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NCFE Earth Science Review

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 2hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Big Bang is said to have occurred

a)

4.6 billion years ago

b)

13.8 million years ago

c)

100 thousand years ago

d)

13.8 billion years ago

2.

What is the definition of fusion?

a)

production of gas

b)

The way a planet produces energy

c)

The way a star produces energy

d)

The combination of two planets to make one planet.

3.

Stars that show red shift are. . .

a)

moving away from Earth

b)

moving toward Earth

c)

remaining stationary

4.
Which moon phase is when you can't see the moon at all?
a)
Waning crescent
b)
Full moon
c)
Waxing gibbous
d)
New moon
5.
One complete revolution of the Earth around the sun takes about
a)
one rotation
b)
half a year
c)
one year
d)
one season
6.
The Earth takes about __________________ hours to complete one rotation of its axis.  
a)
12
b)
24
c)
14
d)
28
7.
Name the phase of the moon for letter c
a)
New Moon
b)
Full Moon
c)
Waxing Crescent
d)
Waning Crescent
8.
At position A, which hemisphere would have summer?
a)
Northern hemisphere
b)
Southern hemisphere
9.
When a hemisphere is pointed directly towards the Sun, what season will it be?
a)
Fall
b)
Winter
c)
Spring
d)
Summer
10.
discovered Jupiter's four moons
a)
Copernicus
b)
Galileo
c)
Brahe
d)
Aristotle
11.
"Sun-Centered" universe model
a)
heliocentric
b)
geocentric
12.
Planets & stars move around earth in perfect circles
a)
heliocentric
b)
geocentric
13.

Which factor does not affect weather on Earth

a)

heat from the sun

b)

rain formed during the water cycle

c)

the pressure of the air

d)

the amount of soil on Earth

14.

Why is there no new water on Earth

a)

it rarely rains in some places, such as deserts

b)

water moves in a cycle, which is repeated over and over again

c)

water leaves the atmosphere

d)

the moon soaks up all the new water

15.

water in its gas state is called___________.

a)

liquid

b)

solid

c)

water vapor

d)

condensation

16.

Juan saw puddles on the way to school, he noticed the puddles had dried up after school. What process is responsible for this change?

a)

evaporation

b)

condensation

c)

Earth's rotation

d)

the lunar cycle

17.

Sarah was enjoying a cold soft drink, she noticed that drops of water had formed on the outside of the glass. This is an example of_________________.

a)

evaporation

b)

water vapor

c)

condensation

d)

