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Total questions: 248

Worksheet time: 2hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of switch is a manual single-pole single-throw (SPST) switch?

a)

One way

b)

Two way

c)

Relay

d)

Intermediate

2.

What effect does an open circuit condition have on the current in a dc circuit?

a)

Current increases

b)

Current reduces

c)

Current falls to zero

d)

Current is unchanged

3.

What is the power dissipated in a circuit carrying 2 A with an overall resistance of 100 Ω?

a)

100 W

b)

200 W

c)

400 W

d)

800 W

4.

What process takes place when corrosion occurs in a metal?

a)

Electrostatic change

b)

Electrochemical change

c)

Electromagnetic change

d)

Electromechanical change

5.

What type of cells converts chemical energy from a fuel into electricity through a chemical reaction with oxygen?

a)

A fuel cell

b)

An oxygen cell

c)

A chemical cell

d)

An electric cell

6.

What happens to the resistance of a copper conductor if its temperature is increased?

a)

It stays the same

b)

It falls to zero

c)

It increases

d)

It decreases

7.

A series circuit consisting of 100 μF and a resistor of 200 Ω is connected to a DC supply. What is the time constant of the circuit?

a)

200 ms

b)

100 ms

c)

20 ms

d)

10 ms

8.

In the image below, A reads 5 A and V 10 V, what is the value of R2?

a)

2 Ω

b)

5 Ω

c)

15 Ω

d)

50 Ω

9.

What is the purpose of an insulation resistance test on an electric drill after it is has been repaired?

a)

To make sure the drill operates correctly

b)

To make sure all electrical connections are tight

c)

To confirm that the drill will not overheat when drilling

d)

To confirm that the connections are not in contact with earth

10.

Which fixed position power tool is used for sharpening a twist drill?

a)

Belt sander

b)

Angle grinder

c)

Detail sander

d)

Bench grinder

11.

What is a connection method of operating a reed switch in an alarm circuit?

a)

High temperature smoke surrounding the switch

b)

Providing a magnet close to the switch

c)

Provides heating near the switch

d)

Providing a coil point

12.

Why does a security panel have “zones”:

a)

To provide access control

b)

To permit admissible entry

c)

To monitor areas at the same time

d)

To be able to monitor areas individually

13.

Why is it most important to keep the work area tidy?

a)

To avoid trip hazards

b)

To look more professional

c)

To prevent damage to tools

d)

To avoid damage to extension leads

14.

What physical effect can be caused by long exposure to vibration when using a pneumatic drill?

a)

Breathing difficulties

b)

Increasing in blood flow

c)

Severe pain and numbness in the hands

d)

Stiffness in the upper legs and lower back

15.

Which statement applies to the correct use of ladders?

a)

A ladder can always be used a working platform

b)

Only wooden ladders require inspection before use

c)

An unsecured ladder may be used to access scaffolding

d)

Three points of contact must always be maintained with the ladder

16.

What is a hazard associated with working in a confined space?

a)

Falling from a large tower scaffold

b)

Poor oxygen levels make it difficult to breathe

c)

Electric shock from a metal emergency stop button

d)

Tripping over tools and work equipment on the floor

17.

What is a common cause of electrical accidents?

a)

Using a “permit to work” system to control electrical work

b)

Working on equipment that has not been correctly isolated

c)

Using competent people to carry out electrical work

d)

Carrying out a risk assessment before work starts

18.

Why is there a low risk of serious electric shock when a circuit operates at extra-low voltage (ELV)?

a)

ELV produces small currents through the body

b)

ELV produces high currents through the body

c)

ELV circuits current give shocks to earth

d)

ELV circuits are always isolated

19.

What control measure is taken to confirm that a new insulation is safe before use?

a)

All work is inspected and tested

b)

Megger tests conform to international standards

c)

All work has been carried out by skilled people

d)

The designer has completed accurate calculations

20.

What must a risk assessment process include?

a)

Ensure people are properly trained

b)

Ensure the work area is clean and tidy

c)

Reducing the time to carry out an activity

d)

Identification of hazards present during the activity

21.

How can a sinusoidal voltage be generated in a single turn coil?

a)

By rotating the coil in a uniform magnetic field

b)

By rotating the coil in a rotating magnetic field

c)

By rotating the coil along lines of magnetic flux

d)

By rotating the coil across lines of magnetic flux

22.

When is a current out-of-phase with a voltage?

a)

When it opposes the voltage

b)

When it has a different frequency to the voltage

c)

When it reaches the peak value after the voltage

d)

When it reaches its peak value at the same time as the voltage

23.

What is the relationship between volt drop and current in a resistor?

a)

V × I = R

b)

V = I × R

c)

V = I ÷ R

d)

V = R ÷ I

24.

How is the power factor of installation improved?

a)

Connecting capacitors in parallel with the load

b)

Connecting inductors in parallel with the load

c)

Connecting capacitors in series with the load

d)

Connecting inductors in series with the load

25.

What is power factor in a circuit where the phase angle between current and voltage is ɸ?

a)

Sin ɸ

b)

Cos ɸ

c)

Tan ɸ

d)

Cot ɸ

26.

What is one of the dangers of resonance in a series circuit?

a)

No voltage across the capacitor

b)

No current taken from the supply

c)

Excessive volt drop across the resistor

d)

Excessive current taken from the supply

27.

What is the relationship between phase voltage (VP) and line voltage (VL) in a star connected three-phase alternator?

a)

Vp = Z VL

b)

VL = Z VP

c)

Vp = √3 VL

d)

VL = √3 VP

28.

What machine will produce a balanced load when connected to a three-phase supply?

a)

Capacitor start induction motor

b)

Star-delta start induction motor

c)

Universal motor

d)

Shunt motor

29.

What is an effect of high impedance in the neutral conductor of a three-phase four-wire system supplying an unbalanced load?

a)

Increased voltage on the line conductors

b)

Reduced voltage on the line conductors

c)

Increased voltage at the neutral point

d)

Decreased voltage at the neutral point

30.

