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Conceptual Physics Spring Exam Review

Total questions: 143

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The big bang theory of the formation and expansion of the universe is supported by the observed

a)

blue-violet shift

b)

red shift

c)

big crunch

d)

shorter light wavelengths

2.

From the cosmic background radiation, scientists can infer that, just after the big bang, the universe must have been

a)

very small

b)

hot

c)

the same average temperature as it is today

d)

cooler than it is today

3.

A red shift in the spectrum of the light from an object indicates the object is moving _____ you

a)

away from

b)

toward

c)

at a right angle from

d)

none of the above

4.

What is likely to happen to the universe in the future? It will __________

a)

contract

b)

remain the same size

c)

expand forever

d)

expand and then contract

5.

Evidence that the universe is expanding is best supported by the observation that the wavelength of light from distant galaxies are shifted toward the _____

a)

red end of the spectrum because they are shortened

b)

red end of the spectrum because they are lengthened

c)

blue end of the spectrum because they are shortened

d)

blue end of the spectrum because they are lengthened

6.

The force that tends to pull together the matter in stars is ____

a)

gravity

b)

nuclear fusion

c)

dark energy

d)

dark matter

7.

A star begins as a _____, a large cloud of gas and dust

a)

nebula

b)

giant

c)

dwarf

d)

black hole

8.

Our sun is NOT _____

a)

a part of a binary system

b)

a main sequence star

c)

in a galaxy

d)

a medium hot star

9.

The process by which nuclei having low masses are united to form nuclei with larger masses is ____

a)

a chain reaction

b)

a chemical reaction

c)

nuclear fission

d)

nuclear fusion

10.

Which of the following elements is most likely to be produced during a nuclear fusion reaction in the sun?

a)

helium-4

b)

hydrogen-1

c)

uranium-235

d)

uranium-238

11.

A main sequence star becomes a _____ after it uses up the hydrogen in its core

a)

nebula

b)

supernova

c)

black hole

d)

giant

12.

The sun produces energy by fusing hydrogen atoms into _____ atoms in its core

a)

carbon

b)

helium

c)

iron

d)

oxygen

13.

Prominences and flares on the sun are related to sunspots because they are all caused by _____

a)

electricity

b)

too much heat

c)

Earth's orbit around the sun

d)

intense magnetic fields

14.

Our sun is considered average because its temperature and absolute magnitude place it in the _____ range of the H-R diagram

a)

white dwarf

b)

red giant

c)

main sequence

d)

supergiant

15.

The H-R diagram shows that main sequence stars ______________________________

a)

are mostly hot and dim

b)

are mostly cool and bright

c)

increase in brightness as they increase in temperature

d)

decrease in brightness as they increase in temperature

16.

This diagram represents ______________ which occurs ________________

a)

nuclear fusion; in stars like our sun

b)

nuclear fission; in the center of the earth

c)

nuclear fusion; to create hydrogen

d)

nuclear fission; in stars like our sun

17.

Using the H-R diagram in the question above what are the products of the reaction

a)

hydrogen and helium

b)

helium and energy

c)

hydrogen and energy

d)

hydrogen, helium and carbon

18.

A star that is very dim and red in color is _____

a)

belelgeuse

b)

van maanen's star

c)

barnard's star

d)

tau ceti

19.

According the H-R diagram what is the approximate absolute magnitude of Rigel?

a)

0

b)

+1

c)

-2

d)

-5

20.

Compared to our sun, Alpha Centauri A would be

a)

hotter and brighter

b)

cooler and brighter

c)

hotter and dimmer

d)

cooler and dimmer

21.

The north star (Polaris) is described best as being

a)

a yellow, bright star at 6000K

b)

a white, dim star at 5800K

c)

a bright yellow supergiant at 6000K

d)

a yellow main sequence star at 5800K

22.

When a star runs out of hydrogen, which =two star types can it become

a)

red giant or supergiant

b)

black hole or protostar

c)

supernova or white dwarf

d)

white dwarf or neutron star

23.

In the diagram below, the spectral lines of hydrogen gas from three galaxies, A, B, and C, are compared to the spectral lines of hydrogen gas observed in a laboratory.