reflection

18.
Warm air moving north from the Gulf of Mexico is:
a)
continental tropical
b)
continental polar
c)
maritime tropical
d)
maritime polar
19.
____________ air rises because it is ____________dense.
a)
Cool, Less
b)
Warm, Less
c)
Cold, More
d)
Warm, More
20.
What is the two lettered air mass symbol for an air mass  originating Central Canada? 
a)
cT
b)
cP
c)
mT
d)
mP
21.
What type of weather is associated with low pressure? 
a)
cool and dry
b)
warm and moist
c)
cool and moist
d)
warm and dry
22.
Which instrument measures wind speed?
a)
Rain gauge
b)
Wind vane
c)
Anemometer
d)
Barometer
23.
Which list correctly matches each instrument with the weather variable it measures?
a)
wind vane—wind speed
thermometer—temperature
precipitation gauge—relative humidity
b)
wind vane—wind direction
thermometer—dewpoint
psychrometer—air pressure
c)
barometer—relative humidity
anemometer—cloud cover
precipitation gauge—probability of precipitation
d)
barometer—air pressure
anemometer—wind speed
psychrometer—relative humidity
24.
Earth’s surface winds generally blow from regions of higher
a)
air temperature toward regions of lower air temperature
b)
air pressure toward regions of lower air pressure
c)
latitudes toward regions of lower latitudes
d)
elevations toward regions of lower elevations
25.
The weather characteristics of air masses result primarily from their
a)
geographic origin
b)
size and shape
c)
rate of movement
d)
direction of movement
26.
Which type of air mass most likely has high humidity and high temperature?
a)
cP
b)
cT
c)
mT
d)
mP
27.
Clouds most likely form as a result of
a)
moist air rising, compressing, and warming
b)
moist air rising, expanding, and cooling
c)
dry air rising, compressing, and warming
d)
dry air rising, expanding, and cooling
28.
What type of front is shown in the picture?
a)
Warm Front
b)
Cold Front
c)
Stationary Front
d)
Occluded Front
29.
During explosive volcanic eruptions, large amounts of ash entering Earth’s atmosphere often rise to an altitude of 20 kilometers. What is the most likely effect of this ash cloud?
a)
a decrease in the insolation reaching Earth’s surface
b)
a decrease in the thickness of Earth’s stratosphere layer
c)
an increase in the insolation reaching Earth’s surface
d)
an increase in the thickness of Earth’s stratosphere layer
30.
Click to read the question
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
31.
What type of weather would you expect from the pressure system pictured?
a)
clear
b)
cloudy
c)
hot
d)
stormy
32.
Which type of pressure system is pictured?
a)
high
b)
low
c)
medium
d)
none
33.
Which absorbs heat faster?
a)
land
b)
water
c)
they heat up at the same rate
34.
As you go higher in the troposphere, the temperature _______________.
a)
decreases
b)
increases
c)
stays the same
d)
gets very hot
35.
Wind is caused mainly by air-pressure differences that result from
a)
uneven heating of Earth's atmosphere
b)
absorption of ultraviolet radiation by Earth's land masses
c)
radiation of heat from Earth's land masses to water bodies
d)
rotation of Earth on its axis
36.
T8 - What two factors are primarily used to describe climate?
a)
temperature and density
b)
temperature and precipitation
c)
precipitation and density
d)
winds and humidity
37.
T8 - As altitude _____________ temperature ___________. 
a)
decreases, decreases
b)
increases, increases
c)
increases, decreases
d)
decreases, increases
38.
T9 - Which of the following is the best conclusion that can be made from this graph?
a)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been decreasing since 1960
b)
Hawaii has a lot of carbon dioxide
c)
humans have been working hard to decrease carbon dioxide levels
d)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have increased steadily since 1960
39.
T9 - What is the angle of the Earth's tilt?
a)
24°
b)
23.5°
c)
23°
d)
22.5°
40.
T11 - Which Climograph is from a tropical location?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
41.

Which of the following structures is built to protect boats from large breaking waves?

a)

jetty

b)

groin

c)

breakwater

d)

seawall

42.

Approximately how much of Earth’s surface is covered by water?

a)

50 percent

b)

30 percent

c)

70 percent

d)

40 percent

43.

What is true about an ocean current that is moving toward the equator?

a)

It is warm.

b)

It is fast.

c)

It is cold.

d)

It is slow.

44.

Which part of the ocean is deepest?

a)

ridges

b)

rifts

c)

trenches

d)

seamounts

45.

What is density?

a)

mass-per-unit volume

b)

mass-per-unit area

c)

weight-per-unit mass

d)

weight-per-unit volume

46.

In addition to salinity, what factor affects the density of seawater?

a)

depth

b)

latitude

c)

temperature

d)

salt content

47.

The energy that drives surface ocean currents comes from ____.

a)

salinity variations

b)

wind

c)

temperature differences

d)

wave action

48.

What causes surface ocean currents to be deflected?

a)

deep currents

b)

the Coriolis effect

c)

Earth’s revolution

d)

global winds

49.

The rising of cold water from deeper layers to replace warmer surface water is called ____.

a)

the Coriolis effect

b)

a surface current

c)

upwelling

d)

reflection

50.
What is the name for the event in the equatorial pacific ocean that results in temporary slowing or reversal surface currents and in turn disrupts normal world wide weather patterns?
a)
Monsoons
b)
Volcanic eruptions
c)
El Nino
d)
La nina
51.
Ocean tides are primarily caused by 
a)
Earth's revolution around the sun
b)
The changing phases of the moon
c)
Gravitational attraction between the moon and the Earth
d)
Seasonal changes in the location of the sunrise
52.
Spring tides occur during which 2 phases of the moon?
a)
full and new
b)
first and third quarter
c)
new and third quarter
d)
full and first quarter
53.

Most freshwater is located where on the Earth?

a)

in glaciers

b)

in lakes

c)

in the air

d)

in the oceans

54.

