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Earth Space Science Review

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What force pulled the solar system together out of a cloud of gas and dust?

a)

The strong force

b)

gravity

c)

electrical force

d)

magnetic force

2.

Which of the following is a terrestrial planet?

a)

Jupiter

b)

Saturn

c)

Mercury

d)

Neptune

3.

Which of the following can be found in the Kuiper Belt?

a)
b)
c)
d)
4.

In terms of orbit, the Earth is to the sun as what is to the Earth?

a)

Mars

b)

The moon

c)

A comet

d)

Venus

5.

What was contained in the singularity that gave rise to the Big Bang? Choose the best answer.

a)

Gamma rays

b)

Electrons in a highly excited state

c)

One atom of every known element in our universe

d)

All the mass, energy, and time in our universe

6.

What do the initial moments after the Big Bang have in common with the universe as it exists now? Choose the best answer.

a)

All the stars, galaxies, and planets that exist today were formed just a few moments after the Big Bang

b)

The universe back then could not sustain life, and it cannot sustain life now

c)

The universe was extremely hot then, and it is still extremely hot now

d)

The universe began expanding then, and it is still expanding today

7.

The light from a star moving away from us would be experiencing:

a)

Redshift

b)

Blueshift

c)

Greenshift

d)

Whiteshift

8.

Which of the following happens before a black hole comes into existence?

a)

Gravity ceases to exist in a certain region of space

b)

A new star is born at the center of a galaxy

c)

An old star collapses in on itself

d)

The fabric of spacetime is ripped by a star or planet

9.

About how old do scientists think the universe is?

a)

14 million years

b)

140 million years

c)

14 billion years

d)

140 billion years

10.

Which of the following represents an elliptical galaxy?

a)
b)
c)
d)
11.

How are elliptical galaxies different from spiral galaxies?

a)

they contain older stars and less gas and dust

b)

they contain younger stars and more gas and dust

c)

they are bigger than spiral galaxies

d)

they are smaller than spiral galaxies

12.

What would happen to galaxies without gravity?

a)

They would spin faster

b)

They would contain stronger black holes

c)

They would contain more stars

d)

They would fall apart

13.

Which of the following is a true statement about irregular galaxies?

a)

They are older than other types of galaxies

b)

They all contain massive black holes at their centers

c)

They contain relatively little gas and dust

d)

They consist mainly of young stars

14.

Place the following stages of life in order of a low-mass star, like the sun. A) Red giant; B) White dwarf; C) Main sequence star

a)

C, A, B

b)

A, C, B

c)

B, A, C

d)

B, C, A

15.

Which of the following describes the process of nuclear fusion?

a)

Hydrogen and oxygen atoms combine to make water molecules

b)

Helium atoms split apart to form hydrogen atoms

c)

Water molecules break apart into hydrogen and oxygen atoms

d)

Hydrogen atoms combine to make helium atoms

16.

What effect does gravity have on stars?

a)

It allows stars to break free of their galaxies

b)

It helps break helium atoms apart inside of stars

c)

It forms stars from clouds of gas and dust, and causes them to ignite

d)

It causes stars to swell from white dwarfs to red giants

17.

What is a supernova?

a)

A type of black holes

b)

An incredible dense but small star

c)

A star that is large and not dense

d)

The explosion of a large star

18.

What will a star that's 1,000 times as massive as the sun ultimately become?

a)

A white dwarf

b)

A black hole

c)

A planetary nebula

d)

A red giant

19.

Which of the following depicts a planetary nebula?

a)
b)
c)
d)
20.

How much of the moon's bright side can you see during a new moon?

a)

0 percent

b)

10 percent

c)

50 percent

d)

100 percent

21.

Which of the following phenomena never affects the moon's phase?

a)

The moon's orbit around the earth

b)

The earth's orbit around the sun

c)

The earth's rotation on its axis

d)

The relative positions of the earth, moon, and sun

22.

Which of these terms best describes the moon in this image?

a)

Crescent

b)

Waxing

c)

Gibbous

d)

Waning

23.

