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WorksheetsSuper Mega EOC Review
Total questions: 58
Worksheet time: 51mins
Cell theory was first proposed in 1838. Evidence obtained through additional scientific investigations resulted in the current cell theory. Which statement describes a component of the original cell theory that was removed because of the new scientific knowledge?
A. All living things are made of cells
B. All cells come from other preexisting cells.
C. Cells form through spontaneous generation.
D. Cells are the basic structural and functional units of life.
Which invention from the 17th century allowed for the development of modern cell theory?
A. X-rays
B. computers
C. the light microscope
D. the scanning electron microscope
There are some similarities between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Which of the following structures is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
A. lysosome
B. mitochondrion
C. nucleus
D. ribosome
Cells need to bring in molecules to carry out cellular processes. Often, this requires moving the molecules across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient. How do these molecules get into the cell?
A. passive transport by diffusion
B. active transport using ATP
C. passive transport by osmosis
D. phagocytosis
Which cell structure is correctly paired with its primary function?
A. ribosome - protein synthesis
B. mitochondrion - movement
C. vacuole - cell division
D. nucleus - storage of nutrients
A person with swollen gums rinses his mouth with warm salt water, and the swelling decreases. Which of the following has occurred?
A. The swollen gums have absorbed the saltwater solution.
B. The saltwater solution lowers the temperature of the water in the gums.
C. The salt in the solution has moved against the concentration gradient.
D. The water in the gums has moved out due to the high concentration of salt in the solution.
The cell membrane of the red blood cell will allow water, oxygen, and carbon dioxide to pass through. Because other substances are blocked from entering, this membrane is called
A. perforated
B. semi-permeable
C. non-conductive
D. permeable
Which choice describes DNA after replication has taken place?
A. one molecule with two original strands and one molecule with two new strands
B. two molecules, each with one original and one new strand
C. two molecules, each with two new strands
D. two molecules, each with two old strands
A company that manufactures a popular multivitamin wanted to determine whether their multivitamin had any side effects. For its initial study, the company chose 2000 individuals to take one of their multivitamin tablets per day for one year. Scientists from the company surveyed the participants to determine whether they had experienced any side effects. Which of the following was wrong in the procedure used?
A.The sample size was not large enough.
B.Only one brand of vitamin was used.
C.The study lasted only one year.
D. No control group was used
Many scientific explanations of the origin of life on Earth hold that most early organisms relied on four chemical elements: hydrogen, oxygen, carbon, and nitrogen. Which of these elements most likely increased dramatically in the atmosphere over time, supporting more complex organisms?
A.Carbon
B.Hydrogen
C.Oxygen
D.Nitrogen
Four different segments of a DNA molecule are represented below.
There is an error in the DNA in which molecule?
A. segment 1 only
B. segment 3 only
C. segment 2 and 3
D. segment 2 and 4
The sequence of DNA below is part of a gene. How many amino acids are coded for by this segment?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 20
A diagram of a cellular process is shown below.
Which of the following identifies the process shown at point Z?
A. Translation
B. Translocation
C. Replication
D. Transcription
Which of the following carries amino acids to the site of protein synthesis?
A. mRNA
B. rRNA
C. tRNA
D. nRNA
Mitosis and meiosis are processes involved in cellular reproduction. Which of the following describes and event that results from mitosis but NOT meiosis?
A. two stages of cell division
B. replication of cellular genetic material
C. daughter cells that are identical to the parent cell
D. four daughter cells that are produced from each parent cell
How are sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction different from each other?
A. sexual reproduction requires two parents and asexual reproduction requires only one parent
B. asexual reproduction requires two parents and sexual reproduction requires only one parent
C. mutation rates are lower in sexual reproduction than in asexual reproduction
D. asexual reproduction occurs only in multicellular organisms
Which type of reproduction leads to increased genetic variation on a population?
A. Parthenogenesis
B. asexual reproduction
C. Sexual reproduction
D. Vegetative reproduction
Which of the following phases of mitosis is represented by the diagram below?
A. prophase
B. metaphase
C. anaphase
D. telophase
The diagram below shows homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis.
Which of the following correctly describes the process being illustrated?
A. mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is altered
B. segregation of sister chromatids
C. condensation and segregation of alleles
D. crossing-over in which alleles are exchanged
As food travels through the digestive system, it is exposed to a variety of pH levels. The stomach has a pH of 2 due to the presence of hydrochloride acid (HCl), and the small intestine has a pH ranging from 7 to 9. HCl converts pepsinogen into pepsin, an enzyme that digests proteins in the stomach. Which of the following most likely happens to pepsin as it enters the small intestine?
A. It becomes inactive.
B. It begins to replicate.
C. It's shape changes to engulf large proteins.
D. It's activity increases to digest more proteins
The diagram below shows the general structure of an amino acid. Which type of molecule is formed from amino acids?
A. lipids
B. proteins
C. carbohydrates
D. nucleic acids
Fats, oils and cholesterol are all types of what?
A. Lipids
B. hormones
C. Proteins
D. DNA
RNA and DNA are which type of macromolecules?
A. carbohydrate
B. lipid
C. nucleic acid
D. protein
Which gas is removed from the atmosphere during photosynthesis?
A. hydrogen
B. oxygen
C. nitrogen
D. carbon dioxide
What function does ATP carry out in living things?
A. aids in protein folding and coiling
B. used to capture and transfer energy
C. identifies DNA start sequences for transcription
D. helps maintain the fluidity of cell membranes
In which way are photosynthesis and cellular respiration different?
A. Cellular respiration stores ATP, while photosynthesis releases ATP.
B. Cellular respiration produces oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen.
C. Photosynthesis releases energy, while cellular respiration stores energy.
D. Photosynthesis used carbon dioxide, while cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide
A diagram representing the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration is shown below.
The numbered boxes in the diagram represent which of the following?
A. 1 - water; 2 - nitrogen
B. 1 - nitrogen; 2 - oxygen
C. 1 - oxygen; 2 - carbon dioxide
D. 1 - carbon dioxide; 2 - water
Plant cells that are specialized for cell division are most likely found in what part of the plant?
A. root tips
B. leaf epidermis
C. stem epidermis
D. vascular tissue
If the xylem in a young tree is damaged, which process is first affected?
A. performing photosynthesis
B. transporting sugar to the roots
C. transporting water to the leaves
D. absorbing water from the soil
A plant species lives in an area with limited sunlight. Which physiological adaptation would be most useful to the plant?
A. colorful flowers
B. large leaves
C. deep roots
D. thin cuticle
What is the main function of leaves?
A. Leaves provide support for growth and a place to store food.
B. Leaves provide a place for photosynthesis to occur.
C. Leaves absorb water and minerals and transport nutrients to the stem.
D. Leaves create a barrier that prevents water in the plant's tissues from evaporating.
Which lobe of the brain is designated by number 4?
A. occipital lobe
B. parietal lobe
C. frontal lobe
D. temporal lobe
Which of the following factors would most directly affect blood flow through the circulatory system?
A. blood pressure
B. blood sugar
C. respiratory rate
D. outside temperature
What causes blood pressure?
A. cholesterol in the blood
B. stress that exercise puts on heart muscle
C. contraction of the ventricles in the heart
D. removal of oxygen from the blood
What is the body's first line of defense against infection by foreign organisms?
A. antibodies
B. lymph nodes
C. white blood cells
D. the skin
What is the term for a strong response to a harmless antigen in the environment?
A. cell-mediated immunity
B. an allergy
C. inflammatory response
D. an autoimmune disease
How do human diseases caused by bacteria and diseases caused by viruses react to antibiotics?
A. Neither responds to antibiotics
B. Both respond to antibiotics.
C. Viral diseases respond to antibiotics; bacterial diseases do not.
D. Bacterial diseases respond to antibiotics; viral diseases do not.
Stem cell research has been a controversial subject in past years. What is the reason for this?
A. Cells for study are often taken from human embryos.
B. Stem cell techniques will not accomplish the intended purpose
C. The cells cannot be isolated.
D. Replacement tissue will never be grown from a person's own stem cells.
The way that crimes are solved today was affected by which of the following technologies?
A. gene therapy
B. DNA fingerprinting
C. genetic testing
D. Genetic modification
In which of the following structures of the female human reproductive system is the blastocyst implanted during normal human development?