Why are oceans important for the Earth?

a)

They provide heat and moisture

b)

They are a reservoir of carbon dioxide

c)

They help with our atmospheric oxygen

d)

All of the above

55.
Which land form is a fan-shaped deposit of sediment near the mouth of a river?
a)
valley
b)
basin
c)
delta
d)
mountain
56.

Sinkholes can form when ____.

a)

rainwater containing carbon dioxide dissolves underground rock

b)

minerals dripping from a cavern ceiling form stone pendants

c)

streams drop sediment as they enter lakes

d)

the water table rises due to flooding

57.

A drainage basin is ____.

a)

the channel of a stream

b)

the land covered by floodwaters

c)

the land area that contributes water to a stream

d)

all streams that flow directly into an ocean

58.

Groundwater is found underground in the zone of ____.

a)

aeration

b)

soil

c)

saturation

d)

sediment

59.

Which of the following is a measure of a material’s ability to transmit fluids through interconnected pore spaces?

a)

capacity

b)

competence

c)

permeability

d)

porosity

60.

In Figure 6-1, what process is illustrated by the arrows labeled D?

a)

precipitation

b)

evaporation

c)

runoff

d)

infiltration

61.

Permeable rock layers or sediments that transmit groundwater freely are called ____.

a)

aquifers

b)

aquitards

c)

caverns

d)

springs

62.

The percentage of the total volume of rock or sediment that consists of pore spaces is called ____.

a)

permeability

b)

an aquifer

c)

the zone of saturation

d)

porosity

63.

Which of the following is associated with areas of karst topography?

a)

sinkholes

b)

sinking streams

c)

caverns

d)

all of the above

64.
__________ rock results from the cooling of melted rock.  
a)
sedimentary
b)
metamorphic
c)
igneous
d)
lava
65.
____________ rock are deposited in layers and are found on land and in the water.  
a)
Igneous
b)
Metamorphic
c)
Lava
d)
Sedimentary
66.
_____________ rocks are formed when the actual structure of a rock is changed.  Heat and pressure often cause this change, but chemicals are agents of change as well.  This type of rock is typically unlayered.
a)
Metamorphic
b)
Igneous
c)
Sedmimentary
d)
Lava
67.
Wind, water, and ice breaking down rock is called
a)
Erosion
b)
Deposition
c)
Compaction
d)
Weathering
68.
Lava which cools on Earth's surface forms an
a)
metamorphic rock
b)
intrusive igneous rock
c)
extrusive igneous rock
d)
foliated metamorphic rock
69.
This rock was formed by smaller pieces of rock that settled at the bottom of a lake millions of years ago. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
70.
This rock started as molten magma. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
71.
This rock was another type of rock that was heated and compressed over time. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
72.

what is a soil profile?

a)

a picture of soil

b)

a cross section of soil exposed by digging

c)

analyzing what the soil is made of

d)

a growing zone for plants

73.

what are the different layers of soil called?

a)

horizons

b)

profiles

c)

litter

d)

humus

74.

Acid rain and oxidation are examples of

a)

mechanical weathering

b)

chemical weathering

c)

erosion

d)

creep

75.

unloading, frost action, animals burrowing into the ground, plants by their roots, and ice wedging are examples of

a)

mechanical weathering

b)

chemical weathering

c)

erosion

d)

landforms

76.

sediments/soil slowly slip downhill over many years from temperature or water

a)

mudslide

b)

landslide

c)

slump

d)

creep

77.

movement that occurs when material moves down a curved slope

a)

creep

b)

slump

c)

landslide

d)