What produces lagging reactive power in a three-phase system?

a)

Inductance

b)

Resistance

c)

Capacitance

d)

Conductance

31.

What is the expression for impedance in a series circuit derived from the right angled triangle?

a)

Z2 = R2 – X2

b)

Z2 = R2 ÷ X2

c)

Z2 = R2 × X2

d)

Z2 = R2 + X2

32.

What is the volt drop in a conductor with a resistance of 0.03 Ω, inductive reactance 0.04 Ω and impedance 0.05 Ω carrying 50 A?

a)

1.5 V

b)

2.0 V

c)

2.5 V

d)

3.0 V

33.

Which type of diagram and lighting system is shown in the image below?

a)

Wiring diagram with loop at light

b)

Current diagram with loop at light

c)

Wiring diagram with loop at switch

d)

Current diagram with loop at switch

34.

What is the minimum mounting height for a socket outlet above a kitchen workshop?

a)

100 mm

b)

200 mm

c)

300 mm

d)

400 mm

35.

Which method of heat transfer is shown in the image below?

a)

Induction

b)

Radiation

c)

Conduction

d)

Convection

36.

Which describes the basic operation of a UPS system?

a)

The main supply feeds the load when the UPS fails

b)

When the load increases, the UPS acts as a booster

c)

The UPS supplies the load when the main power supply fails

d)

The UPS supplies the load at the same time as the main power supply

37.

What would be the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a fully charged lead-acid cell?

a)

1.19

b)

1.22

c)

1.25

d)

1.28

38.

Which section of the Saudi Building Code requirements relates to fire protection?

a)

Section 201

b)

Section 401

c)

Section 601

d)

Section 801

39.

What is the basic operating principle of an incandescent lamp?

a)

Current in a filament makes a white glow

b)

Voltage produces a discharge in a gas

c)

Current passes through a gas

d)

Voltage produces an arc

40.

Which type of lamp is shown in the circuit diagram?

a)

Low pressure sodium

b)

High pressure sodium

c)

Low pressure mercury vapor

d)

High pressure mercury vapor

41.

What would be a typical application for a Xenon lamp?

a)

A street light

b)

A security light

c)

A shower room

d)

A cinema projector

42.

What are the main reasons for dividing an installation into a number of circuits?

a)

To increase installation time and decrease complexity

b)

To simplify fault finding and improve circuit protection

c)

To maintain the size and number of conductors

d)

To simplify inspection and testing

43.

Which relationship will ensure that cables are protected against overload?

a)

Ic × Ip = Il

b)

Ic × Ip ≤ Il

c)

Ic ≥ Ip ≥ Il

d)

Ic ≤ Ip ≤ Il

44.

What is the ambient air temperature at which the current carrying capacities of PVC cables in air are given in the Saudi Building Code 801?

a)

20°C

b)

25°C

c)

30°C

d)

35°C

45.

Which multi- core cable installation method will allow the highest conductor current carrying capacity?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

46.

What is a requirement for isolation for a TN-C system?

a)

PEN conductors must always be isolated

b)

PEN conductors must not be switched or isolated

c)

PEN conductors must be isolated after the phases

d)

PEN conductors must be isolated before the phases

47.

What is the advantage of using a standard terminal labeling system on relay circuits?

a)

To allow ease of circuit installation

b)

To make control circuit drawings simpler

c)

To allow easy identification of conductors

d)

To ensure all conductor sizes are the same

48.

What type of diagram is used to show the operation of programmable controllers?

a)

Schematic

b)

Wiring

c)

Layout

d)

Ladder

49.

What is a reason for limiting the starting current of large three-phase induction motors?

a)

To allow a progressive soft start

b)

To prevent single phasing

c)

To prevent over-speeding

d)

To limit local volt drops

50.

What is the braking system that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy?

a)

Plug

b)

Dynamic

c)

Eddy current

d)

Regenerative

51.

What is the effect of a step down transformer in a distribution system?

a)

Reduce voltage and reduce current

b)

Increase voltage and reduce current

c)

Reduce voltage and increase current

d)

Increase voltage and increase current

52.

What is the direction of electron flow in a coil of wire connected to a dc supply?

a)

Clockwise round the coil

b)

Anticlockwise round the coil

c)

From positive to negative around the circuit

d)

From negative to positive around the circuit

53.

What is the ratio of flux density (B) to magnetizing force (H) in a magnetic circuit?

a)

Permeability

b)

Reluctance

c)

Permittivity

d)

Resistance

54.

What equipment uses the principle of mutual inductance?

a)

Overhead transmission line

b)

Underground cable

c)

Alternator

d)

Transformer

55.

Which quantity is not measured using a dynamometer instrument?

a)

Power

b)

Current

c)

Voltage

d)

Resistance

56.

What are the units for the continuous rating on the nameplate of a large three-phase induction motor?

a)

kW

b)

kVA

c)

kVAR

d)

kWh

57.

What type of dc generator relies on residual magnetism to produce a voltage?

a)

Shunt excited

b)

Series excited

c)

Separately excited

d)

Continuously excited

58.

What relationship defines torque when force (F) is produced by a shaft of radius (r) rotating at speed (n)?

a)

T = n × F

b)

T = r × F

c)

T = F ÷ n

d)

T = F ÷ r

59.

What are the mechanical losses produced by a dc motor when it is rotating?

a)

Friction and windage losses

b)

Copper losses

c)

Iron losses

d)

Eddy current and hysteresis losses

60.

What is the magnetomotive force (mmf) produced by a 200 turn coil carrying 2 A from 6 V supply?

a)

200 A

b)

400 A

c)

1200 A

d)

2400 A

61.

How is the armature in a dc generator connected to an external circuit?

a)

Through slip rings

b)

Through a resistor

c)

Through a commutator

d)

Through a fixed contact

62.

