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Worksheets

Science Check In 4th 9 Weeks

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement BEST describes an atom?

a)

Atoms are the smallest particles of matter that are still elements

b)

Atoms are composed of one or more elements in a fixed ratio.

c)

Atoms are broken down by physical means into subatomic particles.

d)

Atoms are tiny energy packets that produce a beam of light

2.

Which is true for every atom of an element?

a)

It can be seen with a magnifying glass

b)

It is joined together with another atom.

c)

It has mass and volume.

d)

It is weightless.

3.

Which list contains only objects made up of atoms?

a)

steel, water, sand, dolphin

b)

light, rock, apple, squirrel

c)

palm tree, electricity, salt, air

d)

paper, vinegar, heat, helium

4.

At what temperature does water begin to boil?

a)

0°C

b)

32°C

c)

100°C

d)

212°C

5.

The ice cubes in a freezer are melting.

Which change MOST likely is causing the ice cubes to melt?

a)

a decrease in the mass of the ice cubes

b)

an increase in the mass of the ice cubes

c)

a decrease in the temperature inside the freezer

d)

an increase in the temperature inside the freezer

6.

At which temperature does water freeze?

a)

0 degrees Celsius

b)

32 degrees Celsius

c)

100 degrees Celsius

d)

212 degrees Celsius

7.

The distance between atoms is often affected by temperature. The diagrams show water at three different temperatures.

Which order of the diagrams indicates DECREASING distance between atoms?

a)

1, 2, 3

b)

2, 3, 1

c)

3, 2, 1

d)

3, 2, 1

8.

The meanings of mass and weight can often be confused.


Which is an example of a change in both mass and weight?

a)

visiting the Moon

b)

a stone eroding in a river

c)

living on the space station

d)

a ship floating on the ocean

9.

This chart gives the physical properties of copper.

How does the density of a 4-g sample of copper compare to that of a 12- g sample of copper?

a)

Its density is one-half the density of the 12-g sample.

b)

Its density is the same density as the 12-g sample.

c)

Its density is twice the density of the 12-g sample.

d)

Its density is three times the density of the 12-g

10.

Which phase of matter does not have a definite volume or shape, but does have a definite mass?

a)

plasma

b)

gas

c)

liquid

d)

solid

11.

Which describes a property of all elements?

a)

All elements are metals.

b)

All elements have six electrons.

c)

All elements are pure substances.

d)

All elements exist in the solid phase.

12.

A student put 200 milliliters (mL) of water into a pot, sets the pot on a burner, and heats the water to boil. When the pot is taken off the burner, it contains only 180 milliliters (mL) of water. What happened to the rest of the water?

a)

It was used up

b)

It condensed.

c)

It was absorbed by the heat.

d)

It turned into water vapor.

13.

Which of the following has the ability to change the state of matter?

a)

heat

b)

wind

c)

light

d)

sound

14.

Which element is a gas at room temperature?

a)

iron

b)

carbon

c)

oxygen

d)

sodium

15.

The solubility of a substance is considered a __________________ property

a)

reactivity

b)

chemical

c)

physical

d)

toxicity

16.

As temperature increases

a)

the motion of the atoms stays constant

b)

the motion of the atoms decreases

c)

the motion of the atoms also increases

d)

the motion of the atoms doesn't change

17.

What statement about the liquids above is true?

a)

water is the lease dense liquid in the picture

b)

oil is more dense than rubbing alcohol and water

c)

oil is more dense than rubbing alcohol, but less dense than water

d)

water is more dense than rubbing alcohol, but less dense than oil.

18.

Which of the following heat exchange processes involves the collision of particles?

a)

insulation

b)

conduction

c)

convection

d)

radiation

19.

A brick exposed to sunlight becomes warm. How is energy from the Sun transferred to the brick?

a)

convection

b)

conduction

c)

radiation

d)

reflection

20.

The main method of heat transfer occurring within water is called

a)

conduction

b)

radiation

c)

convection

d)

insulation

21.

What is the primary source of energy on Earth?

a)

the Sun

b)

the Moon

c)

water

d)

rocks

22.