What is the best inference that can be made concerning the movement of galaxies A, B, and C?

a)

galaxy A is moving away from earth, but galaxies B and C are moving toward earth

b)

galaxy B is moving away from earth, but galaxies A and C are moving toward earth

c)

galaxies A, B, C are all moving toward the earth

d)

galaxies A, B, C are all moving away from the earth

24.

Which of the following decibel levels is nearest to the value that you would expect for a running vacuum cleaner?

a)

10 dB

b)

30 dB

c)

70 dB

d)

120 dB

25.

The perceived loudness of a sound is measured in

a)

hertz

b)

decibels

c)

watts

d)

amps

26.

If you are on a train, how will the pitch of the train’s whistle sound to you as the train moves?

a)

The pitch will become steadily higher

b)

The pitch will become steadily lower

c)

The pitch will not change

d)

The pitch will become higher, then become lower

27.

A train moves down the track toward an observer. The sound from the train, as heard by the observer, is ____ the sound heard by a passenger on the train.

a)

the same as

b)

a different timbre than

c)

higher in pitch than

d)

lower in pitch than

28.

In general, sound travels faster through

a)

solids than through gases

b)

gases than through solids

c)

gases than through liquids

d)

empty space than through matter

29.

Of the following materials, sound waves travel fastest through

a)

helium at 0°C

b)

air at 0°C

c)

copper at 0°C

d)

air at 100°C

30.

Pitch depends on the ____ of a sound wave

a)

frequency

b)

amplitude

c)

power

d)

speed

31.

The highness or lowness of a sound is perceived as

a)

compression

b)

wavelength

c)

ultrasound

d)

pitch

32.

Which of the following is the region of a sound wave in which the density and pressure are greater than normal?

a)

rarefaction

b)

compression

c)

amplitude

d)

wavength

33.

Sound waves

a)

are a part of the electromagnetic spectrum

b)

do not require a medium for transmission

c)

are longitudinal waves

d)

are transverse waves

34.

Suppose that two sound waves passing through the same medium have different wavelengths. Which of the following is most likely to be the reason for the differing wavelengths?

a)

the nature of the medium

b)

differences in amplitude

c)

differences in frequency

d)

the type of wave

35.

A wave travels through a medium. As the wave passes, the particles of the medium vibrate in a direction perpendicular to the direction of the wave’s motion. The wave is

a)

longitudinal

b)

a pulse

c)

electromagnetic

d)

transverse

36.

The diagram below shows a parked police car with a siren on top. The siren is producing a sound with a frequency of 680 hertz, which travels first through point A and then through point B, as shown. The speed of the sound is 340 meters per second

If the car were to accelerate toward point A, the frequency of the sound heard by an observer at point A would

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

37.

As a longitudinal (compressional) wave moves through a medium, the particles of the medium

a)

vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave’s propagation

b)

vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave’s propagation

c)

are transferred in the direction of the wave’s motion, only

d)

are stationary

38.

If the amplitude of a sound wave is increased, there is an increase in the sound’s

a)

wavelength

b)

velocity

c)

pitch

d)

loudness

39.

Sound waves from a beating drum will travel fastest through a ____

a)

gas

b)

liquid

c)

solid

d)

empty space (vacuum)

40.

When you squeeze together the coils of a spring and then release them, you are creating a ____ wave

a)

transverse

b)

compressional

c)

water

d)

seismic

41.

Which portion of the diagram above represents the wavelength?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

none of them

42.

In the diagram above, the portion labeled A is a _____.

a)

wavelength

b)

compression

c)

rarefaction

d)

crest

43.

This is an example of a ______ wave

a)

compressional

b)

transverse

c)

tidal

d)

earthquake

44.

Wave A carries more energy than wave B. Wave B has a smaller ____ than wave A

a)

frequency

b)

wavelength

c)

amplitude

d)

speed

45.

A light wave strikes the Moon and reflects toward Earth. As the light wave travels from the Moon toward Earth, the wave carries

a)

energy, only

b)

matter, only

c)

both energy and matter

d)

neither energy nor matter

46.

