

A loss of 10% by weight

b)

A loss of 10 psi

c)

Every 10 years

d)

Every 6 years

30.

NFPA 17A and what other standard regulates wet chemical system?

a)

NFPA 30

b)

NFPA 70

c)

UL 300

d)

ASTM E-84

31.

How often should a dry standpipe system be hydrostatically tested?

a)

Every five years

b)

Annually

c)

Daily

d)

Monthly

32.

Which of the following signifies Class C fires under the letter-symbol indentification system?

a)

Red square

b)

Blue circle

c)

Green triangle

d)

Green circle

33.

How often, according to NFPA 10, should fire extinguishers be inspected?

a)

Weekly

b)

Monthly

c)

Bi-annually

d)

Annually

34.

What phenomenon allows a small amount of air pressure to keep a dry-pipe valve closed and hold the water back?

a)

Hydraulic pressure

b)

Gravity

c)

Differential principle

d)

Pressure acceleration

35.

What term is used to describe the vertical openings in a building that are allowed by code if they are equipped with adequate smoke control measures, fire barriers and automatic sprinkler protection?

a)

Plenums

b)

Horizontal openings

c)

Storage shafts

d)

Atriums

36.

Which of the following provides information for the construction of external walls, doors and windowsm internal partitioning, closets, cabinets, electrical outlets and ceiling and roof joists or trusses?

a)

The elevation view

b)

The site plan

c)

The floor plan

d)

The sectional view

37.

Also called cross-hatch lines, are thin lines usually drawn at a 45 degree angle.

a)

property

b)

hidden

c)

extension

d)

cutting-plane

e)

section

38.

They define edges and surfaces that are not visible in a particular view.

a)

property

b)

hidden

c)

extension

d)

cutting-plane

e)

section

39.

In an isometric drawing, lines that would appear horizontal in a an orthographic drawing are drawn at a _____ angle from the horizontal

a)

15 degrees

b)

30 degrees

c)

45 degrees

d)

60 degrees

40.

What is the maximum size for safety container when transporting flammable liquids?

a)

1 quart

b)

1 gallon

c)

5 gallons

d)

8 gallons

41.

The temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid is equal to the external pressure applied to it is the:

a)

Fire point

b)

Melting point

c)

Flash point

d)

Boiling point

42.

What is the device called that interrupts the airflow throughout all or part of an air-handling system automatically, usually activated by fusible links, in order to limit the flow of heat?

a)

A smoke damper

b)

A heat exchange duct barrier

c)

A fire damper

d)

A smoke damper and a heat exchange duct barrier

43.

Draft curtains are sometimes used in large areas of buildings that are not otherwise subdivided. The purpose of draft curtains is to:

a)

Limit the mushrooming effect of heat and smoke

b)

Help with the air-conditioning needs of the area

c)

Deflect hose streams into hard to reach areas

d)

Stop the spread of fire through a fire assembly

44.

Flammable liquid storage rooms shall have all of the following except:

a)

A raised door sill (4 inches)

b)

Joints between the floor and walls that are liquid-tight

c)

Walls have fire-resistive rating of two hours

d)

Heated by low pressure steam or approved electrical units

e)

When using Class I flammable liquids, provided with a ventilation of 125 cfm

45.

:: is the symbol for:

a)

Telephone poles

b)

Wells

c)

Grounding

d)

Outside storage tank

e)

Mathematical symbol for same as

46.

Fire Inspector A states that orthographic projection is a method in which different views of the subject are shown.

Fire Inspector B states that nearly all construction drawings are created using orthographic projection.

Fire Inspector C states that with an orthographic projection reference points are selected so that the views are perpendicular to one another.

Fire Inspector D states that with an orthographic projection each view is taken from a different reference point.

Who is right?

a)

Fire Inspector A

b)

Fire Inspector B

c)

Fire Inspector C

d)

Fire Inspector D

e)

All of the fire inspectors are correct

47.

On a foundation plan, footings are shown as:

a)

continuous lines

b)

hidden lines

c)

phantom lines

d)

dotted lines

48.

The design of a structure to use standard size building materials. In the customary system of measurement the module is 4". In the metric system, the recommended module is 100 millimeters

a)

Modular measurement

b)

Customary measurement

c)

Metric measurement

d)

Constructional measurement

49.

The Life Safety Code requires that the headroom shall not be less than ____ for at least 2/3ths of the ceiling area of any room or space.

a)

10 feet

b)

7 feet 6 inches

c)

6 feet 8 inches

d)

6 feet 6 inches

50.

A Class B existing ramp shall have a maximum slope of:

a)

1 in 8

b)

1 in 10

c)

1 in 12

d)

1 in 48

51.

In public assembly occupancy, may the means of egress be permitted through kitchens, storeroooms, restrooms, and closets?

a)

Yes

b)

No

52.

Every public assembly, > 1000 occupant load, must have ____ means of egress.

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

53.

What is the travel distance in an education occupany protected throughout by an approved, supervised automatic sprinkler system in accordance with Section 9.7?

a)

75 feet

b)

100 feet

c)

150 feet

d)

200 feet

54.

Do food preparation facilities in educational occupancies have to protect openings between food preparation areas and the dining areas>

a)

Yes

b)

No

55.

Which of the following areas, trash collection rooms, locker rooms, soiled linen rooms, and boiler rooms does not require a 1-hour separation/protection?

a)

Trash collection rooms

b)

Locker rooms

c)

Soiled linen rooms

d)

Boiler rooms

56.

In existing health care occupancies, any required aisle, corridor, or ramp, serving as means of egress from patient sleeping rooms shall be not less than _____ in clear width.

a)

44

b)

48

c)

96

d)

144

57.

In new apartment buildings, do closets less thank 12 square feet have to be sprinklered if they contain water heaters?

a)

Yes

b)

No

58.

Does an apartment building with more than three stories or with more than 11 dwelling units have to install a fire alarm system?

a)

Yes

b)

No

59.

Where is the annunciator panel connected with the fire alarm system located in an existing apartment building?

a)

At the fire department communication center

b)

At a central station

c)

At a remote location

d)

Location to be approved by the AHJ

60.

Lodging or rooming houses where the sleeping room is above or below the level of exit discharge, the primary means of escape shall be a (an):

a)

interior stair in accordance with 26.2.2

b)

exterior stair

c)

a horizontal exit in accordance with 7.2.4

d)

existing fire escape stair in accordance with 7.2.8

e)

all of these options are allowable

61.

Do seats in assembly occupancies accommodating more than 200 persons have to securely fasten to the floor?

a)

Yes

b)

No

62.

What is the travel distance to an exit in an unsprinklered high hazard storage?

a)

50 feet

b)

75 feet

c)

100 feet

d)

200 feet

63.

In health care occupancies, in buildings housing other occupancies, shall be separated from them with a fire barrier witn a ___ - hour rating.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

64.

If a day-care occupancy with more than 12 clients converts to a day-care home is this considered a change in occupancy?

a)

Yes

b)

No