Place the following phases of the moon in the correct sequence: A) Waxing crescent; B) Waning gibbous; C) Third quarter moon

a)

A, B, C

b)

A, C, B

c)

C, A, B

d)

B, C, A

24.

The Sun's radiation is responsible for earth's ____________.

a)

Temperature

b)

Magnetic field

c)

Rotation

d)

Atmosphere

25.

Where can you find the photosphere?

a)

At the surface of the sun

b)

In the earth's atmosphere

c)

Deep within the sun

d)

1,000 km away from the sun

26.

Which two elements make up the sun?

a)

Carbon and nitrogen

b)

Hydrogen and oxygen

c)

Oxygen and carbon

d)

Hydrogen and helium

27.

What causes the seasons?

a)

Changes in the sun's intensity

b)

The earth's changing distance from the sun

c)

The tilt of the earth on its axis

d)

The earth's rotation

28.

What effect does the sun's electromagnetic field have?

a)

It causes dark patches called sunspots

b)

It causes the sun to rotate

c)

It causes fusion reactions

d)

It causes the sun to shine

29.

What are earth's three main layers?

a)

Core, mantle, and surface

b)

Core, mantle, and crust

c)

Inner core, outer core, and mantle

d)

Upper mantle, lower mantle, and crust

30.

Where is the earth's crust the thickest?

a)
b)
c)
d)
31.

What effect does the spinning of the earth's core have?

a)

It creates gravity

b)

It creates matter

c)

It creates mass

d)

It creates the earth's magnetic field

32.

What is the only entirely liquid layer of the earth?

a)

The upper mantle

b)

The outer core

c)

The inner core

d)

The lower mantle

33.

If the earth's mantle were completely solid, __________ plates could not move around

a)

Tectonic

b)

Technical

c)

Titanic

d)

Agonstic

34.

What gas makes up the majority of the Earth's atmosphere?

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

argon

d)

nitrogen

35.

Place the following atmospheric layers in sequence, from lowest to highest: A) Exosphere; B) Stratosphere; C) Troposphere

a)

A, C, B

b)

B, A, C

c)

C, B, A

d)

C, A, B

36.

Which of the following is a true statement about the stratosphere?

a)

The temperature gets warmer the higher you go

b)

The temperature gets colder the higher you go

c)

There is more oxygen the higher you go

d)

There is more carbon dioxide the higher you go

37.

Why is the ozone layer so important?

a)

Because it traps most of the sun's heat

b)

Because it contains most of the earth's oxygen

c)

Because it blocks harmful ultraviolet rays

d)

Because it allows ultraviolet rays to warm the stratosphere

38.

Which term accurately describes the mesosphere?

a)

Extremely cold

b)

Extremely warm

c)

Extremely low

d)

Extremely high up

39.

In the name "thermosphere," the prefix "thermo-" refers to what?

a)

Atmospheric gases

b)

Altitude

c)

Meteors

d)

Heat

40.

Which region of the atmosphere is filled with charged particles?

a)

The troposphere

b)

The mesosphere

c)

The ionosphere

d)

The ozone layer

41.

If you wanted to fly through a cloud, which atmospheric layer would you fly through?

a)

The troposphere

b)

The mesosphere

c)

The ionosphere

d)

The exosphere

42.

Why is it difficult to breathe at high altitudes?

a)

Because you are closer to the sun the higher you go

b)

Because atmospheric gases become thinner the higher you go

c)

Because there is more carbon dioxide the higher you go

d)

Because there is no oxygen in the troposphere

43.

Which of the following devices measures air pressure?

a)
b)
c)
d)
44.

If it's a hot day outside, what can you conclude?

a)

The wind will blow extremely fast

b)

The air will be able to hold very little moisture

c)

There will probably be a lot of clouds

d)

The air will be able to hold a lot of moisture

45.

What is the difference between absolute humidity and relative humidity?

a)

Absolute humidity is expressed as a percentage; relative humidity is expressed as a whole number

b)

Absolute humidity is how much water the air can hold; relative humidity represents how much water the air actually holds

c)

Relative humidity makes the air sticky; absolute humidity makes the air dry

d)

Absolute humidity represents how much water the air actually holds; relative humidity is how much water the air can hold

46.