What current does a short circuit produce?

a)

Zero current

b)

Steady current

c)

Overload current

d)

Excessive current

63.

What is the relationship between Work and Force?

a)

Force = Work x Time

b)

Force = Work ÷ Time

c)

Work = Force ÷ Distance

d)

Work = Force x Distance

64.

What effect produces a force of attraction when current is passed through a relay coil?

a)

Heating

b)

Magnetic

c)

Radiation

d)

Chemical

65.

What process does a fuel cell use to produce electrical energy?

a)

Heat reaction

b)

Magnetic action

c)

Chemical reaction

d)

Photovoltaic action

66.

What is the function of a potentiometer?

a)

To produce a magnetic field

b)

To provide variable voltages

c)

To provide a heating element

d)

To add fixed resistance into a circuit

67.

What is the relationship for stored energy in a capacitor?

a)

½ CV2

b)

2 CV2

c)

½ C2V

d)

2 C2V

68.

A voltmeter across a load reads 100 V and an ammeter indicates a load current of 2.5 A. What is the resistance of the load?

a)

25 Ω

b)

40 Ω

c)

250 Ω

d)

400 Ω

69.

Which statement describes the correct procedure when terminating cables?

a)

Insulation is removed using pliers

b)

Leave 20 mm of exposed bare conductor at a termination

c)

All strands of a conductor do not need to enter an electrical connection

d)

Green/yellow insulation must cover bare protective conductors at terminations

70.

Which safety precaution must be taken when using a bench grinder?

a)

The wheel must run for one minute before use

b)

Goggles only need to be worn for grinding steel

c)

The wheel must rotate freely before switching on

d)

The rest must be at least 10 mm away from the wheel

71.

What modification is required to the circuit below so that an open circuit wiring fault can be detected by the alarm panel?

a)

Add a resistor in series with the existing resistor

b)

Add a resistor in parallel with the contact

c)

Change the contact to normally open

d)

Change the value of the resistor

72.

What type of panel to remote base communication is used by security systems?

a)

Pulse Code Modulation to Frequency Division Multiplex

b)

Public Service Telephone Network to Ethernet

c)

Digital to analogue

d)

Analogue to digital

73.

What is the correct procedure for lifting an object?

a)

Walk quickly to reduce carrying time

b)

Assess the weight before lifting

c)

Carry with one hand using a handle

d)

Keep feet close together on firm ground during lifting

74.

What is not an effective way to protect against ultraviolet (UV) radiation from sunlight?

a)

Drink water to keep hydrated

b)

Apply a suitable barrier cream

c)

Wear clothing that covers the body

d)

Wear sunglasses when working outside

75.

What is the main safety measure to take before moving a scaffold tower?

a)

Toolboxes are secured

b)

Outriggers are in position

c)

All connecting bolts are tightened

d)

Check there are no overhead obstructions before moving it

76.

What location would be classed as a confined space?

a)

A high voltage switch room

b)

A store room in an office

c)

An enclosed cable duct

d)

An outdoor substation

77.

What type of protection does a 30 mA RCD provide?

a)

Overload

b)

Additional

c)

Short circuit

d)

Overcurrent

78.

What item of equipment is not to be supplied from an extra-low voltage supply?

a)

A motor control circuit

b)

A hand-held inspection lamp

c)

Underwater lighting in a pool

d)

A three-phase induction motor

79.

What is the risk of adding too many circuits to an existing electrical installation?

a)

The new circuit does not meet regulations

b)

The circuit breaker is not matched to the load

c)

The new circuit may cause the existing installation to overload

d)

The additional circuit is the longest circuit on the installation

80.

Which statement best describes how to assess the level of risk?

a)

Consider the likelihood of someone being harmed and the type of resulting injury

b)

Investigate accidents and change working procedures to avoid it being repeated

c)

Establish a "near miss" reporting system

d)

Identify the hazards and issue PPE

81.

How are the values of sinusoidal alternating currents normally expressed?

a)

As an rms value

b)

As a peak value

c)

As an average value

d)

As an instantaneous value

82.

What is the purpose of a phasor diagram?

a)

To show periodic time

b)

To show current wave shape

c)

To show elements in the impedance triangle

d)

To show the angle between voltage and current

83.

What is the ratio of voltage to current in an ac circuit with an iron cored coil of negligible resistance?

a)

Impedance

b)

Self-inductance

c)

Mutual inductance

d)

Inductive reactance

84.

What is required to improve the power factor of an induction motor?

a)

An inductor conducted in series

b)

A capacitor conducted in series

c)

A capacitor connected in parallel

d)

An inductor connected in parallel

85.

What unit is used for measuring apparent power in an ac circuit?

a)

kVA

b)

kVAr

c)

kAh

d)

kW

86.

What is one condition for resonance in a parallel ac circuit containing resistance (R) inductance (L) and capacitance (C)?

a)

IL = IC

b)

IL = IR

c)

IL = 0

d)

IC = 0

87.

How are three phase voltages generated in one alternator?

a)

By using three stator coils separated by 120º

b)

By using three stator coils separated by 60º

c)

By using three magnetic fields separated by 120º

d)

By using three magnetic fields separated by 60º

88.

What is the relationship between phase current IP and line current IL in a balanced delta-connected load in a three phase circuit?

a)

IP = IL x 1.73

b)

IP = IL ÷ 1.73

c)

IP = IL + 1.73

d)

IP = IL – 1.73

89.

The line currents in a three phase four-wire system are IBr IBl and IG. What expression gives the current IN in the neutral conductor?

a)

IN = IBr – IG + IBl

b)

IN = IBr + IG – IBl

c)

IN = IBr – IG – IBl

d)

IN = IBr + IG + IBl

90.

What is the purpose of measuring the power factor of ac power systems?

a)

To use more power

b)

To increase the reactive power

c)

To identify the phase angle between true power and apparent power

d)

To increase the phase angle between true power and apparent power

91.

