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Unit 4 Quiz - Politics and Participation

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which best describes the difference between the Federalists and the Anti-Federalists?

a)

Federalists supported continued union with Great Britain and Anti-Federalists desired independence

b)

Federalists supported a strong connection between church and state and Anti-Federalist fought for greater religious tolerance

c)

Federalists were composed primarily of aristocrats and the Anti-Federalists were composed most of yeoman farmers

d)

Federalist supported having a strong central government and the Anti-Federalists favored to continue to allow states governments to dominate

2.

Which reason best explains why many Anti-Federalists finally agreed to the ratification of the U.S. Constitution?

a)

the addition of the Bill of Rights

b)

arguments by George Washington

c)

a desire to create a better relationship with the Federalists

d)

a fear that civil war would break out if the dispute were not settled

3.

What is the most likely reason that single-issue third parties in the United States have short life-spans?

a)

There are no “third parties” in the United States

b)

popular third-party goals eventually become planks in the platforms of the major parties

c)

The United States has steadily moved from a two-party system to a multiparty system.

d)

An increasing number of citizens have grown weary of party politics and fail to vote in elections

4.

Which statement best describes the evolution of political parties over the history of the United States?

a)

Most of the current US political parties have origins from the British political heritage

b)

The two main political parties dominate United States elections with occasional third party presence

c)

The United States has a multi-party system similar to Canada and many European nations

d)

The United States has not allowed political parties for fear of instability due to factionalism

5.

Which function of political parties BEST completes this list?


Role of Political Parties in Elections

• Select candidates

• Raise campaign funds

• Organize campaigns

• ???

a)

Establish precinct polling places

b)

Lobby for legislation

c)

Draw voting-district boundaries

d)

Hold nominating primaries

6.

Which statement BEST explains what typically occurs when third parties, such as the Green Party, gain popularity?

a)

The donations to campaign funds are more limited.

b)

Voter turnout for every party declines.

c)

The major party candidates often have votes taken away.

d)

Moderate voters are more likely to participate.

7.

"Democrats and Republicans Hold National Conventions"


Which role of a political party is BEST demonstrated by this headline?

a)

monitoring the government

b)

informing the public

c)

nominating candidates

d)

creating public policy

8.
a)

How have campaign finance laws affected third parties?

b)

Why do third parties often lack support from urban populations?

c)

How have third parties influenced the outcome of elections?

d)

Why do third parties often get left off ballots in national elections?

9.
a)

promote business interests in the government.

b)

encourage citizens to participate in the political process.

c)

prepare future political candidates for office.

d)

allow states to lobby for economic advantages.

10.

What is one major function of a political party?

a)

to nominate candidates for office

b)

to lobby congressional representatives

c)

to mandate election laws for primary races

d)

to monitor voting sites for election fraud

11.

The Role of ???

• Provides citizens with competing views on contemporary issues

• Directly connects the public to candidates and elected leaders

• Recruits candidates to run for office


Which phrase completes the title of this list?

a)

Interest Groups

b)

the Electoral College

c)

Social Media

d)

the Two-Party System

12.

Why did the Reform party create this list of priorities?


1992 Reform Party Platform

• Reduce the federal deficit

• Establish term limits

• Improve balance of trade

a)

to call for a convention to discuss issues

b)

to communicate political goals to the public

c)

to select potential candidates for office

d)

to endorse differing opinions from activists

13.

Which statement BEST explains how third parties can have a positive effect on national politics?

a)

Third parties often bring attention to topics that are unpopular or unknown.

b)

Third parties shift voters’ attention away from major-party candidates.

c)

Third parties promote the concerns of special-interest groups.

d)

Third parties help bridge the gap between state and federal legislators.

14.

Which statement BEST explains the main function of political parties?

a)

to determine which candidate will win an election

b)

to control which issues will affect elections

c)

to determine the dates for each election

d)

to raise money for candidates seeking election

15.

Which propaganda technique uses a celebrity endorsement to influence viewers?

a)

Testimonial

b)

Bandwagon

c)

Name-calling

d)

Glittering Generalities

16.

Which propaganda technique creates the impression of widespread support for a candidate?

a)

Bandwagon

b)

Name-calling

c)

Glittering generalities

d)

Card-stacking

17.

Which propaganda technique uses negative words to create fear and dislike for opponents?

a)

Name-calling

b)

Glittering generalities

c)

Card-stacking

d)

Plain folks

18.

Which propaganda technique uses simple, clever slogans to appeal to peoples' emotions?

a)

Glittering generalities

b)

Card-stacking

c)

Plain folks

d)

Transfer

19.

Which propaganda technique uses facts and figures to portray one side as positive and the other as negative?

a)

Card-stacking

b)

Plain folks

c)

Transfer

d)

Testimonial

20.

Which propaganda technique sends the message that a candidate is "just like you?"

a)

Plain folks

b)

Transfer

c)

Testimonial

d)

Bandwagon

21.

Which propaganda technique creates a connection between two ideas?

a)

Transfer

b)

Testimonial

c)

Bandwagon

d)

Name-calling

22.