Heat flows from warm objects to cooler objects until both objects are at

a)

expansion

b)

equilibrium

c)

thermal

d)

conduction

23.

Thermal energy is transferred through a material by the collision of the ___________ within the material.

a)

waves

b)

atoms

c)

crystals

d)

light

24.

Why does a floor covered with tile feel colder than a floor covered with carpet?

a)

The tile floor is colder than the carpet.

b)

The tile floor conducts heat better than the carpet.

c)

The carpet conducts heat better than the tile floor.

d)

The tile floor is a better insulator than the carpet.

25.

In an investigation, water in an Erlenmeyer flask is placed on a hot plate.As the water is heated, the cooler, denser water at the surface sinks and pushes the warmer water to the top. What do the arrows in the drawing most likely represent?

a)

phase changes

b)

convection currents

c)

electromagnetic radiation

d)

energy transfer by conduction

26.

Why does sound travel faster through a solid object than in the air?

a)

The atoms in the solid object are farther apart than the atoms in the air

b)

The atoms in the solid object are closer together than the atoms in the air.

c)

The atoms are smaller in the solid object than the atoms in the air.

d)

The atoms are larger in the solid object than the atoms in the air.

27.

Which bar measures the wavelength of the wave?

a)

bar W

b)

bar X

c)

bar Y

d)

bar Z

28.

Which points on the wave are the trough and the crest?

a)

Point W is a trough; Point Y is a crest.

b)

Point Y is a trough; Point W is a crest.

c)

Point Y is a trough; Point X is a crest.

d)

Point W is a trough; Point Z is a crest.

29.

How are electromagnetic waves different from other waves?

a)

They have very short wavelengths

b)

They transmit energy instead of matter

c)

They can travel through a vacuum and through matter

d)

They can change direction by reflection when they strike an object.

30.

What do waves carry through objects?

a)

sound

b)

light

c)

energy

d)

water

31.

A substance that carries sound waves is called

a)

a fulcrum

b)

a medium

c)

a spectrum

d)

an equilibrium

32.

Sound waves travel fastest in

a)

air

b)

iron

c)

water

d)

vacuum

33.

Which of these colors of visible light has the shortest wavelength?

a)

red

b)

green

c)

violet

d)

yellow

34.

Which statement best describes visible light?

a)

Visible light occupies most of the electromagnetic spectrum and requires a medium for travel.

b)

Visible light occupies most of the electromagnetic spectrum and can travel in a vacuum.

c)

Visible light occupies a small part of the electromagnetic spectrum and requires a medium for travel.

d)

Visible light occupies a small part of the electromagnetic spectrum and can travel in a vacuum.

35.

What type of wave is a light wave?

a)

longitudinal and mechanical

b)

longitudinal and electromagnetic

c)

transverse and mechanical

d)

transverse and electromagnetic

36.

Which contributes to Earth’s ability to sustain life?

a)

The atmosphere allows all of the sun’s radiation to enter due to Earth’s distance from the sun.

b)

The atmosphere prevents all space debris from reaching the surface due to the ozone layer.

c)

The atmosphere is extremely thin due to the temperatures of the sun.

d)

The atmosphere is breathable due to the unique mixture of gases.

37.

Which of the following helps keep the Moon in its orbit?

a)

friction

b)

gravity

c)

longitude

d)

latitude

38.

To which planet do National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) scientists hope to send humans next?

a)

Mars

b)

Venus

c)

Jupiter

d)

Mercury

39.

Which effect does the right angle alignment shown have on Earth?

a)

There will be a solar eclipse on Earth.

b)

A full Moon will be observed from Earth.

c)

The high tides will be lower than normal on Earth.

d)

An increased gravitational force will be exerted on Earth.

40.

Which of the following is a direct result of Earth’s tilt on its axis?

a)

tides

b)

seasons

c)

weather

d)

gravity

41.

How many times does the Moon rotate on its axis during a lunar month?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

42.

Which diagram shows the Moon when it is not visible from Earth?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

43.

Approximately how many times will Earth rotate during one revolution around the Sun?

a)

1

b)

28

c)

365

d)

1440

44.