What is the frequency of a sinusoidal voltage with a periodic time of 16.7 ms?

a)

16.7 Hz

b)

60 Hz

c)

167 Hz

d)

600 Hz

92.

What is the impedance of a coil of wire with a resistance of 12 Ω and a reactance of 5 Ω?

a)

5 Ω

b)

8 Ω

c)

12 Ω

d)

13 Ω

93.

Which test verifies that a one-way lighting switch is connected in the phase conductor?

a)

Polarity test

b)

Functional test

c)

Insulation resistance test

d)

Test for electrical separation

94.

What is the minimum insulation resistance for a circuit rated at 220 V?

a)

0.25 MΩ

b)

0.5 MΩ

c)

1.0 MΩ

d)

1.5 MΩ

95.

What is the heat energy produced by an element supplied at 220 V carrying 5 A for 300 s?

a)

330 J

b)

1100 J

c)

330 kJ

d)

1100 kJ

96.

What is the main reason for installing an alternative supply system?

a)

To reduce energy costs

b)

To stabilize the voltage

c)

To act as a booster at peak times

d)

To ensure essential equipment always operates

97.

What is used to identify the state of charge of a secondary cell?

a)

Manometer

b)

Hydrometer

c)

Thermometer

d)

Dynamometer

98.

Which connection arrangement for the detectors of a fully addressable fire alarm system is correct?

a)

The same detector type must be used in each zone

b)

Any detector can be connected on any zone

c)

The detector wiring will determine the zones

d)

No detector zoning is required for the installation

99.

Which color rendition is associated with a gas filled tungsten filament lamp?

a)

Good in the red light spectrum only

b)

Poor in the blue light spectrum only

c)

Good over all the light spectrum

d)

Poor over all the light spectrum

100.

What is the typical efficacy range of a compact fluorescent lamp?

a)

10 - 20 lm/W

b)

40 - 60 lm/W

c)

80 - 100 lm/W

d)

120 - 180 lm/W

101.

Which type of lamp produces the highest lumens per watt output?

a)

Low pressure sodium

b)

High pressure sodium

c)

High pressure mercury

d)

Low pressure mercury

102.

Which external factor will damage a TPS cable installed at high level clipped to the outside of a building?

a)

Wind

b)

Corrosion

c)

Solar radiation

d)

Mechanical impact

103.

What is used to maintain the fire rating of a building with a plasterboard partition when cables pass through it?

a)

Fire foam

b)

Fire blanket

c)

Sand barrier

d)

Silicone sealant

104.

What information about conductors must be recorded on a distribution board circuit schedule?

a)

Color and size

b)

Number and size

c)

Size and material

d)

Number and color

105.

Which installation method has the highest derating factor for power cables?

a)

In free air

b)

In trunking

c)

Clipped direct

d)

Embedded in insulation

106.

What is a general requirement for isolation within an electrical installation?

a)

Every circuit must have means of isolation

b)

Essential circuits only require means of isolation

c)

Non-essential circuits only require means of isolation

d)

A single means of isolation at the origin is acceptable

107.

What type of contact is the jogging button on a motor starter?

a)

Normally open

b)

Normally closed

c)

Make before break

d)

Break before make

108.

What type of relay would be used to automatically control a production line?

a)

Reed

b)

Bi-polar

c)

Latching

d)

Programmable

109.

Which type of motor starter offers continuous and smooth acceleration?

a)

Soft starter

b)

Star delta starter

c)

Direct on line starter

d)

Autotransformer starter

110.

What is the operating principle of a variable frequency drive of a synchronous motor?

a)

Load current is proportional to frequency

b)

Speed is directly proportional to frequency

c)

Supply voltage is proportional to frequency

d)

Speed is inversely proportional to frequency

111.

Why are high voltages used for transmission systems?

a)

To increase currents in the conductors

b)

To reduce conductor sizes

c)

To reduce insulator sizes

d)

To improve safety

112.

What magnetic device assists in extinguishing an arc in a circuit breaker?

a)

Arc chute

b)

Arc runner

c)

Arc blow out coil

d)

Arc splitter plate

113.

What factor from a hysteresis loop for a magnetic material is directly related to energy loss?

a)

Residual flux

b)

Area of the loop

c)

Maximum flux density

d)

Maximum magnetizing force

114.

What factor determines the inductance of an iron cored coil?

a)

Resistance of the coil wire

b)

Number of turns on the coil

c)

Frequency of applied voltage

d)

Insulation resistance of the coil

115.

What is a moving coil instrument used to measure when fitted with a multiplier?

a)

Alternating voltage

b)

Alternating current

c)

Current in a dc circuit

d)

Voltage in a dc circuit

116.

What maintenance procedure improves the operation of the commutator on a dc machine?

a)

Lubricating the commutator surface

b)

Moving brushes round the commutator

c)

Undercutting the commutator insulation

d)

Interchanging brushes around the commutator

117.

What quantities are required to produce the load characteristic of a dc shunt generator?

a)

Emf and output current

b)

Emf and armature current

c)

Terminal voltage and output current

d)

Terminal voltage and armature current

118.

Why will a series motor over speed when on no load?

a)

The flux is too high

b)

The flux is too low

c)

The armature current is too high

d)

The armature voltage is too low

119.

What conditions are required to give maximum efficiency in a dc machine?

a)

There are no copper or iron losses

b)

The machine runs at constant speed

c)

The machine runs with full load current

d)

Variable losses and fixed losses are equal

120.

What is the output power used by a motor developing 50 N-m at 1500 rev/min?

a)

7.85 kW

b)

78.5 kW

c)

785 kW

d)

7850 kW

121.

What is the effect when electrons collect on the surface of an insulating material due to friction?

a)

Current electricity

b)

Chemical charge

c)

Magnetic charge

d)

Static electricity

122.

What condition is needed for a circuit breaker to operate to open the circuit?

a)

No load

b)

Short circuit

c)

Normal load

d)

Open circuit

123.

