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Physics B Final Review

Total questions: 113

Worksheet time: 2hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A wave that requires a medium through wave which to travel
a)
A. electromagnetic  wave
b)
B. longitudinal wave
c)
C. mechanical wave
d)
D. transverse wave
2.
A wave in which the particles of the medium move perpendicularly to the direction the wave is traveling
a)
A. surface wave
b)
B. transverse wave
c)
C. electromagnetic  wave
d)
D. longitudinal wave
3.
A wave in which the particles of the medium vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave motion
a)
A. mechanical wave
b)
B. surface wave
c)
C. longitudinal wave
d)
D. wave
4.
A pattern of vibration that simulates a wave that is standing still
a)
A. interference
b)
B. standing wave
c)
C. diffraction
d)
D. reflection
5.
A section of a longitudinal wave where the particles are crowded together is called a
a)
A. rarefaction.
b)
B. vibration
c)
C.compression
d)
D. surface wave.
6.
A wave can make a leaf bob up and down on the water, but it cannot move the leaf toward the shore. This is because waves only transfer
a)
A. matter.    
b)
B. energy.     
c)
C. media.  
d)
D. crests.
7.

For a laboratory experiment, Antonia wants to measure the amplitude of a transverse wave. Which of the following distances is equal to the amplitude of a transverse wave?

a)

A. the distance from one crest to the next

b)

B. the horizontal distance between the highest point to the lowest point

c)

C. the distance from one trough to the next

d)

D. half the vertical distance between the highest and lowest points

8.

The lowest part of a wave is the ___________.

a)

crest

b)

amplitude

c)

trough

d)

period

9.

What is vibration?

a)

how loud a sound is

b)

the frequency of a sound

c)

the movement of matter back and forth

d)

the movement of matter in a circle

10.
When the frequency of a wave increases, what happens to the wavelength?
a)
The wavelength is not directly affected by the frequency of a wave.
b)
The wavelength increases.
c)
The wavelength decreases.
d)
More specific information is needed to form a conclusion about the wavelength.
11.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest frequency?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
12.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest wavelength?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
13.

A period is ________.

Choose all that apply.

a)

amount of time it takes a wavelength to complete one cycle.

b)

how many wave lengths happen in a second.

c)

an indication of the amount of energy in a wave.

d)

the distance between two crests or two troughs.

e)

the reciprocal of frequency.

14.
If the picture of the wave occurs in 1 second, what must the frequency be?
a)
1 Hz
b)
2 Hz
c)
3 Hz
d)
6 Hz
15.
Based on the picture, how many waves are present?
a)
8
b)
16
c)
7
d)
10
16.

Determine the amplitude of the wave, based on the picture.

a)

180

b)

90

c)

25

d)

50

17.
Which wave behavior do noise cancelling headphones use?
a)
diffraction
b)
refraction
c)
constructive interference
d)
destructive interference
18.
The high or low pitch of a sound is related to the ___________ of the wave
a)
decibel
b)
amplitude
c)
frequency
d)
rest position
19.

The combination of two or more waves that result in a single wave

a)

diffraction

b)

reflection

c)

resonance

d)

interference

20.
Look at the diagram.  At which positions will the overlapping waves have the most constructive interference?
a)
Positions #1 & #2
b)
Positions #2 & #3
c)
Positions #3 & #4
d)
Positions #4 & #5
21.
Look at the diagram.  At which positions will the overlapping waves have the most destructive interference?
a)
Positions #1 & #2
b)
Positions #2 & #3
c)
Positions #3 & #4
d)
Positions #4 & #5
22.
____________occurs when a wave bounces off a surface that it cannot pass through.
a)
Reflection
b)
Refraction
c)
Constructive Interference
d)
Destructive Interference
23.
The place a medium would rest if there were no disturbance is called the
a)
line of equilibrium
b)
peace line
c)
line of demarkation
d)
midspot
24.
If a wave has a frequency of .25 Hz, what must the period of the wave be?
a)
.25 seconds
b)
1 seconds
c)
4 seconds
d)
25 seconds
25.
6 waves appear in 2 seconds. What is the frequency of the waves?
a)
6 Hz
b)
3 Hz
c)
2 Hz
d)
1 Hz
26.