A 5.09 × 1014-hertz electromagnetic wave is traveling through a transparent medium. The

main factor that determines the speed of this wave is the

a)

nature of the medium

b)

amplitude of the wave

c)

phase of the wave

d)

distance traveled through the medium

47.

A student produces a wave in a long spring by vibrating its end. As the frequency of the vibration is doubled, the wavelength in the spring is

a)

quartered

b)

doubled

c)

halved

d)

unchanged

48.

A duck floating on a lake oscillates up and down 5 times during a 10-second interval as a periodic wave passes by. What is the frequency of the duck’s oscillations?

a)

0.10 Hz

b)

2.0 Hz

c)

0.50 Hz

d)

50.0 Hz

49.

Wave amplitude can BEST be described as _____________________.

a)

the distance between two corresponding parts of a wave

b)

the height or depth to which the water rises or sinks as the wave passes

c)

the rolling motion of wave

d)

the setting on a bass guitar amplifier

50.

An example of a transverse wave would be _____________, while a compression wave would be represented by__________________.

a)

water, light

b)

light, water

c)

sound, light

d)

light, sound

51.

The trough is represented by letter __________ in the diagram above

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

52.

The portion of the diagram above that represents the amplitude is__________.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

53.

This type of wave is called ____________________.

a)

earthquake

b)

compressional

c)

transverse

d)

seismic

54.

When light is reflected from a surface, as the angle of incidence increases, the angle of reflection ____.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remain the same

d)

cannot be determined

55.

Why do you see lightning from a distant storm before you hear thunder?

a)

The thunder is produced after the lightning

b)

Your eyes react faster than your ears

c)

Light travels faster than sound

d)

Sound travels faster than light

56.

The image of an object in a flat mirror is always

a)

larger than the object

b)

smaller than the object

c)

independent of the size of the object

d)

the same size of the object

57.

When a wave passes from a less dense medium to a more dense medium, the ____ may change

a)

speed

b)

frequency

c)

wavelength

d)

speed, frequency, and wavelength

58.

When a ray of light traveling in water reaches a boundary with air, part of the light ray is reflected and part is refracted. Which ray diagram best represents the paths of the reflected and refracted light rays? NOTE-LIGHT IS ENTERING from the BOTTOM of the picture

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

59.

Light rays that hit a convex mirror ____ as they are reflected

a)

disappear

b)

diverge

c)

unite

d)

magnify

60.

What happens when light passes from air into water?

a)

the light speeds up

b)

the light continues at the same speed

c)

the light slows down

d)

the light forms a mirage

61.

The bowl of a shiny spoon forms an enlarged, upright image similar to that of a ____ mirror

a)

refracting

b)

convex

c)

concave

d)

wide-angle

62.

The image formed by a plane mirror is ____.

a)

real and reversed

b)

real and upright

c)

upright and reversed

d)

virtual and inverted

63.

Which of these is not true about a real image?

a)

it is inverted

b)

it is enlarged

c)

It can be projected onto a screen

d)

It appears behind the mirror

64.

Mirrors on the passenger side of automobiles, on the car door, are generally ____.

a)

CONCAVE

b)

CONVEX

c)

PLANE

d)

FUN-HOUSE

65.

Light is refracted and spread out by a ____.

a)

concave lens

b)

convex mirror

c)

concave mirror

d)

convex lens

66.

Which property of light is illustrated by the diagram below?

a)

reflection

b)

refraction

c)

dispersion

d)

diffraction

67.

The bending of waves due to a change in speed is called

a)

reflection

b)

refraction

c)

diffraction

d)

interference

68.

The ____ is the particle that carries radiant energy

a)

proton

b)

photon

c)

neutron

d)

electron

69.

What type of mirror is used whenever a magnified image of an object is needed?

a)

flat

b)

concave

c)

convex

d)

two-way

70.

When red light and green light shine on the same place on a piece of white paper, the spot appears to be

a)

yellow

b)

brown

c)

white

d)

black

71.

Part of a pencil that is placed in a glass of water appears bent in relation to the part of the pencil that extends out of the water. What is this phenomenon called?

a)

interference

b)

refraction

c)

diffraction

d)

reflection

72.