Which units are used to determine electrical power in Watts?

a)

Newton/second

b)

Joules seconds

c)

Joules/second

d)

Newton seconds

124.

What mechanism causes metals to corrode?

a)

Chemical reaction

b)

Magnetic reaction

c)

Photovoltaic reaction

d)

Electrostatic reaction

125.

What is the effect of moving a single length of conductor at right angles through a magnetic field?

a)

Current is produced

b)

Heat is produced

c)

Force is produced

d)

EMF is produced

126.

Four 1.5 V cells are connected in parallel. What is the voltage when measured at the terminals of the combination?

a)

1.5 V

b)

3.0 V

c)

6.0 V

d)

7.5 V

127.

Four 1.5 V cells are connected in series. What is the voltage when measured at the terminals of the combination?

a)

2 V

b)

4 V

c)

6.0 V

d)

7.5 V

128.

After what period is a capacitor considered to be fully charged when connected to a battery?

a)

One second

b)

Five seconds

c)

One time constants

d)

Five time constants

129.

What is the unit to measure the quantity of electricity or (quantity of electric charge)?

a)

Volt

b)

Joule

c)

Ampere

d)

Coulomb

130.

Which statement is correct in relation to the soldering process?

a)

Solder flux must be used during soldering to prevent oxidation

b)

The tip of the soldering iron must glow red so that it will melt the solder

c)

A heat sink is used during soldering to prevent the solder getting too hot

d)

Silver solder can be used when soldering electronic components to a circuit board

131.

What must be checked when setting up a pedestal grinder to perform off-hand grinding?

a)

The grinding wheel is new and correctly fitted and tight

b)

The grinder rest is positioned to prevent the work piece from jamming

c)

The grinder visor has been removed if the user is wearing goggles

d)

The grinder rotates at a speed greater than that shown on the grinding wheel

132.

What does an end of line resistor connected in series with a normally closed call point do?

a)

Helps to prolong battery life

b)

Prevents short circuit currents

c)

Allows the control panel to detect a short circuit on the wiring

d)

Prevents the control panel from detecting an open circuit in the wiring

133.

What is the supply arrangement for a security system?

a)

Rectified ac supply

b)

Primary cell battery

c)

Rectified ac supply with back up battery

d)

High voltage supply with back up battery

134.

Which PPE is worn in a noisy environment to protect against damage to hearing?

a)

Hard hat

b)

Ear defenders

c)

Safety goggles

d)

Protective gloves

135.

Which is a classification of a hazardous substance?

a)

Vapor

b)

Fume

c)

Toxic

d)

Gas

136.

What is a safety check that must be carried out on a wooden ladder before use?

a)

Check for splits in the wood

b)

Check the wooden uprights a painted

c)

Check the ladder is fitted with rubber feet

d)

Check the length of the ladder

137.

Which would be classified as a "confined space"?

a)

A switch room

b)

A substation

c)

An air duct

d)

An office

138.

What is the best method of reducing risk when carrying out maintenance on an electrical installation?

a)

Only work on single-phase circuits

b)

Place a notice on the local isolator

c)

Switch off the local isolator

d)

Safely isolate and lock off

139.

What is the voltage range of a 33/13.8 KV transformer?

a)

Extra Low

b)

Medium

c)

High

d)

Low

140.

What control procedure is applied when working on a circuit in an industrial installation?

a)

Place a notice on the local isolator

b)

Switch off the Local isolator

c)

Notify the energy supplier

d)

Issue a permit to work

141.

What is the first control measure to be considered when minimizing risk?

a)

Stop the activity

b)

Barrier of a safe area

c)

Redesign the equipment

d)

Wear personal protective equipment

142.

What is the period of a sinusoidal ac waveform?

a)

The time taken to complete one cycle

b)

The time taken to reach maximum value

c)

The time between two successive zero values

d)

The time taken between positive and negative maxima

143.

What does the term "lag" means when voltage V1 lags V2 by 90 degrees?

a)

V2 reaches its maximum value a half cycle after V1

b)

V1 reaches its maximum value a half cycle after V2

c)

V2 reaches its maximum value one quarter after V1

d)

V1 reaches its maximum value one quarter after V2

144.

What does the term "lag" means when voltage V1 lags V2 by 90 degrees?

a)

V2 reaches its maximum value a half cycle after V1

b)

V1 reaches its maximum value a half cycle after V2

c)

V2 reaches its maximum value one quarter after V1

d)

V1 reaches its maximum value one quarter after V2

145.

For a given real power output, what is the effect of low power factor?

a)

low voltage

b)

low current

c)

high current

d)

high voltage

146.

What is the relationship for power factor in a single phase circuit?

a)

Pf = I / V

b)

Pf = kW / kVA

c)

Pf = V / I

d)

Pf = kVA / kW

147.

What is the second harmonic of an AC waveform having a fundamental frequency of 60 Hz?

a)

30 Hz

b)

60 Hz

c)

90 Hz

d)

120 Hz

148.

What is the correct phase sequence of a three phase generator when V1 reaches maximum voltage before V2 and after V3?

a)

V3, V1, V2

b)

V1, V3, V2

c)

V2, V1, V3

d)

V3, V2, V1

149.

What is necessary for a balanced load in a three-phase system with star-connected loads?

a)

Phases have different loads and the same power factor

b)

Phases have load currents in phase with their voltages

c)

Phases have the same current and power factor

d)

Phases have power factors that total zero

150.

What is the relationship between line current IL and phase current IP in a delta connected load in a three-phase system?

a)

Iline=IPhase

b)

Iline =√3∗Iphase

c)

IPhase =√3∗Iline

d)

IPhase =√2∗Iline

151.

What is measured to determine how much electricity a consumer has used?

a)

Energy

b)

Power

c)

Power factor

d)

Maximum demand

152.

What is the RMS value of a sinusoidal alternating voltage with a peak value of 100 V?

a)

63.7 V

b)

70.7 V

c)

141.4 V

d)

157.2 V

153.