Wave A has an amplitude of 2 and wavelength of 2m.

Wave B has an amplitude of 8 and wavelength of 1m.

The amount of energy transported by wave B is _____ that transported by wave A.

a)

4 times larger

b)

16 times larger

c)

2 times smaller

d)

4 times smaller

27.

Two boats are anchored in the harbor, separated by a horizontal distance of 15m. The boats bob up and down as waves enter the harbor. When one boat is at its highest point, the other is at its lowest point and there is one wave crest between them. Each boat makes 5 complete cycles every 20s. The vertical distance between a boat's highest and lowest position is 4m.


Choose all the answers that correctly describe the properties of the boat.

a)

The wavelength is 10m.

b)

The period is 5s.

c)

The wave speed is 3.75 m/s.

d)

The frequency is .25Hz.

e)

The amplitude is 2m.

28.

One end of the rope is vibrated to produce a wave with a wavelength of .25m. The Frequency of the wave is 3.0Hz. What is the speed of the wave?

a)

3.00 m/s

b)

2.50 m/s

c)

.75 m/s

d)

1.25 m/s

29.
A wave has wavelength of 10 m and a speed of 340 m/s. What is the frequency of the wave?
a)
34 m/s
b)
3400 Hz
c)
3400 m/s
d)
34 Hz
30.
The lowest pitch the average human can hear is about 20.0 Hz. If sound with this frequency travels through air about 300 m/s, What is its wavelength?
a)
15
b)
6000 m
c)
15 m
d)
6000 
31.
Which of these waves has the lowest pitch?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
32.

Which of these waves makes the quietest sound??

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

33.

The Doppler Effect causes an ambulance siren to sound ________________ as the ambulance travels towards you and ____________________ as the ambulance travels away from you.

a)

louder, quieter

b)

quieter, louder

c)

higher pitch, lower pitch

d)

lower pitch, higher pitch

34.

What type of wave is a sound wave?

Choose all that apply

a)

longitudinal wave

b)

surface wave

c)

transverse wave

d)

mechanical wave

35.

Which of the following would you hear as a loud sound?

a)

sound wave with a frequency of 50 Hz

b)

sound wave with frequency of 1000 Hz

c)

sound wave with an intensity of 1 dB

d)

sound wave with an intensity of 10 dB

36.
A tuning fork with a frequency of 404 Hertz is struck with a soft hammer. The fork is struck a second time by the same hammer with twice as much force, and the volume, or amplitude, increases by a factor of two. What will the frequency of the second sound be? 
a)
101 Hz
b)
202 Hz
c)
404 Hz
d)
808 Hz
37.

Indoor pests such as mice and other rodents are sensitive to ultrasonic waves (sounds above the human range of frequency detection). Some companies have (allegedly) produced rodent repellent devices that emit ultrasonic waves with frequencies of approximately 45 kHz (kiloHz). Assuming a speed of sound of 344 m/s, determine the wavelength of these sound waves.

a)

.076 m

b)

7.6 m

c)

0.0076 m

d)

.76 m

38.
The speed of sound at 20 degrees celcius is:
a)
331 m/s
b)
365 m/s
c)
621 m/s
d)
343 m/s
39.

Which of the following will NOT affect the speed of sound? Choose all that apply.

a)

temperature

b)

distance

c)

wavelength

d)

frequency

e)

the medium through which it travels

40.

The musical note A above middle C has a frequency of 440 Hz. If the wavelength is measured to be 0.80m, what is the speed of the wave?

a)

343 m/s

b)

350 m/s

c)

550 m/s

d)

352 m/s

41.

Choose all that apply.