Which statement below best explains why radio waves can travel through space, but sound waves can not?

a)

A radio waves uses particles to transfer

energy but sound does not.

b)

Both sound waves and radio waves transfer energy through particle movement

c)

A sound wave transfers energy through

particles, but radio waves do not have to.

d)

Radio waves only turn into sound waves when they enter earth’s atmosphere

73.

How would a tomato look under blue light?

a)

The tomato would seem to disappear

b)

The tomato would still appear red

c)

The tomato would appear black

d)

The tomato would appear white

74.

Which of the following correctly explains why microwave ovens are different than conventional ovens when cooking food?

a)

Microwave ovens use microwaves, conventional ovens use mechanical waves

b)

Conventional ovens use heat waves, microwave ovens use thermal waves

c)

Microwave ovens use electromagnetic radiation waves, conventional ovens use thermal energy

d)

Conventional ovens use electromagnetic radiation waves, microwave ovens use thermal energy

75.

When the crest of one wave passes through the trough of another wave, ____ takes place

a)

resonance

b)

diffraction

c)

constructive interference

d)

destructive interference

76.

Which pair of waves will produce a resultant wave with the smallest amplitude?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

77.

In the classroom, a red shirt appears red because _____________________________.

a)

the red light waves are absorbed by the shirt and all other colors are reflected to you

b)

the red light waves are reflected to you and all other colors are absorbed by the shirt

c)

the pigment in the shirt is cyan, magenta, and yellow

d)

your eye can detect the color using the red rods in your lens

78.

What can you conclude about cell phone radiation from this graphic?

a)

Cell phone radiation has a frequency of more than 1000 gigahertz

b)

Gamma rays are least likely types of

radiation to interfere with humans.

c)

Cell phone radiation is a very low frequency microwave

d)

Cell phone radiation is harmful to humans

79.

Your body needs ____ to make vitamin D

a)

infrared waves

b)

microwaves

c)

visible light waves

d)

ultraviolet waves

80.

Electromagnetic waves _____

a)

are compressional waves

b)

are transverse waves

c)

must have a medium

d)

are generated by static electricity

81.

All of the following are examples of harmful electromagnetic waves for humans (when used in an uncontrolled and long term exposure) EXCEPT

a)

gamma rays

b)

xrays

c)

ultraviolet waves

d)

visible light

82.

The part of the electromagnetic spectrum usually used for communication is

a)

radio waves

b)

infrared waves

c)

ultraviolet waves

d)

gamma rays

83.

Which of the following correctly explains the difference between an ultraviolet wave and an infrared wave?

a)

Ultraviolet is purple and infrared is red

b)

Infrared is from the sun but ultraviolet

is not.

c)

Ultraviolet waves have shorter wavelengths than infrared waves do

d)

Ultraviolet waves have longer wavelengths than infrared waves do

84.

A gamma ray photon and a microwave photon are traveling in a vacuum. Compared to the wavelength and energy of the gamma ray photon, the microwave photon has a

a)

shorter wavelength and less energy

b)

shorter wavelength and more energy

c)

longer wavelength and less energy

d)

longer wavelength and more energy

85.

____ are used for medical imaging

a)

ultraviolet waves

b)

infrared waves

c)

xrays

d)

gamma rays

86.

Microwave ovens are used to heat up food by causing _____________.

a)

the water molecules to increase their vibrations, resulting in friction and increased thermal energy

b)

the food molecules to increase their friction with other food molecules and heat up

c)

an increase in temperature in the air in the microwave oven

d)

thermal energy to be created in the microwave

87.

Gamma waves have ________________________________of all electromagnetic waves (assuming they all have the same amplitude).

a)

the highest frequency and most energy

b)

the lowest frequency and least energy

c)

the highest frequency and least energy

d)

the lowest frequency and most energy

88.

When a police officer uses radar for speed control, the officer is using what kind of electromagnetic waves?

a)

radio waves

b)

gamma rays

c)

ultraviolet rays

d)

xrays

89.

The charge on a proton is

a)

negative, and the charge on an electron is positive

b)

positive, and the charge on an electron is negative

c)

the same as the charge on an electron

d)

can change according to the situation

90.