What are the characteristics of a high-pressure system?

a)

wind and rain

b)

clear skies and sun

c)

humidity and thunder

d)

extremely hot temperatures

47.

What will happen if the relative humidity is 100 percent, and the temperature begins falling?

a)

The air will be sticky and uncomfortable

b)

It will start to rain

c)

The temperature will rise

d)

The barometric pressure will rise

48.

What is weathering?

a)

A process that breaks down rocks into smaller pieces

b)

A shift in weather patterns

c)

The process by which mountains are formed

d)

The process by which the seasons change

49.

How is mechanical weathering different from chemical weathering?

a)

Chemical weathering happens over a much shorter time frame than mechanical weathering

b)

Chemical weathering occurs in the tropics; mechanical weathering occurs in temperate climates

c)

Chemical weathering occurs in mountains; mechanical weathering occurs on flat surfaces

d)

Chemical weathering changes the chemical composition of materials; mechanical weathering does not

50.

What might cause mechanical weathering?

a)

Acid rain

b)

Violent earthquakes

c)

Growing plants and expanding ice

d)

Volcanic eruptions

51.

What impact does weathering have on soil formation?

a)

Chemical weathering adds helpful chemicals to the soil

b)

Rocks are broken down into smaller pieces, and finally into sediment

c)

Mechanical weathering adds ice to the soil, which turns into water

d)

Volcanic eruptions contribute metamorphic rocks to the soil

52.

What types of rocks are formed by weathering?

a)

Metamorphic rocks

b)

Igneous rocks

c)

Sedimentary rocks

d)

Volcanic rocks

53.

What process hollows out limestone caves?

a)

Mechanical weathering

b)

Chemical weathering

c)

Spatial weathering

d)

Cave weathering

54.

What evidence did Alfred Wegener use to support his theory of continental drift?

a)

Fossil discoveries

b)

The Himalayan Mountains

c)

Ancient maps of the world

d)

Charts of seismic activity

55.

What is true of tectonic plates?

a)

They are constantly moving

b)

Earthquakes cause them to move

c)

They don't move for centuries at a time

d)

There are fewer and fewer of them

56.

Where is Earth's heat energy most concentrated?

a)

the mantle

b)

the lithosphere

c)

the core

d)

the crust

57.

What is the underlying force that drives plate tectonics?

a)

ocean tides

b)

volcanic eruptions

c)

the rock cycle

d)

convection currents

58.

Convection currents are powered by:

a)

motion

b)

pressure

c)

heat

d)

density

59.

Which of the following plate interactions is most likely to form a mountain range?

a)

A transform boundary between ocean plates

b)

A transform boundary between continental plates

c)

A convergent boundary between continental plates

d)

A subduction zone between a continental plate and an ocean plate

60.

When two plates that differ in _______ collide, volcanoes often form nearby.

a)

speed

b)

density

c)

thickness

d)

temperature

61.

What are the three types of rocks that are part of the rock cycle?

a)

hard, soft, and brittle

b)

sand, stone, and volcanic

c)

dactylic, iambic, and spondaic

d)

igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary

62.

What do you need in order for igneous rock to form?

a)

A volcano

b)

A mountain

c)

A glacier

d)

A canyon

63.

What is the difference between magma and lava?

a)

Magma is very hot, lava is cool

b)

Magma is molten rock within the earth; lava is molten rock on the earth's surface

c)

Magma is molten rock on the earth's surface; lava is molten rock within the earth

d)

Magma is cool, lava is very hot

64.

Which of these is a sedimentary rock?

a)

granite

b)

obsidian

c)

sandstone

d)

quartzite

65.

Where might you find mountains of metamorphic rock?

a)

Near volcanoes

b)

At the boundaries between tectonic plates

c)

Buried under bodies of water

d)

Near any landscape that has been eroded

66.

What has to happen to sediment in order for it to become sedimentary rock?

a)

It has to bond and harden

b)

It has to be buried deep within the earth

c)

It has to be around a volcanic eruption

d)

It has to be washed away by wind and rain

67.