Which of the following pairs of frequencies would create 6 beats per second?

a)

406Hz and 411Hz

b)

401Hz and 407Hz

c)

294Hz and 288Hz

d)

65Hz and 71Hz

e)

330Hz and 390Hz

42.

Which object would absorb the least light?

a)

White t-shirt

b)

Brown sock

c)

Orange jacket

d)

Black sweater

43.

What color has the lowest energy?

a)

blue

b)

red

c)

green

d)

violet

44.

A wave with a large wavelength will have a ______ frequency and _____ energy

a)

high, low

b)

high, high

c)

low, high

d)

low, low

45.

Electromagnetic waves vary in

a)

speed they travel

b)

wavelength and frequency

c)

ways they reflect

d)

orientation of their fields

46.

EM Waves with the highest frequencies are

a)

radio waves

b)

x-rays

c)

gamma rays

d)

visible light

47.

EM Waves transfer energy without a

a)

magnetic field

b)

electric field

c)

medium

d)

frequency

48.

What is the speed of light?

a)

340 m/s

b)

3 x 108 m/s

c)

13,000 m/s

d)

It's not possible to measure

49.

Determine the wavelength of a cell phone that operates on the Sprint Network (f = 1.9 x 109 Hz).

a)

0.158

b)

0.158 m

c)

1.57 m

d)

6.33 m

50.
a)

Green

b)

Blue

c)

Red

d)

Magenta

e)

Yellow

51.
a)

Blue

b)

Black

c)

Cyan

d)

Green

e)

Red

52.

The transfer of energy from one object to another.

a)

force

b)

power

c)

work

d)

kinetic energy

53.

How fast energy is transferred or used.

a)

power

b)

force

c)

kinetic energy

d)

work

54.

In order for work to be done

a)

objects must remain at a constant speed in a straight line

b)

objects must accelerate

c)

power must not be lost

d)

the object must move in same direction as force

55.

As a bowling ball rolls down the lane it demonstrates

a)

kinetic energy

b)

potential energy

c)

thermal conservation

d)

rotational torque

56.

John lifts a 10 kg box 1 meter and then carries it 20 meters across the room. How much work has he done?

a)

10 J

b)

210 J

c)

98 J

d)

2058 J

57.

When an object is dropped, is work being done?

a)

yes, because gravity is exerting a force on it

b)

no, because no person is exerting a force on it

c)

yes, because there is no air friction

d)

no, because force and direction have to be parallel

58.

Which object has the greatest Kinetic Energy?

a)

2 kg rock traveling at 1 m/s

b)

3 kg wagon traveling at 1 m/s

c)

1 kg cannon ball traveling at 1 m/s

d)

2.5 kg gallon of water sliding at 1 m/s

59.

Which object has the greatest Kinetic Energy?

a)

1 kg ball traveling at 2 m/s

b)

1 kg ball traveling at 3 m/s

c)

1 kg ball traveling at 1 m/s

d)

1 kg ball traveling at 4 m/s

60.

An object's potential energy depends on its mass, the Earth's gravity and

a)

speed

b)

size

c)

density

d)

height above the ground

61.
How do you calculate power?
a)
P = W/t
b)
P = E/t
c)
P = w * t
d)
P = bbq/chicken
62.
How do we calculate work?
a)
W = F * d
b)
w = f * D
c)
W = F * D
d)
w = f * d
63.
How much work is being done with 200 N of force over 426 meters?
a)
85,200 J
b)
45,620 J
c)
90,480 J
d)
62,329 J
64.
The SI unit of work is?
a)
Joules
b)
Watts
c)
Newtons
d)
meters
65.
The energy of movement is...? 
a)
Kinetic
b)
Potential
66.
Energy that is stored is called...
a)
Kinetic
b)
Potential 
67.
The SI unit for power is...?
a)
Watts
b)
Joules
c)
Newtons
d)
Meters
68.