mudslide

78.
Who proposed the idea of continental drift?
a)
Alfred Wegener
b)
Thomas Edison
c)
Aristotle
d)
Albert Einstein
79.
The process by which plate tectonics produces new oceanic lithosphere is called ___
a)
subduction
b)
divergence
c)
sea floor spreading
d)
mountain building
80.
At what type of boundary is a subduction zone formed?
a)
transform
b)
convergent
c)
divergent
d)
strike-slip
81.
The San Andreas fault formed due to a ___ boundary.
a)
transform
b)
convergent
c)
divergent
d)
subduction
82.
A rising plume of mantle material that occurs in the middle of oceanic plates is called ___
a)
volcano
b)
convection current
c)
subduction zone
d)
hot spot
83.
An example of a hot spot is ___
a)
Appalachian Mountains
b)
San Andreas Fault
c)
Hawaii
d)
Mid-Ocean Ridge
84.
A downward fold is called a ___
a)
fold
b)
anticline
c)
syncline
d)
monocline
85.
In what type of major fault does the hanging wall slide down the foot wall (due to tension)?
a)
normal
b)
reverse
c)
thrust
d)
strike-slip
86.
How does fossil evidence support Wegener's hypothesis of continental drift?
a)
Similar fossils are found along continental margins that appear to join together.
b)
Fossils are found in areas where the present-day climate could not have supported the organisms that made the fossils.
c)
Similar fossils of giant, land-dwelling dinosaurs are found on continents separated by oceans.
d)
all of the above
87.

Which type of plate boundary would cause mountains to form?

a)

Transform

b)

Convergent

c)

Divergent

d)

Reform

88.
The Great Rift Valley in Africa and the Mid-Ocean Ridge were all created by this boundary
a)
Divergent
b)
Convergent
c)
Reform
d)
Transform
89.
If a volcano's magma is high in silicia, the volcano will probably
a)
erupt quietly
b)
remain dormant
c)
erupt explosively
d)
produce dark color lava
90.
A  line of volcanic activity that surrounds the Pacific Ocean basin is the 
a)
Ring of Fire
b)
Aleutian Islands
c)
Hawaiian Islands
d)
Caribbean Islands
91.
How thick something is or the ability of a fluid or liquid to flow is its 
a)
viscosity
b)
density
c)
velocity 
d)
flowability 
92.
What kind of volcano is made of alternating layers of lava and tephra? (also called  a stratovolcano)
a)
shield
b)
composite
c)
cinder cone
93.
Which type of volcano has the widest base?
a)
Cinder Cone
b)
Composite
c)
Shield
94.
What type of volcano is made of lava fragments that have been ejected from a volcanic vent?
a)
Caldera
b)
Cinder Cone
c)
Composite Volcano
d)
Shield Volcano
95.
A vibration of Earth caused by a rapid release of energy is an earthquake and occurs at a ____
a)
fault
b)
fracture
c)
anticline
d)
subduction zone
96.
Here is a picture of a seismogram. Which seismic wave reaches the station first?
a)
P Wave
b)
S Wave
c)
H Wave
d)
L Wave
97.
Loose sediments are saturated with water and become like liquid in a process called ___.
a)
condensation
b)
deposition
c)
sublimation
d)
liquefaction
98.
What does biodiversity mean?
a)
Only one species in an area.
b)
The different amount of species in an area
c)
All abiotic life
d)
Nitrogen fixation
99.
Which human activity would most likely deplete nonrenewable resources?
a)
use of natural enemies to eliminate insect pests
b)
development of wildlife refuges 
c)
governmental restriction of industrial pollution 
d)
increased use of fossil fuels
100.
What may happen when a lake ecosystem becomes polluted with fertilizers or pesticides?
a)
increase in dissolved oxygen
b)
eutrophication
c)
.  increased rate of decomposition by detritivores
d)
increase in carrying capacity of the ecosystem
101.
What is biomass energy?
a)
any organic matter that can be used as an energy source
b)
radiant energy emitted by the sun
c)
is the heat from the Earth
d)
is a form of solar energy
102.
Which of these problems can be caused by air pollution?
a)
Respiratory problems
b)
Reduced food sources for humans
c)
Increased disease for humans
d)
Decrease in global temperatures
103.
Acid rain can damage
a)
Drinking water sources
b)
Aquatic life
c)
Architecture/buildings
d)
All options are correct
104.
Water pollution that comes from many sources is considered...
a)
point source pollution
b)
nonpoint source pollution
c)
thermal pollution
d)
ocean pollution
105.
Water pollution that comes from a single source is considered...
a)
point source pollution
b)
nonpoint source pollution
c)
thermal pollution
d)
ocean pollution
106.
The largest number of individuals in a species that an environment can support long term
a)
carrying capacity
b)
emigration
c)
immigration
d)
population density
107.
Which of the following is likely to be affected by a growing human population?
a)
amount of land for agriculture
b)
amount of clean water
c)
amount of air pollution
d)
all of the above

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