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Radiology Final

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The anatomic name for the bone commonly known as the “kneecap” is:

a)

Platella

b)

Patella

c)

Glabella

d)

Stella

2.

The patient is in the _________________ position.

a)

PA Decubitus

b)

AP Decubitus

c)

Dorsal Decubitus

d)

Lateral Decubitus

3.

Which bone of the lower leg is located on the lateral side?

a)

Patella

b)

Femur

c)

Tibia

d)

Fibula

4.

When taking an AP projection of the hip, the lower limb is:

a)

Rotated Lateral 5 Degrees

b)

Rotated Medial 5 Degrees

c)

Rotated Lateral 15 Degrees

d)

Rotated Medial 15 Degrees

5.

What is the name of the most distal (or caudal) portion of the spine?

a)

Coccyx

b)

Lumbar

c)

Thoracic

d)

Cervical

6.

Name this position.

a)

Left Decubitus (LD)

b)

Right Lateral Decubitus (RLD)

c)

Left Lateral Decubitus (LLD)

d)

Right Decubitus (RD)

7.

What is the name of this projection?

a)

Lateral of the right foot

b)

Lateral of the left foot

c)

Medial of the right foot

d)

Medial of the left foot

8.

Where is the humerus located?

a)

Upper portion of the arm

b)

Lower portion of the arm

c)

Upper portion of the leg

d)

Lower portion of the leg

9.

What is the proper position of the lower limbs for an AP projection of the pelvis?

a)

Rotated medial 5 degrees

b)

Rotated lateral 5 degrees

c)

Rotated medial 15 degrees

d)

Rotated lateral 15 degrees

10.

When the ankle is flexed and raises the foot, the movement is termed?

a)

Lorsiextension

b)

Lorsiflexion

c)

Dorsiextension

d)

Dorsiflexion

11.

How many vertebrae are located in the cervical region of the spine?

a)

5

b)

12

c)

7

d)

11

12.

Which surface of the wrist is in contact with the IR for the PA projection of the wrist?

a)

PA side

b)

AP side

c)

LT side

d)

RT side

13.

An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called?

a)

Kyphosis

b)

Lordosis

c)

Scoliosis

d)

Onichomycosis

14.

Which portion of the spine is made up of five vertebrae and has a lordotic curve?

a)

Cervical

b)

Thoracic

c)

Sacral

d)

Lumbar

15.

Which is the largest and heaviest bone in the body?

a)

Humerus

b)

Femur

c)

Fibula

d)

Tibia

16.

The region of the spine that contains seven vertebrae and has a lordotic curve is the:

a)

Cervical

b)

Thoracic

c)

Lumbar

17.

Which vertebra is also known as the axis?

a)

C1

b)

C2

c)

T7

d)

T2

18.

What is spondylosis?

a)

Anterior displacement of one vertebra on another

b)

Congenital fissure in a neural arch

c)

Inflammation of a vertebra

d)

Fixation or fusion of a vertebra

19.

Which portion of the ribs is best demonstrated on the AP projeciton?

a)

Axillary Poriton

b)

Anterior Portion

c)

Posterior Portion

d)

Costovertebral Portion

20.

Exostosis, also called osteochondroma, is a type of:

a)

Mental Disorder

b)

Neoplasm

c)

Benign Tumor

d)

Malignant Tumor

21.

What is the name of this projection?

a)

RL Thumb

b)

PA Thumb

c)

AP Thumb

d)

LL Thumb

22.

What kind of projection is this?

a)

APO- AP Oblique

b)

PAO- PA Oblique

c)

LLO- Left Lateral Oblique

d)

RLO- Right Lateral Oblique

23.

Which vertebrae have special facets for articulation with the ribs?

a)

Cervical

b)

Lumbar

c)

Thoracic

d)

Sacral

24.

What is the name of this projection?

a)

Lateral

b)

AP

c)

PA

d)

Oblique

25.

Which of the following combine to form the hip bones? 1. Ilium 2. Ischium 3. Pubis

a)

1

b)

1 & 2

c)

1, 2, 3

d)

1 & 3

26.

What x-ray is being performed?

a)

Transdential of Femur

b)

Transdential of Patella

c)

Decubitus of Patella

d)

Decubitus of Femur

27.