A student has rubbed a balloon on his hair. He holds it 15 centimeters away from the wall and it falls to the floor. He holds it 5 centimeters from the wall and it is attracted to the wall and “sticks” to the wall (as shown below). Which of the following best describes what has happened?

a)

The electrons from his hair transferred to the balloon, causing it to be negatively charged. The positively induced wall attracted the balloon at a small distance

b)

The electrons from his hair repelled the protons, causing it to be positively charged. The neutral wall attracted the balloon at a small distance

c)

The protons from his hair transferred to the balloon, causing it to be positively charged. The negatively induced wall attracted the balloon at a small distance

d)

The protons from his hair repelled the electrons, causing it to be negatively charged. The neutral wall attracted the balloon at a small distance

91.

The balloon’s electric force acting upon the wall

a)

was proportional to the wall’s force

b)

decreased at a close distance

c)

was unaffected by distance

d)

increased at a close distance

92.

A static discharge differs from an electric current in that a static discharge_______.

a)

involves the movement of ions as well as electrons

b)

results because a force is exerted on electrons

c)

lasts only for a fraction of a second

d)

is a constant flow of electrons

93.

Static electricity is particularly fun in the winter when wool hats are worn more regularly. Which of the following correctly explains the static electricity occurring after wearing a wool hat?

a)

The protons from hair are transferred to the wool cap, making the hair attracted to the air around it once the hat is removed

b)

The electrons from hair are transferred to the wool cap, making the hair positively charged. Therefore, the hairs repel each other and move as far away from each other as possible

c)

The wool cap accumulates the protons and leaves the hair electrically negative

d)

The wool cap transfers its electrons to the hair making the hair electrically positive

94.

The equation above is best represented by which of the following graphs? F = K q1q2/r

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

95.

Describe the changes to the magnitude of a charge when the distance between charges increases. The magnitude

a)

is unafected by distance

b)

will decrease

c)

will increase

96.

Coulomb’s law describes the:

a)

magnitude of the electrostatic charge between two electric charges

b)

magnitude of the electrostaic force between two electric charges

c)

force of electrostatic charge between two warm bodies

d)

distance between two elecrostatic charges

97.

Suppose you acquire a positive charge from walking across a carpet. You then touch a doorknob and receive a shock. This leaves you

a)

positively charged

b)

negatively charged

c)

uncharged

d)

electrically neutral

98.

The diagram above represents the electric field in the region of two small charged spheres, A and B. What is the sign of the net charge on A and B?

a)

A is positive and B is positive

b)

A is positive and B is negative

c)

A is negative and B is negative

d)

A is negative and B is positive

99.

Two identically-sized metal spheres, A and B, are on insulating stands, as shown in the diagram above. Sphere A possesses an excess of 6.3 × 1010 electrons and sphere B is neutral. Which diagram best represents the charge distribution on sphere B?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

100.

What happens when a rubber rod is rubbed with a piece of fur, giving it a negative charge?

a)

Protons are removed from the rod

b)

Electrons are transferred to the rod

c)

Electrons are transferred to the fur

d)

The fur is left neutral

101.

Electric charge is ________________.

a)

found only in a conductor

b)

always conserved

c)

found only in insulators

d)

not always conserved

102.

In the diagram shown above, the circles represent small balls that have electric charges. Ball 1 has a negative charge, and ball 2 is repelled by ball 1. Next, you see that ball 2 repels ball 3 and that ball 3 attracts ball 4. What is the electric charge on ball 4?

a)

Ball 4 may have either a positive or negative charge

b)

Ball 4 has a negative charge

c)

Ball 4 has a positive charge

d)

It is not possible to determine the charge on ball 4

103.

Which sentence best describes electrical conductors?

a)

Electrical conductors have low mass density.

b)

Electrical conductors have high tensile strength

c)

Electrical conductors have electric charges that move freely

d)

Electrical conductors are poor heat conductors

104.

The figure shown above demonstrates charging by

a)

grounding

b)

induction

c)

polarization

d)

contact

105.

What occurs when two charges are moved closer together?

a)

the electric field doubles

b)

coulombs law takes effect

c)

the total charge increases

d)

the force between the charges increases

106.