What is the formula for Kinetic Energy?

a)

m*g*h

b)

1/2m*v2

c)

F*d

d)

W/t

69.
If 150 Joules of work is needed to move a box 10 meters, what force was used? 
a)
1500 N
b)
15 N
c)
1.5 N
d)
150 N
70.

The faster an object moves, the ________ kinetic energy it has.

a)

more

b)

less

71.
Gravitational potential energy depends on the ________ and ________ of the object. 
a)
Height and mass
b)
Friction and movement
c)
Mass and Movement
d)
Height and Friction 
72.
What is the formula for calculating the total amount of mechanical energy?
a)
ME = KE + PE
b)
KE = ME + PE
c)
PE = KE + ME
d)
ME = 1/2 mv2
73.
Why does the total amount of mechanical energy stay constant in a system?
a)
energy is not created or destroyed
b)
energy leaves
c)
energy enters
d)
energy is not converted from one form into another
74.
The velocity is always _____ to the line of a circle. 
a)
outwards
b)
towards the center
c)
tangent
d)
faster
75.
Centripetal acceleration always points
a)
in the direction of the object's motion
b)
in the opposite direction of the object's motion
c)
towards the center of the circle
d)
towards the outside of the circle
76.

Assuming Andromeda rotates at a uniform rate, which stars are moving the fastest?

a)

Stars closest to center

b)

Stars furthest from the center

c)

Stars with the hottest temperature

d)

Stars with the coldest temperature

77.
Bruno the bat flies at a speed of 0.5 m/s in circle of radius 1 m. What is his acceleration?
a)
0.25 ms-2
b)
0.5 ms-2
c)
1 ms-2
d)
2 ms-2
78.
Which represents the acceleration of the ball?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
79.
Which of the following depict the speed of the blowing ball?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
80.
Calculate the velocity of an object moved around a circle with a radius of 1.65 m and an acceleration of 3.5 m/s2.
a)
2.4 m/s
b)
3.6 m/s
c)
3.9 m/s
d)
4.2 m/s
81.
True or False: Centripetal acceleration causes circular motion.
a)
True
b)
False
82.
What object experiences uniform circular motion?
a)
A car speeding up as it turns left
b)
A car traveling around a roundabout at a constant speed
c)
A car slowing down as it crests a tall hill
d)
A car traveling down the road at a constant speed
83.
Why do objects experience centripetal acceleration?
a)
Because they are speeding up as they move in a circle
b)
Because they are constantly changing direction and the net change is directed inward
c)
Because they are constantly changing both speed and direction
d)
Because when you have 100 people pedaling, you can speed up more easily.
84.
What is the force that causes centripetal acceleration when a car goes around a curve?
a)
Friction
b)
Gravity 
c)
Normal
d)
Tension
85.

At the top of a rollercoaster loop, In what directions do gravity and the normal force point. A free body diagram is useful to help answer the question

a)

gravity: down, normal force: up

b)

gravity: down, normal force: down

c)

gravity: down: normal force: direction of motion

86.
What happens to the centripetal force exerted on an object if you triple the velocity?
a)
it increases to 3X
b)
it decreases to 6X
c)
it increases to 6X
d)
it increases to 9X
87.
Two objects are attracted to each other with 36 N of gravitational force.
What would the force between them be if the distance between them were doubled?
a)
9
b)
18
c)
72
d)
144
88.
Two objects are attracted to each other with 36 N of gravitational force.
What would the force between them be if the distance between them were divided by 2?
a)
9
b)
18
c)
72
d)
144
89.
Two objects are attracted to each other with 36 N of gravitational force.
What would the force between them be if one of the masses were doubled?
a)
9
b)
18
c)
72
d)
144
90.