In the 1990, 2000, and 2010 censuses, western and southern states gained seats in the U.S. Congress.


Which conclusion is BEST supported by this information?

a)

Population growth in southern states has led to a decrease in voter turn-out in elections.

b)

States in the South and West have voting districts that are larger than other regions in the country.

c)

Population increases in urban centers have led to an equitable distribution of representatives.

d)

States in the South and West have more influence in presidential elections than in the past.

23.

Which example correctly illustrates how public offices in the U.S. government are filled?

a)

Executive branch office holders are elected.

b)

Supreme Court justices are elected to Congress.

c)

U.S. Senators are chosen by state legislatures.

d)

U.S. Representatives are elected directly by the people.

24.

Which factor is used to assign electoral votes to each state?

a)

geographic size of the state

b)

regional identification of the state

c)

number of representatives and senators

d)

process for choosing governors and legislators

25.

The MAIN reason states such as California, Florida, and New York have significant influence on presidential elections is because they have...

a)

distinct cultures.

b)

large populations.

c)

early party primaries.

d)

ideal locations for campaigning.

26.
a)

Tradition often influences election outcomes.

b)

Passage of voter laws changes the outcome of elections.

c)

Education levels have little effect on the outcome of elections.

d)

Creation of new voting districts alters election outcomes.

27.
a)

Effects of population shifts

b)

Formation of new voting districts

c)

Establishment of strict voting laws

d)

Dissatisfaction with the incumbent

28.

A national census is taken every ten years, then Congressional districts are reapportioned. How does this process influence U.S. politics?

a)

Public officials encourage ethnic diversity.

b)

Elections become more competitive.

c)

Representation is based on population.

d)

Urban areas become more influential.

29.

Which statement BEST describes the effect of this third party candidate on the 1992 presidential election?


"The 1992 election was the first presidential election since 1968 in which a third party candidate garnered a significant percentage of the popular vote. Although billionaire Texas businessman Ross Perot failed to win any Electoral College votes, his presence had an important effect on the election."

—Bancroft Library, University of California

a)

He played a minor role in the presidential decision.

b)

His candidacy drew votes away from the incumbent.

c)

His candidacy altered the campaign strategies in Democratic states.

d)

He influenced the nomination process at the Republican convention.

30.
a)

John McCain received more electoral votes along the West Coast.

b)

John McCain received the most electoral votes.

c)

Barack Obama won more densely populated states.

d)

Barack Obama was more popular in the southern part of the country.

31.

In 1965, the Supreme Court ruled in its Sheppard v. Maxwell decision that widespread hostile news coverage prevented Samuel Sheppard from receiving a fair trial. Which statement BEST describes the principles in conflict in this case?

a)

federalism and states’ rights

b)

civil rights and majority rule

c)

rule of law and judicial power

d)

freedom of the press and due process

32.

In 1970, the Supreme Court heard New York Times v. United States, a case that involved the publication of information about U.S. military actions in Vietnam. President Richard Nixon wanted to prevent The New York Times from publishing the information, while The New York Times argued that publishing the information served the public good. The Court ruled 6-3 in favor of The New York Times. Which statement BEST describes the principles in conflict in this case?

a)

domestic issues and foreign policy

b)

judicial power and presidential power

c)

freedom of speech and national security

d)

private property and government authority

33.

In October 2001, Congress passed the USA PATRIOT Act in response to the September 11 attacks on the United States that year. This act gave law enforcement authorities a wide range of powers to gather information related to acts hostile to the country. Some people protested that the act gave the government too much authority to monitor some Americans’ phone calls and take other actions. Others argued that those actions were necessary to protect the United States. Which statement BEST describes the principles in conflict in this information?

a)

federalism and states’ rights

b)

voting rights and majority rule

c)

national security and civil liberties

d)

private property rights and the common good

34.

Which propaganda technique does the image of President Reagan with a chainsaw best demonstrate?

a)

Plain folks

b)

Bandwagon

c)

Card-stacking

d)

Glittering generalities

35.

Which propaganda technique does the image above use?

a)

Transfer

b)

Bandwagon

c)

Name-calling

d)

Plain folks

36.

Which propaganda technique does the image above use?

a)

Testimonial

b)

Plain folks

c)

Bandwagon

d)

Transfer

37.

Which propaganda technique does the image above use?

a)

Card-stacking

b)

Name-calling

c)

Testimonial

d)

Bandwagon

38.

Which propaganda technique does the poster above use?

a)

Bandwagon

b)

Plain folks

c)

Name calling

d)

Card stacking

39.
a)

The candidate who receives a majority of the votes from the House of Representatives would become president.

b)

The candidate who receives 50% of the votes from state legislators

would become president.

c)

Candidate X would become president, because she received enough electoral votes.

d)

Candidate Y would become president, because she received the most popular votes.

40.
a)

The popular vote was used to determine the candidate who became president.

b)

The House of Representatives chose the president because of the close popular vote.

c)

The Supreme Court chose the president because of conflicting state returns.

d)

The candidate with the majority of electoral votes became president.