What is the inductive reactance of a coil with a reactance of 100 mH when the supply frequency is 50 Hz?

a)

3.14 Ω

b)

6.28 Ω

c)

31.4 Ω

d)

62.8 Ω

154.

Which type of diagram and lighting system is shown in the image below?

a)

Wiring diagram with loop at light

b)

Current diagram with loop at light

c)

Wiring diagram with loop at switch

d)

Current diagram with loop at switch

155.

What is the minimum cross sectional area for copper conductors supplying 220 V, 13A socket outlets in a residential bedroom?

a)

6 mm2

b)

4 mm2

c)

2.5 mm2

d)

1.5 mm2

156.

A 1.5 KW electric heater switched on for one hour, what will be the energy consumed?

a)

90 MJ

b)

5.4 MJ

c)

90 KJ

d)

5.4 KJ

157.

What is the correct connection for an inverter in an “on-line” UPS

a)

Bypassed during normal use

b)

Connected to the load at all times

c)

Bypassed when the normal supply fails

d)

Connected only when the normal supply is fails

158.

What will be the terminal voltage of a fully charged nickel cadmium cell?

a)

2.1 V

b)

1.7 V

c)

1.5 V

d)

1.2 V

159.

What is the purpose of the radioactive source in a smoke Alarm?

a)

To repel smoke particles

b)

To attract smoke particles

c)

To provide a high resistance within the detector

d)

To provide a constant current flow within the detector

160.

What is the source of light in an incandescent lamp?

a)

An electrical discharge

b)

A white hot filament

c)

Mercury vapor

d)

Sodium vapor

161.

Which type of lamp is shown in the circuit diagram?

a)

Low pressure sodium

b)

High pressure sodium

c)

Low pressure mercury vapor

d)

High pressure mercury vapor

162.

What type of driver is used to supply a led lamp made up of a number of single LED’s connected in parallel?

a)

Constant voltage

b)

Lagging voltage

c)

Constant current

d)

Leading current

163.

Which type of contact occurs as the result of a fault on an electrical circuit?

a)

Accidental

b)

Intentional

c)

Indirect

d)

Direct

164.

What is the requirement of a protective conductor when a fault to earth occurs?

a)

To reach an excessive temperature

b)

To carry the expected fault current

c)

To break a circuit within a fired time

d)

To disconnect the supply under fault conditions

165.

What is the reason for dividing an installation into a number of circuits?

a)

To increase the installation time

b)

To increase the CSA of the conductors

c)

To minimize the requirements for control gear

d)

To minimize inconvenience in the event of a fault

166.

The live conductors of a 220 V circuit have a total combined resistance of 0.3 ohm at normal operating temperature and carry a load current of 25 A. What is the voltage drop across the conductor?

a)

83 V

b)

66 V

c)

8.8 V

d)

7.5 V

167.

What method can be used to provide protection against indirect contact?

a)

Using enclosures

b)

Using double insulation

c)

Using CIass1 equipment

d)

Using a SELV supply at 25 V

168.

Which type of relay can operate on full load and under short circuit conditions?

a)

Overload

b)

Polarized

c)

Contactor

d)

Latching

169.

What is the purpose of the jogging control button on a motor starter?

a)

To rotate the motor when operated

b)

To override the start button

c)

To override the stop button

d)

To replace the stop and start buttons

170.

What type of motor starter would be used to reduce the starting current of a large three-phase squirrel cage induction motor?

a)

Rotor resistance

b)

Direct on line

c)

Multi speed

d)

Star-Delta

171.

What is the method of braking a three-phase induction motor by putting the motor into reverse?

a)

Plug braking

b)

Dynamic braking

c)

Regenerative braking

d)

Eddy current braking

172.

What equipment is required to step-up voltages in a high voltage transmission system?

a)

Isolator

b)

Regulator

c)

Generator

d)

Transformer

173.

What law determines the production of an emf in a magnetic field?

a)

Faraday’s Law

b)

Ampere’s Law

c)

Henry’s Law

d)

Ohm’s Law

174.

What is the unit of magnetic flux?

a)

Farad

b)

Henry

c)

Weber

d)

Siemen

175.

What does Lenz's Law determine?

a)

The magnitude of current set up by an induced emf

b)

The direction of current set up by an induced emf

c)

The magnitude of an induced emf

d)

The direction of an induced emf

176.

Which quantity would be measured by a dynamometer instrument?

a)

Force

b)

Torque

c)

Electrical power

d)

Electrical resistance

177.

Which component of a DC machine ensures that the voltage output acts in one direction only?

a)

Yoke

b)

Armature

c)

Brush gear

d)

Commutator

178.

What is the function of the prime mover in a turbine driven alternator?

a)

To rotate the generator

b)

To supply the generator flux

c)

To convert mechanical energy to electrical energy

d)

To convert electrical energy to mechanical energy

179.

What is a method of reversing the direction of rotation of a dc shunt motor?

a)

Interchanging the inter poles

b)

Interchanging the supply terminals

c)

Reversing the armature connections

d)

Reversing the armature and field connections

180.

What is a source of energy loss in a dc motor?

a)

Over speeding

b)

Winding resistance

c)

Stray electrostatic fields

d)

Supply voltage fluctuations

181.

What is the power output of a motor with a torque of 50 Nm rotating at 1500 rpm?

a)

47.1 kW

b)

75 kW

c)

470 kW

d)

7.86 KW

182.

What condition is needed for a DC circuit breaker to operate to open the circuit?

a)

No load

b)

Short circuit

c)

Normal load

d)

Open circuit

183.

RCD are designed to quickly and automatically disconnect a circuit when the electric current is not balanced between:

a)

Line & Neutral

b)

Line & Ground

c)

Line & Earthing

d)

Neutral & Ground

184.