A. ovary
B. uterus
C. vagina
D. amniotic sac
Which of the following is true of a zygote?
A. It forms into a blastocyst
B. It is an unfertilized egg
C. It produces haploid male gametophytes
D. It is made up of only one cell
Which of the following describes fertilization?
A. cell differentiation to form a blastula
B. formation of germ layers in a deuterostome
C. a sperm joining an egg to form a zygote
D. sperm and egg production
Below is a diagram of the male reproductive system.
Which structure is represented by the letter D?
A. scrotum
B. testes
C. prostate gland
D. epididymus
What is the human embryo called after the eighth week of development?
A. a zygote
B. an infant
C. a fetus
D. a morula
How does the predator-prey relationship affect a population?
A. The predators and prey are in competition with each other.
B. Usually either the predator or the prey will become extinct.
C. The predator species usually has exponential growth.
D. The relationship controls the population size of both species.
Which of the following is a limiting factor in a population of organisms.
A. reproductive replacement
B. life spans of the members
C. fluctuations in atmospheric temperature
D. availability of food
Which of the following are abiotic factors that shape ecosystems?
A. worms, plants and temperature
B. wind, precipitation, and soil type
C. niches, trees, and bacteria
D. sunlight, mushrooms, and wind
Why are there so few aquatic plants and phytoplankton that live at the bottom zones in the ocean?
A. The ocean floor contains many decomposers.
B. Most sunlight is absorbed before reaching these levels.
C. Water is a limiting factor.
D. The temperature in these zones is extremely low.
A diagram of a food web is shown below.
Which organism receives the least amount of energy from the producers?
A. Hawk
B. Rabbit
C. Grasshopper
D. Mouse
Which of these organisms would most likely be found at the top of an energy pyramid?
A. clams - a primary consumer
B. sardines - a primary consumer
C. sharks - a secondary consumer
D. kelp - a primary producer
Scientists have found evidence that about 2.4 million years ago a gene regulating jaw muscles mutated and may have led to the more graceful human jaw we see today. The diagram below shows the skulls of 3 hominid species.
Which statement below most closely explains the link between jaw size and hominid evolution?
A. The jaws of hominids evolved to be smaller and less protruding over time.
B. The jaws of hominids evolved to be larger and more protruding over time.
C. There appears to be no change in the jaws of hominids over time.
D. The jaws of hominids changed over time due to a change in brain size
Scientists are studying the evolutionary history of a group of plants in the United States, and they developed an evolutionary tree, as shown below.
What information about the organisms best helps the scientists to determine the evolutionary relationships among them?
A. DNA sequences
B. Anatomical features
C. Habitat types
D. Reproductive Strategies
The diagram below represents possible evolutionary pathways of certain organisms.
Which species is most closely related to species L?
A. species E
B. species F
C. species G
D. species I
Which kingdoms have photosynthetic organisms?
A. fungi and plants
B. fungi and protists
C. protists and plants
D. plants and animals
Which of these would have the least effect on natural selection in a subspecies of giraffes that is geographically isolated from other subspecies of giraffes
A. available niches
B. existing predators
C. chromosome number
D. available food resources
Mutations within a DNA sequence are
A. natural processes that produce genetic diversity
B. natural processes that always affect the phenotype
C. unnatural processes that always affect the phenotype
D. unnatural processes that are harmful to genetic diversity
Which of the following best illustrates natural selection?
A. An organism with favorable genetic variations will tend to survive and breed successfully.
B. A population monopolizes all of the resources in its habitat, forcing other species to migrate.
C. A community whose members work together utilizing all existing resources and migratory routes.
D. The largest organisms in a species receive the only breeding opportunities.
Alleles for the A and B blood cell antigens are codominant. The condition where no antigens are present on the blood cells (type O blood) is a recessive trait. Which set of parents can most likely produce a child with type O blood?
A. one parent with type AB blood, and the other parent with type A blood
B. one parent with type AB blood and the other parent with type O blood
C. one parent with heterozygous type A blood, and the other parent with type O blood
D. one parent with homozygous type A blood, and the other parent with homozygous type B blood