Which bones are located in the lower leg?

a)

Fibula

b)

Tibia

c)

Femur

d)

Fibula and Tibia

28.

Name this position.

a)

PA of Thoracic with open mouth

b)

AP of Thoracic with open mouth

c)

PA of Cervical with open mouth

d)

AP of Cervical with open mouth

29.

What is the name of the fracture caused by repeated injuries that would not be caused by a single injury?

a)

Colles

b)

Comminuted

c)

Stress

d)

Impacted

30.

What patient population is most likely to suffer a hip fracture?

a)

Children

b)

Elderly

c)

Young Adults

d)

Men

31.

Name this position.

a)

LMO- Left Medial Oblique

b)

LLO- Left Lateral Oblique

c)

RLO- Right Lateral Oblique

d)

RMO- Right Medial Oblique

32.

If a knee x-ray is made while the patient is wearing denim jeans, which of the following is likely to occur on the image?

a)

Nothing

b)

Artisnack

c)

Kyphosis

d)

Artifact

33.

When a twisting injury occurs in the lower leg, what type of fracture usually occurs?

a)

Impacted

b)

Colles

c)

Comminuted

d)

Spiral

34.

The number of vertebrae in the normal lumbar spine is?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

35.

A systemic disorder that increases the uric acid content of the blood and may cause a joint condition that commonly affects the feet (particularly the joints of the great toe) is called?

a)

Goat

b)

Arthritis

c)

Gout

d)

Myesthenia Gravis

36.

Which make up parts of the spin? 1. Thoracic 2. Sacrum 3. Kyphosis

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

1 & 2

37.

The rounded, superior part of the ilium that is used as a palpable landmark is called the?

a)

Iliac Nodule

b)

Ischiac Nodule

c)

Iliac Crest

d)

Ischiac Crest

38.

What is the name of the most common type of arthritis?

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Gouty Arthritis

c)

Myasthenia Arthritis

d)

Radial Arthritis

39.

The bone(s) in the forearm is the?

a)

Radius

b)

Ulna

c)

Humerus

d)

Radius and Ulna

40.

What type of procedure has the patient received?

a)

Medial Hip Replacement

b)

Total Hip Replacement

c)

Bilateral Hip Replacement

d)

Artificial Hip Replacement

41.

What tarsal is commonly referred to as the “heel bone”?

a)

Talus

b)

Navicular

c)

Tarsal

d)

Calcaneus

42.

When the cause of disease is unknown, then the disease is classified as:

a)

Nosocomial

b)

Iatrogenic

c)

Idiopathic

d)

Sermipathic

43.

Which organ system is composed of the heat and blood vessels?

a)

Temperature

b)

Respiratory

c)

Lymphatic

d)

Circulatory

44.

A general knowledge of _____________ helps limited operators understand the reasons procedures are needed.

a)

Physiology

b)

Histology

c)

Pathology

d)

Anatomy

45.

Which part of a cell encloses the cytoplasm and forms the outer boundary of the cell?

a)

Organelles

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Plasma Membrane

d)

Nucleus

46.

Name that muscle.

a)

Rectus Abdominus

b)

Latissimus Dorsi

c)

Gluteus Maximus

d)

Deltoid

47.

What projection is this?

a)

Anteroposterior Projection (AP)

b)

Posteroanterior Projection (PA)

c)

Posterior Oblique

d)

Anterior Oblique

48.

What part of the heart is this?

a)

Aorta

b)

Vena Cava

c)

Renal Artery

d)

Pulmonary Artery

49.

Anatomy refers to the ___________ of the body.

a)

Chemistry

b)

Structure

c)

Physiology

d)

Pathology

50.

Which of the following is the proper medical term for swelling?

a)

Inflammation

b)

Edema

c)

Anaphylaxis

d)

Cyanosis

51.

Diseases that occur as result of treatment by health professionals are termed:

a)

Iatrogenic

b)

Idiopathic

c)

Nosocomial

d)

Synovial

52.

What term is used to denote the spread of malignant neoplasm?

a)

Benign

b)

Malignosis

c)

Metastasis

d)

Carcinogenic

53.

What does supination mean?

a)

laying on side

b)

laying on back

c)

sitting up

d)

laying on stomach

54.