When metals (iron & steel) are exposed to air, it reacts with oxygen then corrosion occurs in the presence of:

a)

Two metals

b)

Moisture

c)

Dioxide carbon

d)

Electrons

185.

A transformer with an input power of 500 K.W and losses power of 20 K.W, what is the efficiency of transformer?

a)

92%

b)

90%

c)

96%

d)

85%

186.

Electrical energy in a 'resistive' circuit converts energy into?

a)

Chemical energy

b)

Reverse polarity

c)

Magnetism

d)

Heat

187.

What material is used in the construction of low-power resistors used in many electronic circuits?

a)

Carbon

b)

Silicon

c)

Germanium

d)

Aluminum

188.

The below safety sign refer to?

a)

Non-flammable non-toxic gas

b)

Toxic material

c)

Non compressed gas

d)

Flammable liquid

189.

For the diagram shown below, which one of the following statements is true?

a)

V2 leads V1

b)

V1 leads V2

c)

V1 lags V2

d)

V1 in Phase with V2

190.

What will be the value of a capacitor in farads when it has a capacitive reactance of

200Ω and is connected to a 50Hz supply?

a)

15 μF

b)

15.92 μF

c)

62.8 KF

d)

10 KF

191.

For the diagram shown below, which one of the

following statements is true?

a)

Current lags voltage by 900 in phase

b)

Voltage leads current by 00 in phase

c)

Current leads voltage by 00 in phase

d)

Voltage lags current by 900 in phase

192.

An inductor connected in series with a resistor to an a.c. supply, will cause the:

a)

Current to lag the voltage

b)

Power efficiency improve

c)

Voltage to lag the current

d)

Power factor to approach

193.

The incandescent lamps usually are filled with an inert gas mixture consisting primarily of

a)

oxygen

b)

argon

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

helium

194.

The light switch wiring in the figure, is about controlling a lamp by

a)

Two way switching (3 wire control)

b)

One way switching

c)

Two way switching (2 wire control)

d)

Three way Intermediate switch wiring

195.

A series circuit consisting of 200 μF and a resistor of 200 Ohm is connected to a DC supply. How much time the capacitor will take to be fully charged?

a)

0.2 s

b)

0.4 s

c)

40 s

d)

4 s

196.

The maximum allowable voltage drop of a cable as per the Saudi Building code 401 is (Vs=220V) :

a)

8.8 V

b)

6.6 V

c)

9.2 V

d)

4.8 V

197.

Which type of protection is provided for electrical motor against overheating?

a)

Over Voltage Protection

b)

Over-Load Protection

c)

Short Circuit protection

d)

No Load Protection

198.

The direction of rotation of dc series motor can be reversed by interchanging ___ terminals:

a)

Armature

b)

Supply

c)

Field

d)

Either Armature or Field

199.

What does Len'z law determine?

a)

The direction of current set up by an induced EMF

b)

The direction of an induced EMF

c)

The magnitude of current set up by an induced EMF

d)

The magnitude of an induced EMF

200.

The function of ____ in dc generator is to collect current from commutator and deliver it to external circuit

a)

End rings

b)

Dummy Coils

c)

Brushes

d)

Equalizer rings

201.

In an Iron Cored coil, the Iron core is removed so that the coil becomes an air cored coil. The inductance of the coil will:

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remain the same

d)

Initially increase and then decrease

202.

Identify the correct symbol for the ampacity of the cable.

a)

In

b)

It

c)

Iz

d)

Ib

203.

What is steel wire used for in electrical distribution cable?

a)

Live conductors

b)

Insulation

c)

Outer sheath

d)

Armor

204.

What the purpose of a circuit breaker in a DC circuit?

a)

To protect against high voltage

b)

To limit current flow

c)

To protect against over-current

d)

To limit voltage drops

205.

What power is dissipated in a heating element with a resistance of 5 Ohm if the volt drop across the element is 50V?

a)

75W

b)

125W

c)

250W

d)

500W

206.

What is the main physiological effect when receiving an electrical shock?

a)

Joint swelling

b)

Muscle spasm (Contraction)

c)

Nausea

d)

Dysfunction

207.

What term is used when a mechanical force applied to a crystal generates e.m.f?

a)

Thermoelectric effect

b)

Electro-mechanical effect

c)

Electro force effect

d)

Piezoelectric effect

208.

What is the effect on the output of connecting cells in parallel?

a)

Increased terminal voltage

b)

Increased current capacity

c)

Reduced current capacity

d)

Reduced terminal voltage

209.

What is the effect on the value of a capacitor if the plate area is doubled?

a)

Double the capacitance

b)

Half the capacitance

c)

Double the working voltage

d)

Half the working voltage

210.

What is the effect on the value of a capacitor if the distance between plates is doubled?

a)

Double the capacitance

b)

Half the capacitance

c)

Double the working voltage

d)

Half the working voltage

211.

What is the effect on the value of a capacitor if both area and distance of separation are doubled?

a)

Double the capacitance

b)

Half the capacitance

c)

Capacitance value would remain the same

d)

Half the working voltage

212.

What are the voltage supplied to a circuit which has 2 Ohm and a 10 Ohm resistor connected in series when the volt drop across the 2 Ohm resistance is measured at 10 V?

a)

10 V

b)

20 V

c)

40 V

d)

60 V

213.

Why is the armor on steel wire armored cables secured in a termination gland?

a)

To stop ingress of moisture

b)

To meet fire regulation

c)

To prevent stress on conductors

d)

To protect the cable sheath

214.

On what part of the offhand grinder is the work placed during the grinding operation?

a)

Wheel guard

b)

Wheel axis

c)

Tool rest

d)

Guide Block

215.

What is the standard resistance range used for end of line resistors in security alarm circuits?

a)

0.1 Ω - 1.1 Ω

b)

1.5 Ω - 2.7 Ω

c)

1 KΩ - 22 KΩ

d)

220 KΩ - 2.7 M Ω

216.