If the leaves of an electroscope spread apart, as shown in the diagram above, it indicates that ____.

a)

the leaves of the electroscope are neutral

b)

the leaves of the electroscope have received a charge

c)

no charge is moving through the electroscope

d)

there is static electricity in the electroscope

107.

Electric current is _______________________________.

a)

the protons moving through the wire from the outlet

b)

the protons moving through the wire from a battery

c)

the electrons moving through the circuit from a power source

d)

both a and b

108.

In a series circuit with three bulbs, adding another bulb will

a)

make the nearest bulb brighter

b)

make some of the bulbs dimmer

c)

make all the bulbs brighter

d)

make all the bulbs dimmer

109.

In a parallel circuit with three bulbs,

a)

the bulbs must all be located on the same branch

b)

there is only one path for the current to take

c)

current from each bulb has its own path

d)

the overall resistance increases if a new branch is added

110.

In an electric circuit, the voltage is supplied by the ______________, the resistance is the _____________.

a)

battery, outlet

b)

outlet, battery

c)

power source, appliance

d)

light bulb, wire

111.

What is the overall charge of the balloon and the cloth in Diagram A?

a)

ballon positive, cloth negative

b)

both are neutral

c)

balloon negative, cloth positive

d)

both are negative

112.

What has rubbing the balloon on the cloth done to the charges on the objects shown in diagrams A and B above?

a)

Moved electrons from the balloon to the cloth, causing the ballon to be positive and the cloth to be negative

b)

Moved protons from the cloth to the ballon, causing the balloon to be positive and the cloth negative

c)

Moved electrons from the cloth to the balloon, causing the balloon to be negative and the cloth to be positive

d)

Moved potons from the balloon to the cloth, causing both to be positive

113.

In an electric circuit, the electricity flows from ______________to ___________.

a)

high voltage areas to low voltage areas

b)

low voltage areas to high voltage areas

c)

batteries to wires

d)

wires to batteries

114.

Which diagram(s) show parallel circuits?

a)

all of them

b)

A and B

c)

B, D, and E

d)

B and E

115.

What will happen to bulb 2 and 3 in the circuit diagram D if bulb 1 burns out?

a)

they will both stay lit

b)

they will both go out

c)

Bulb 2 will go out, but bulb 3 will stay lit

d)

Bulb 3 will go out, but bulb 2 will stay lit

116.

What is the potential difference across a 5.0 W resistor that carries a current of 5.0 A?

V=I* R

a)

100 V

b)

25 V

c)

10 V

d)

1 V

117.

A flashlight bulb with a potential difference of 4.5 V across it has a resistance of 8.0 W. How much current is in the bulb filament?

I = V/R

a)

36 A

b)

9.4 A

c)

1.8 A

d)

.56 A

118.

If an electric water heater uses 40 kW of power and runs for 8 hours, what is the total amount of energy used?

P= E*t

a)

5 KWH

b)

32 KWH

c)

48 KWH

d)

320 KWH

119.

The location of the strongest magnetic forces is the ____.

a)

electromagnets

b)

magnetic domains

c)

magnetic fields

d)

magnetic poles

120.

Which diagram best represents a magnetic field between two magnetic fields?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

121.

Which of the following situations is NOT true for magnets?

a)

like poles repel each other

b)

unlike poles repel each other

c)

north poles repel each other

d)

a north pole and a south pole will attract each other

122.

Electromagnetic induction is the process of producing an electric current by moving a loop of wire ____.

a)

through a magnetic field

b)

through a magnetic domain

c)

around an iron core

d)

around a magnetic pole

123.

In the diagram below, a steel paper clip is attached to a string, which is attached to a table. The clip remains suspended beneath a magnet

As the magnet is lifted, the paper clip begins to fall as a result of

a)

a decrease in the magnetic field strength near the clip.

b)

a decrease in the magnetic properties of the clip

c)

an increase in the potential energy of the clip.

d)

an increase in the gravitational field strength near the magnet

124.

The diagram below shows the magnetic field surrounding a bar magnet. The closer together the lines of force, the stronger the magnetic field. According to the diagram, where is the magnetic field the strongest?

a)

around the north pole

b)

around the south pole

c)

around the both poles

d)

in the center of the magnet

125.

Which compass needle orientation in the figure above might correctly describe the magnet’s field at that point?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

126.

