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final exam

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

a dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when

a)

a weakened area develops in the aortic wall

b)

all layers of the aorta suddenly contract

c)

the inner layer of the aorta become separated

d)

the aorta ruptures resulting the profound bleeding

2.

a patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because?

a)

the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow

b)

the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing

c)

the lumen of the cornary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow

d)

tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen

3.

signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would most likely be delayed in patients who:

a)

have chronic hypertension

b)

have had a stroke in the pass

c)

are older than 40 years old

d)

regularly take illegal drugs

4.

Angina pectoris occurs when:

a)

myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply

b)

myocardial oxygen supply exceeds demand

c)

one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm

d)

a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque

5.

while auscultating an elderly women's breath sounds, you hear low pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. this finding is most consistent with which of the following conditions

a)

early pulmonary edema

b)

acute asthma attack

c)

aspiration pneumonia

d)

widespread atelectasis

6.

Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it:

a)

is less resistant to treatment

b)

is a more contagious type of disease

c)

has a greater ability to produce disease

d)

leads to chronic infection after exposure

7.

when caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should:

a)

transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital

b)

have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 min away

c)

perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient

d)

limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible

8.

the index of suspicion is most accurately defined as

a)

a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries

b)

the way in which traumatic injuries occur

c)

your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries

d)

the detection of less obvious life threatening injuries

9.

which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct?

a)

a nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma

b)

the MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patients injury

c)

a significant MOI always results in patient death or permanent disability

d)

the exact location of a patients injuries can be determined by the MOI

10.

what occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly?

a)

the majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar capillary membrane

b)

air move primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange

c)

air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respiration's

d)

minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate

11.

you are performing mouth to mouth mask ventilation's with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min what percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving?

a)

45

b)

65

c)

75

d)

55

12.

which of the following injuries would most likely cause obstructive shock?

a)

liver laceration

b)

cardiac tamponade

c)

spinal cord injury

d)

simple pneumothorax

13.

hypoglycemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of

a)

platelets

b)

plasma

c)

red blood cells

d)

whole blood

14.

you and your partner are both male and are attending to a 28 year old female patient complaining of diffuse abdominal pain. the patient is 34 weeks pregnant with her first child. the patient refuses to allow you to examine her, and her husband informs you that their cultures does not allow males to examine or care for pregnant women. you should

a)

respect the patients wishes, ensure that the appropriate documentation is completed, and transport the patient.

b)

insist that the patient requires proper care and that requires an adequate physical assessment and that you cannot be responsible for the outcome

15.

if a baby is born at 7:52, the second Apgar score should be calculated at:

a)

8:00

b)

7:59

c)

7:57

d)

7:57

16.

while triaging patients at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you encounter a 5 year old child who is unresponsive and apneic. after positioning his airway, you should:

a)

palpate for a carotid pulse

b)

deliver 5 rescue breaths

17.

trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately? per cubic foot.

a)

100 lb

b)

50 lb

c)

150 lb

d)

200 lb

18.

placards and labels on a storage container are intended to:

a)

give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container

b)

broadly classify chemicals as being explosive or nonexplosive

19.

the function of the national incident management system (NIMS) is to:

a)

educate city and county governments regarding foreign terrorist attacks

b)

prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents

c)

facilitate a standard method of incident command for natural disasters

20.

which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood?

a)

left

b)

atria

c)

ventricle

d)

right

21.

all of the following terms refer to a body part that is cold but not frozen, except:

a)

immersion foot

b)

trench foot

c)

frostbite

d)

frostnip

22.

a patient with an altered mental status is:

a)

usually able to be aroused with painful stimulus

b)

not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused

23.

a 37 year old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination duration. her blood glucose level reads 320mg/dl. if this patients condition is not.... will most likely develop:

a)

hypoxia and overhydration

b)

acidosis and dehydration

c)

severe insulin shock

d)

irreversible renal failure

24.

what is the most common misconception surrounding mental illness?

a)

everyone has some sort of mental illness

b)

all persons with mental disorders are physically violent and dangerous

c)

feeling "bad" or "depressed" means that you must be "sick"

25.

why might emts encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large?

a)

emts respond with law enforcement

b)

emts respond to patients who, by their definition, are having an emergency

26.

the emt should ensure that vaginal bleeding is

a)

not caused by traumatic injury

b)

taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic evaluation

27.

you are caring for a driver who struck a light pole. she admits to drinking while driving but says not to tell anyone. you should report the information to

a)

law enforcement personel

b)

the receiving nurse or doctor

28.

large amounts of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) are generated when:

a)

the cells function with adequate oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide levels in the blood are high

29.

the -------- is a muscular dome that forms the inferior boundary of the thorax, separating the thorax from the abdomen

a)

costovertebral angle

b)

diaphram

30.

a by- product of involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is:

a)

lactic acid

b)

nitrogen

c)

heat

d)

oxygen

31.

because a tracheotomy tube bypasses the nose and mouth

a)

the risk of local infection is significantly high

b)

secretions can build up in and around the tube

32.

a 59 year old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. what is the most likely cause of this patients condition.

a)

spontaneous pneumothorax

b)

pulmonary embolism

33.

approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during:

a)

rollovers

b)

frontal

c)

lateral collisions

34.

treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would most likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations:

a)

shortness of breath and blood pressure of 76/56 mm hg

b)

difficulty breathing

35.

which of the following is commonly observed in patients with right sided heart failure?

a)

labored breathing

b)

dependent edema

c)

pulmonary edema

36.

following a blunt injury to the head, a 22 year old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. on the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be most concerned with the possibility of:

a)

a fracture of the skull

b)

intracranial bleeding

37.

which of the following destinations is most appropriate for a 41 year old male patient who was involved in a rollover motor vehicle collision and is unconscious. assuming that the travel time to each is equal.

a)

only an level 1 trauma center

b)

a level 1 or a level 2 trauma center

38.

which of the following does not involve the presence of any symptoms?

a)

49 year old with blurred vision and ringing in the ears

b)

55 year old male with severe headache and 2 days of nausea

c)

61 year old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis

39.

you are ventilating a patient with a stoma. however air is escaping from the mouth to the nose to prevent this you should?

a)

thrust the jaw forward

b)

seal the mouth and nose

40.

in an acute injury setting , neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by:

a)

tachycardia

b)

hypothermia

41.

when should non lifesaving interventions be performed for your multisystem trauma patient

a)

prior to transport

b)

en route to the hospital

42.

you suspect your patient is in shock. you note the patients skin is pale. this is likely due to?

a)

peripheral vasoconstriction

b)

peripheral vasodilation

43.

three days after delivering her baby, a 30 year old women complains of a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. her level of consciousness is decreased and she is tachycardia. the emt should suspect.

a)

pulmonary embolism

b)

acute pulmonary edema

44.

by the 20th week of pregnancy, uterus is typically at or above the level of the mothers

a)

superior diaphragm

b)

belly button

45.

infection should be considered a possible cause of an airway obstruction in an infant or child, especially if he or she presents with:

a)

drooling or congestion

b)

extreme restlessness