What is the basic composition of Earth’s core?

a)

The solid inner core is surrounded by a liquid outer core.

b)

The liquid inner core is surrounded by a solid outer core.

c)

Both the inner core and the outer core are solid.

d)

Both the inner core and the outer core are liquid.

45.

At which location does the movement of tectonic plates form isolated volcanic islands, such as Hawaii?

a)

transform boundary

b)

divergent boundary

c)

subduction zone

d)

hot spot

46.

Which of these tectonic plate boundaries is most likely to form a volcano?

a)

a continental plate colliding with a continental plate

b)

an oceanic plate sliding past a continental plate

c)

a continental plate sliding past a continental plate

d)

an oceanic plate colliding into a continental plate

47.

Which piece of evidence supports plate tectonic theory?

a)

plant fossils that are similar in size

b)

the weathering and erosion of coastlines

c)

new crust formed by seafloor spreading

d)

rocks with different physical appearances

48.

Which statement best explains why Iceland has so many active volcanoes?

a)

Iceland overlies a boundary between two tectonic plates that are colliding

b)

Iceland overlies a boundary between two tectonic plates that are moving apart

c)

Iceland is on a single tectonic plate and is far from any plate boundaries

d)

Iceland is on a single tectonic plate that is moving under another plate

49.

During subduction, one tectonic plate is forced below another. The subducting plate is forced into the

a)

asthenosphere

b)

lithosphere

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

50.

MOST of the volcanoes that make up the “Ring of Fire” were formed near what?

a)

Hot spots

b)

Subduction zones

c)

Divergent boundaries

d)

Normal faults

51.

To which of the following phenomena do humans contribute the least?

a)

plate tectonics

b)

soil erosion

c)

air pollution

d)

deforestation

52.

In what section of Earth do earthquakes happen?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

inner core

d)

outer core

53.

Which of these correctly lists Earth’s layers in order from the center to the surface?

a)

outer core, inner core, asthenosphere, lithosphere

b)

asthenosphere, lithosphere, outer core, inner core

c)

inner core, asthenosphere, lithosphere, outer core

d)

inner core, outer core, asthenosphere, lithosphere

54.

The continental crust floats on top of the mantle because the crust is

a)

less dense than the mantle

b)

made of a liquid material

c)

made up of oxygen which is a light element

d)

separated from the mantle by a layer of water

55.

The movement of crustal plates results from circulating currents in material beneath the crust of Earth. Which best describes the material which moves the crustal plates?

a)

hot water

b)

molten rock

c)

liquid metal

d)

solid iron

56.

Which event most likely caused the formation of folded mountain ranges?

a)

Tectonic plates on the earth pushed together

b)

Tectonic plates on the earth pulled apart

c)

Tectonic plates on the earth slid past each other

d)

Tectonic plates on the earth broke into small pieces

57.

The picture above shows how a type of rock forms at the bottom of the ocean. What type of rock is this?

a)

basalt

b)

igneous

c)

sedimentary

d)

metamorphic

58.

Which environment would most likely have rich, fertile soil

a)

a desert palin

b)

a coastal beach

c)

a rocky mountain peak

d)

a flood plain

59.

The table shows some of the characteristics of the soil in an area of land.Which characteristic of this area indicates that the soil was formed as a result of the interaction between organisms and their environment?

a)

The area is flat.

b)

The soil color is dark brown.

c)

The soil contains humus.

d)

The soil feels gritty.

60.

Which best explains the relationship between parent rock and soil composition?

a)

Weathered parent rock determines the number of organisms found in the soil.

b)

Weathered parent rock determines the amount of air found in the soil.

c)

Weathered parent rock is the largest component of soil.

d)

Weathered parent rock is the smallest component of soil.

61.

The finest-grained soils are richest in

a)

sand

b)

humus

c)

clay

d)

iron

62.

Soil conservation officers inspect fields on four farms. Each farmer uses a different method to protect his fields. Which farm has methods that would BEST prevent soil erosion?

a)

Farm A, where crops are planted in plowed, straight rows

b)

Farm B, where each field is left unplanted every other year

c)

Farm C, where different crops are planted in plowed rows each year

d)

Farm D, where crops are planted within the remains of last year’s crops