What is the formula for Potential Energy?

a)

m*g*h

b)

1/2m*v2

c)

F*d

d)

W/t

91.
Which of these best completes the circuit?
a)
rubber band
b)
metal nail
c)
leather shoelace
d)
wooden toothpick
92.
Electrical lights will not come on unless their electrical circuit is a --
a)
parallel circuit
b)
series circuit
c)
closed circuit
d)
short circuit
93.
A class prepared some electrical circuits using battery, connecting wires, and three light bulbs.  Which of these circuits can make the three bulbs light?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
94.
Bits of paper are attracted to the surface of this balloon.  What attracts the paper pieces to the balloon?
a)
Friction
b)
Static Electricity
c)
Magnetism
d)
Potential Energy
95.
This image represents what type of circuit?
a)
open
b)
closed
c)
series
d)
parallel
96.
Will the light bulb in this circuit light and why/why not?
a)
yes, because it has two batteries
b)
no, because the switch is open
c)
yes, because it is in a circuit
d)
no, because the bulb is burned out
97.
Which light will be brighter and why?
a)
Bulb A because its circuit is closed
b)
Bulb B because its circuit is closed
c)
Bulb B because it has more volts
d)
Bulb A because it has less volts
98.
Current is referred to as:
a)
flow of electricity
b)
circuits
c)
flow of electrons
d)
batteries
99.
What type of circuit is represented by the diagram?
a)
closed
b)
series
c)
open
d)
parallel
100.
If bulb 1 burns out, what will occur?
a)
bulbs 2 and 3 will go out
b)
bulbs 2 and 3 receive more volts
c)
bulbs 2 and 3 will stay lit
d)
nothing will happen
101.
(fill in the blank)
If there is a break in the circuit at POINT ______, the circuit will still work.
a)
AA
b)
BB
c)
CC
d)
None of the above
102.
How many lightbulbs will work if there is a break in the circuit at POINT F?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
NONE
103.
How many lightbulbs will work if there is a break in the circuit at POINT D?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
NONE
104.

Which of the following statements are correct?

Choose all that apply.

a)

Two objects with the same type of charge repel each other.

b)

Two neutral objects attract each other.

c)

Two objects made of different materials rubbed against each other acquire the same type of charge.

d)

An object that loses electrons gains a negative charge.

105.

Which of the following statements are correct about the magnitude of the electric force between two charged objects? Choose all that apply.

a)

If both of the charges are doubled, the electric force increases by a factor of 4.

b)

If the distance is doubled, the force decreases by a factor of 2.

c)

If the distance is halved, the force increases by a factor of 4.

d)

If one of the charges is halved, the electric force decreases by a factor of 4.

106.

If two charges have an electric force F between them and the distance between them is doubled, the force will be:

a)

Halved

b)

Quartered

c)

Doubled

d)

Quadrupled

e)

The same.

107.
An object becomes charged when the atoms in the object gain or lose
a)
electrons
b)
protons
c)
neutrons
d)
all of the above
108.
A region around a charged particle that can exert a force on another charged particle is called an
a)
electric pulse.
b)
electric charge.
c)
electric force.
d)
electric field.
109.

Charging by ____ occurs when electrons are transferred from one object to another by direct rubbing.

a)

reduction

b)

induction

c)

conduction

d)

friction

110.

Which of the following is a good conductor?

a)

Copper

b)

Glass

c)

Rubber

d)

Wool

111.

QA and QB are two charges creating an electric field. Based on the electric field lines, which of the following conclusions and reason are correct?

a)

QA is stronger than QB so QA is negative and QB are is positive.

b)

QA is stronger than QB so QA is positive and QB are is negative.

c)

A test charge would move from QA to QB, therefore QA is positive and QB is negative.

d)

A test charge would move from QA to QB, therefore QA is negative and QB is positive.

112.
Which of the following labeled points is in the region with the strongest force of electric charge?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
113.

Assume a rubber rod is rubbed against a cat fur and gains 5 electrons. Which of the following is true?

Choose all that apply.

a)

The cat fur lost 5 electrons.

b)

The cat fur is positively charged.

c)

The rubber rod is negatively charged.

d)

The rubber rod and cat fur will attract each other.

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