In radiography, what three items must be precisely aligned?

a)

X-ray Tube, IR, the body

b)

X-ray Tube, CR, IR

c)

CR, the body, bucky

d)

bucky, IR, casette

55.

The highly specialized fluid portion of the cell is the:

a)

Nucleus

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Ribosomes

56.

The term applied to the back portion of the body or a body part is:

a)

Lateral

b)

Dorsal

c)

Medial

d)

Caudal

57.

The study of diseases or abnormal conditions of the body is termed:

a)

Histology

b)

Gynecology

c)

Hematology

d)

Pathology

58.

An axial projection is achieved when the radiograph is taken with a _______________ angulation of the CR of ___ degrees or more.

a)

latitudinal, 5

b)

longitudinal, 5

c)

latitudinal, 10

d)

longitudinal, 10

59.

Which of the following is the medical term for a growth or tumor?

a)

Malignant

b)

Neoplasm

c)

Benign

d)

Carcinogenic

60.

Diseases that are characterized by a sudden onset of symptoms and/or signs are called ______ conditions.

a)

Acute

b)

Chronic

c)

Malignant

d)

Benign

61.

Which of the following are parts of the respiratory system?

a)

Esophagus

b)

Trachea

c)

Alveoli

d)

Trachea & Alveoli

62.

If the disease is classified as a congenital disease, this means that the condition is?

a)

developed at adolescence

b)

developed at adulthood

c)

present at birth

d)

developed during childhood

63.

A group of ___________ that work together to perform complex functions make up an organ system.

a)

cells

b)

blood cells

c)

organs

d)

organelles

64.

Observed, objective manifestations of disease are called?

a)

Symptoms

b)

Signs

c)

Feelings

d)

Pains

65.

What is the primary function of epithelial tissue?

a)

Absorb substances

b)

Secrete substances

c)

Protect substances

d)

Absorb and Secrete substances

66.

What does the term Cephalad mean?

a)

towards the booty

b)

towards the ribs

c)

towards the spine

d)

towards the head

67.

What term is applied to the condition in which the tissue of the bone is broken or disrupted?

a)

Crack

b)

Break

c)

Fracture

d)

Strain

68.

A prediction of the course of the disease and the prospects for the patient’s recovery is termed?

a)

Proctometry

b)

Prognosis

c)

Etiology

d)

Treatment

69.

What term is used to describe a straightened joint?

a)

Flexion

b)

Stretched

c)

Extension

d)

Dorsiflexion

70.

Name the organs.

a)

Kidneys

b)

Lungs

c)

Ureters

d)

Adrenal Glands

71.

What term refers to the study of the function of the human body?

a)

Anatomy

b)

Physiology

c)

Histology

d)

Cytology

72.

Movement of a part away from the central axis of the body is called?

a)

Abduction

b)

Adduction

c)

Flexion

d)

Extension

73.

What term is used to describe the patients report of his or her perception of the condition?

a)

Signs

b)

Symptoms

c)

Feelings

d)

Pains

74.

Which disease classification refers to those diseases acquired within the hospital?

a)

Iatrogenic

b)

Idiopathic

c)

Nosocomial

d)

Synovial

75.

Which plane divides the body into equal right and left halves?

a)

Sagittal

b)

Midsagittal

c)

Transverse

d)

Lateral

76.

What term refers to the structure of the human body?

a)

Anatomy

b)

Physiology

c)

Histology

d)

Cytology

77.

What is the result of imaging patient motion on a radiograph?

a)

Fog

b)

Blur

c)

Mottle

d)

Nothing, its all good

78.

What positioning landmark is located at the inner corner of the eye?

a)

Inner Canthus

b)

Nasion

c)

EAM

d)

Acanthion

79.

A blow-out fracture involves the?

a)

Occipital Bones

b)

Nasal Bones

c)

Mandible

d)

Floor of the Orbit

80.

Which facial bone often sustains fractures in pairs?

a)

Maxilla

b)

Mandible

c)

Vomer

d)

Zygoma

81.

The essential factor for demonstration of air-fluid levels in radiography is?

a)

The Decubitus position

b)

Horizontal x-ray beam

c)

The semi upright position

d)

A perpendicular x-ray beam

82.

When taking an AP projection of the hip, the lower limb is?

a)

abducted maximally

b)

laterally rotated 15 degrees

c)

flexed at the knee joint

d)

medially rotated 15 degrees

83.