What is the purpose of a dialer in an alarm system?

a)

To provide panel to discrete sensor communication

b)

To provide sensor to sensor communication

c)

To provide wireless co-ordination of all alarm sensors

d)

To provide panel to remote user communication

217.

Which item of PPE must be worn when sharpening a drill bit using a grinder?

a)

Safety boots

b)

safety helmet

c)

Safety Goggles & Glasses.

d)

Safety Harness

218.

What does the labeling symbol in the image below identify?

a)

Carcinogenic

b)

Acute toxicity

c)

Oxidizing gazes/liquid

d)

Flammable gases/liquid

219.

What is purpose of a toe board on a scaffold system?

a)

To provide additional structural rigidity

b)

To prevent people falling of the platform

c)

To prevent tools and equipment falling off the platform

d)

To physically define the hatch on a scaffold platform

220.

Which control measure gives authority to enter a confined space?

a)

Method statement

b)

Risk assessment

c)

Permit to work

d)

Specific PPE

221.

Which device minimizes the risk of electric shock through direct contact?

a)

High rupture capacity fuse

b)

Residual current device

c)

Circuit Breaker

d)

Isolator

222.

Which device enables the step-down of voltage in an electrical distribution system?

a)

Pylon

b)

Transformer

c)

Busbar

d)

Isolator

223.

What does a barrier provide protection against within a consumer control unit?

a)

Direct Contact

b)

Indirect Contact

c)

Earth Fault

d)

Short Circuit

224.

What is the main purpose of risk management?

a)

To control risks

b)

To document risks

c)

To provide staff training

d)

To provide appropriate PPE

225.

What value I defined by 0.707*peak signal in sinusoidal waveform?

a)

Period

b)

Average

c)

Instantaneous

d)

Root mean square

226.

What is the meant by the term in phase in relation to sinusoidal voltage and current waveforms?

a)

The voltage waveform leads the current waveform by 900C

b)

The voltage waveform lags the current waveform by 900C

c)

The two waveforms are separated by 1800C

d)

The two waveforms are separated by 00C

227.

What is defined by the formula XL=2πfL?

a)

Real power

b)

Reactive power

c)

Inductive reactance

d)

Capacitive reactance

228.

What effect does adding capacitance have on a purely resistive circuit?

a)

Voltage lags current by 900C

b)

Voltage leads current by 900C

c)

Voltage lags current by 1800C

d)

Voltage leads current by 1800C

229.

Which value is measured in Watts?

a)

Apparent power

b)

Power factor

c)

Reactive power

d)

True power

230.

Which component produces harmonics in an AC system?

a)

Resistive heater

b)

Fluorescent lamp

c)

Linear power supply

d)

Smoothing capacitor

231.

Which component not produces harmonics in an AC system?

a)

Resistive heater

b)

Electronic Ballast

c)

Variable speed drive

d)

Welding machine

232.

What the meaning of the term phase sequence?

a)

The order of phase waveforms in a poly-phase system

b)

The phase displacement between phases

c)

The amplitude of each phase voltage and current

d)

The phase relationship between voltage and current

233.

What is the nominal line voltage of a three phase star-connected system if the phase voltage is 230V?

a)

110V

b)

230V

c)

400V

d)

600V

234.

Which conductor in a three phase TT system only carries unbalanced load current?

a)

Earth

b)

Line

c)

Phase

d)

Neutral

235.

What is the purpose of measuring and correcting the power factor?

a)

To improve the electrical efficiency

b)

To decrease machine speed

c)

To check the electrical safety of the system

d)

To increase machine speed

236.

What is the length of the hypotenuse of a triangle when the lengths of the other two sides are 10.4 cm and 27.2 cm?

a)

16.8 cm

b)

25.13 cm

c)

29.12 cm

d)

37.6 cm

237.

What is the value of capacitance reactance for a circuit with a frequency of 60 Hz and a capacitance of 22μF?

a)

60.35 Ω

b)

120.57 Ω

c)

427.38 Ω

d)

757.57 Ω

238.

What must be checked as part of an insulation resistance test on a two way lighting circuit?

a)

The wiring in both “on” switch positions

b)

The contact rating of the switch

c)

The correct color code sleeving has been applied

d)

The CPC is the same size as the live conductors

239.

What installation method is suitable for an external socket outlet circuit wired in non-armored conductors and subject to potential mechanical impact?

a)

In PVC Trunking

b)

On a cable ladder

c)

On perforated steel tray

d)

In galvanized steel conduit

240.

What function does a UPS system provide?

a)

Three-phase power factor correction

b)

Back up in the event of a mains power failure

c)

Increased equipment power efficiency

d)

Star-Delta starting of a three phase motor

241.

What gas must be ventilated when charging secondary cells?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Argon

d)

Helium

242.

What type of alarm is shown in the image?

a)

Rate of rise

b)

Optical

c)

Ionization

d)

Carbon monoxide

243.

What type of circulatory heat transfer is shown in the image?

a)

Convection

b)

Conduction

c)

Infrared radiation

d)

Electromagnetic radiation

244.

What is the expected lamp life for a typical incandescent lamp?

a)

200 Hours

b)

1200 Hours

c)

10000 Hours

d)

50000 Hours

245.

What is the function of ballast unit for a high intensity discharge lamp?

a)

To limit current

b)

To amplify voltage

c)

To Attenuate voltage

d)

To smooth current

246.

What type of operating technology does an LED use?

a)

Semiconductor

b)

Resistive

c)

Capacitive

d)

Inductive

247.

What term defines the variation of the load current of an installation over a period of time?

a)

Volt drop

b)

Diversity factor

c)

Temperature co-efficient

d)

Grouping factor

248.

What method of protection is acceptable for fixed equipment that may get hot enough to become a fire hazard?

a)

Only mount the equipment outside a building

b)

Only use a fire rated cabling and containment systems

c)

Screen with high temperature capable materials with low thermal conductance

d)

Screen with low temperature capable materials with high thermal conductance