When does a sedimentary rock become a metamorphic rock?

a)

When it's left alone over a long period of time

b)

When it erupts out of a volcano

c)

When its sediments bond together

d)

When it's subjected to intense heat and pressure

68.

Which of the following is an example of a body fossil?

a)

A perfect mold of a dinosaur bone

b)

A carbon print left by a leaf

c)

The skull of a mammoth that fell into a tar pit

d)

A dinosaur footprint

69.

Which of the following is an example of a trace fossil?

a)

A skeleton preserved in a tar pit

b)

A footprint of an extinct animal

c)

A mummy buried in ice

d)

An insect preserved in amber

70.

Why are deserts, tar pits, and ice good places to find body fossils?

a)

Most ancient organisms lived in these environments

b)

Bacteria and other decomposers cannot thrive in these environments

c)

Many ancient organisms traveled to these places to die

d)

The largest ancient organisms lived in these environments

71.

What two forces can turn fossils into fossil fuels?

a)

Lift and thrust

b)

Wind and rain

c)

Temperature and pressure

d)

Motion and time

72.

Divergent, Convergent, or Transform: "Plates grind past each other without destroying or creating crust"

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Transform

73.

Divergent, Convergent, or Transform: "Plates towards each other and crust is destroyed"

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Transform

74.

Divergent, Convergent, or Transform: "Plates move away from each other and crust is formed"

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Transform

75.

Divergent, Convergent, or Transform: "Results in seafloor spreading, ocean ridges, rift valleys, and volcanic activity"

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Transform

76.

Divergent, Convergent, or Transform: Plates shift positions, shallow earthquakes are produced, and no volcanic activity"

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Transform

77.

Divergent, Convergent, or Transform: "Results in subduction, trenches, mountains, volcanic arcs, and deep earthquakes"

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Transform

78.

The sum total of all water on Earth and in its atmosphere is called the:

a)

Biosphere

b)

Terrasphere

c)

Hydrosphere

d)

Liquisphere

79.

Oceans, the atmosphere, and groundwater are all _______ in the water cycle.

a)

Nodes

b)

Sinks

c)

Reservoirs

d)

Stations

80.

What effect does the sun have on surface water?

a)

It causes it to boil

b)

It causes it to rain

c)

It causes it to sink

d)

It causes it to evaporate

81.

What is it called when rainwater contributes to the flow of rivers and streams?

a)

Transformation

b)

Runoff

c)

Irrigation

d)

Desertification

82.

Which of the following describes condensation?

a)

Ice becoming water when placed into a warm liquid

b)

Water becoming ice in a freezer

c)

Liquid water being heated until it turns into steam

d)

Steam from a teapot turning into liquid water

83.

Which reservoir in the water cycle contains the most water?

a)

The ice caps

b)

The oceans

c)

Groundwater

d)

Surface water

84.

Where is the heat energy source for plate tectonics?

a)

core

b)

mantle

c)

crust

85.

What may result when the moving mantle causes crustal plates to diverge?

a)

Large mountain reanges will form

b)

Volcanic island arcs will form

c)

Mid-ocean rifts and seafloor spreading will occur

d)

Earthquakes will cause weathering and erosion of rocks

86.

What may result when the moving mantle causes oceanic plates to converge?

a)

Large mountain ranges will form

b)

Volcanic island arcs will form

c)

Mid-ocean rifts and seafloor spreading will occur

d)

Earthquakes will cause weathering and erosion of rocks

87.

What may result when the moving mantle causes continental plates to converge?

a)

Large mountain ranges will form

b)

Volcanic island arcs will form

c)

Mid-ocean rifts and seafloor spreading will occur

d)

Earthquakes will cause weathering and erosion of rocks

88.

What may result when the moving mantle causes plates to slide parallel to each other?

a)

Large mountain ranges will form

b)

Volcanic island arcs will form

c)

Mid-ocean rifts and seafloor spreading will occur

d)

Earthquakes will cause weathering and erosion of rocks