What device can help provide an even density on a radiograph of an AP axial projection of the foot?

a)

Lead shield

b)

Wedge compensating filter

c)

Sandbag

d)

Wedge positioning sponge

84.

The inferior lateral corners of the lungs, visible on the PA chest radiograph, are called?

a)

Cardiaphrenic

b)

Carina

c)

Costophrenic

d)

Effusion

85.

Which of the following terms does not refer to a portion of the sternum?

a)

Body

b)

Manubrium

c)

Mediastium

d)

Xiphoid Process

86.

The lower five pairs of ribs are called?

a)

True ribs

b)

False ribs

c)

Floating ribs

d)

Cervical ribs

87.

All of the following organs are found within the mediastinum except?

a)

Heart

b)

Lungs

c)

Trachea

d)

Ascending Aorta

88.

When the abdomen is dividing into nine regions, the lower middle portion is called the?

a)

Hypochondriac Region

b)

Iliac Region

c)

Hypogastric Region

d)

Umbilical Region

89.

The first and proximal portion of the small bowel is called the?

a)

Duodenum

b)

Pylorus

c)

Jejunum

d)

Ileum

90.

The function(s) of the large intestine include?

a)

Reclamation of water from intestinal contents

b)

Elimination of solid waste

c)

Production of bile

d)

Reclamation of water from intestinal contents and the elimination of solid waste

91.

Routine projections for the left tenth anterior rib, when the injury is anterior, are?

a)

PA and LAO

b)

PA and RAO

c)

AP and RPO

d)

AP and LPO

92.

When an AP projection of the abdomen is performed, the correct source-image receptor distance (SID) is?

a)

40 inches

b)

46 inches

c)

60 inches

d)

72 inches

93.

An upright AP projection of the abdomen is useful for the visualization of?

a)

air-fluid levels in the intestines

b)

liver size

c)

kidney stones

d)

diverticulosis

94.

When the PA projection of the chest is performed, the correct SID is?

a)

40 inches

b)

48 inches

c)

60 inches

d)

72 inches

95.

Breathing instructions for the AP projection of the abdomen should include?

a)

suspend breathing on the first deep inspiration

b)

suspend breathing on the second deep inspiration

c)

suspend breathing on the first deep expiration

d)

suspend breathing on the second deep expiration

96.

Breathing instructions for a PA projection of the chest should include?

a)

suspend breathing on the first deep inspiration

b)

suspend breathing on the second deep inspiration

c)

suspend breathing on the first deep expiration

d)

suspend breathing on the second deep expiration

97.

To demonstrate air-fluid levels in radiography, use?

a)

the decubitus position

b)

the upright position

c)

a horizontal x-ray beam

d)

all of the above

98.

Which of the following conditions is an inflammatory occupational lung disease caused by inhaling irritating dust?

a)

Tuberculosis

b)

Pneumoconiosis

c)

Pneumocystis

d)

Pneumothorax

99.

Which of the following bones are not parts of the cranium?

a)

Parietal

b)

Frontal

c)

Maxillary

d)

Temporal

100.

The bony prominence on the frontal bone between the eyebrows is called the?

a)

Acanthion

b)

Glabella

c)

Gonion

d)

Nasion

101.

All of the following bones contain paranasal sinuses except the?

a)

Frontal bone

b)

Ethmoid bone

c)

Temporal bone

d)

Maxilla

102.

When a posteroanterior (PA) projection of the skull is performed, the central ray is direction is directed?

a)

perpendicular to the IR

b)

15 degrees cephalad

c)

15 degrees caudad

d)

30 degrees cephalad

103.

A projection of the skull in which the sagittal plane is parallel to the IR and the interpupillary line is perpendicular to the IR is an?

a)

PA projection

b)

anteroposterior (AP) axial projection (Towne method)

c)

Waters projection

d)

lateral projection

104.

When the right and left halves of the skull do not appear symmetric on a PA or an AP projection, this is a sign that?

a)

the neck is extended too much

b)

the neck is flexed too much

c)

the sagittal plane is not perpendicular to the IR

d)

the central ray is not centered to the IR

105.

The projection that will demonstrate all of the paranasal sinuses is the?

a)

lateral projection

b)

parietoacanthial projection

c)

PA axial projection

d)

All of the above