A student wanted to find out how to make an electromagnet stronger. The results of his experiment are listed in the table below


According to these data, which of the following does not make an electromagnet stronger?

a)

increasing the number of batteries that are connected

b)

increasing the number of wire turns around the core

c)

increasing the number of nails inside the core

d)

increasing the number of tacks used

127.

The function of an electric motor is to change ____.

a)

chemical energy to electrical energy

b)

electrical energy to chemical energy

c)

electrical energy to mechanical energy

d)

mechanical energy to electrical energy

128.

In the United States, power lines can carry power voltages as high as 750,000 V, a step-down transformer reduces the voltage to ____ for home use

a)

60 V

b)

120 V

c)

60 Hz

d)

120 Hz

129.

An electron moving at constant speed produces

a)

a magnetic field only

b)

an electrical field only

c)

both a magnetic and and electric field

d)

neither a magnetic and and electric field

130.

What is structure B? What happens to it when energy flows?

a)

It is a permanent magnet, nothing happens when the energy flows

b)

It is a coil of wire with an iron core that will become an electromagnet when energy flows through it

c)

IT is a motor that spins faster when energy flows through it

d)

It is the energy sources that increases in power as more energy flows through it.

131.

Does the figure above represent a motor or a generator? Explain your answer

a)

Generator; electric energy is being converted from the motion of the fan

b)

Generator; mechanical energy is being converted from electrical energy of the battery

c)

Motor; electric energy is being converted from the mechanical energy of the fan

d)

Motor; mechanical energy is being produced from the electrical energy of the battery

132.

What happens when to the rotation of the coil (in the figure above) if the current flowing through it is increased?

a)

The rotation rate will also increase (spin faster).

b)

The rotation rate will decrease (spin slower).

c)

The rotation rate will not change

133.

A magnetic compass is placed near an insulated copper wire. When the wire is connected to a battery and a current is created, the compass needle moves and changes its position. Which is the best explanation for the production of a force that causes the needle to move?

a)

The copper wire magnetizes the compass needle and exerts the force on the compass needle

b)

The compass needle magnetizes the copper wire and exerts the force on the compass needle

c)

The insulation on the wire becomes charged, which exerts the force on the compass needle

d)

The current in the wire produces a magnetic field that exerts the force on the compass needle

134.

What effect does the transformer below have on the voltage?

a)

It steps up the voltage

b)

It steps down the voltage

c)

It has no effect on the voltage

d)

It cancels out the voltage

135.

The layer on which the tectonic plates move is the ____.

a)

lithosphere

b)

asthenosphere

c)

core

d)

crust

136.

When the heat source is removed from a fluid, convection currents in the fluid will

a)

speed up

b)

change directions

c)

eventually stop

d)

continue as the same rate forever

137.

How did scientists discover that rocks farther away from the mid-ocean ridge were older than those closer to it?

a)

by observing eruptions of molten material on the sea floor

b)

by mapping rocks on the sea floor using sonar

c)

by determining the age of rock samples obtained by drilling on the sea floor

d)

by measuring how fast sea-floor spreading occurs

138.

Scientists think that convection currents flow in the Earth’s

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

inner core

139.

What type of plate boundary occurs at location X?

a)

transform

b)

convergent

c)

divergent

140.

What feature occurs at Y, and how does it form?

a)

Y is a mountain formed by volcanic activty

b)

Y is an ocean trench formed by subduction of one plate under another

c)

Y is a volcanic island formed by the ocean floor melting under the continent

d)

Y is the ocean floor formed by sea floor spreading

141.

What is happening at Z?

a)

The continent is forcing the ocean floor up into the mountains

b)

Plate C is pushing up on plate B

c)

The edege of plate A is pushing B into C

d)

The edge of plate B is plunging beneath plate C and melting in the mantle

142.

Which type of plate boundary occurs at Y?

a)

transform

b)

convergent

c)

divergent

143.

What feature occurs at X and how does it form?

a)

X is an island arc formed by subduction

b)

X is a trench formed by sea-floor spreading

c)

X is a mid-ocean ridge formed by sea-floor spreading

d)

X is a mid-ocean ridge formed by subduction