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Variations in Health1 Final Review

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the name of the digestive tract?

a)

Elimentry Tract

b)

Alimentary Tract

c)

Eminentry Tract

d)

Enteral Tract

2.

All EXCEPT are the main functions of the digestive system?

a)

To ingest and digest food

b)

To absorb nutrients

c)

To circulate products to other organs

d)

To Absorb Water

3.

What does Lipase break down?

a)

Proteins

b)

Fats

c)

Carbs

d)

Alcohol

4.

What is the normal pH of the stomach?

a)

5-7

b)

2-4

c)

3-5

d)

4-6

5.

What disease of the GI system causes stomach contents to regurgitate up into the esophagus?

a)

Ulcers

b)

GERD

c)

IBS

d)

Diverticulosis

6.

What is a Hiatal Hernia?

a)

Stomach that has prolapsed from it's original position

b)

Protrusion of an organ through the abdominal wall

c)

Protrusion of part of the intestine, through the abdominal wall

d)

A portion of the upper stomach that protrudes through the esophageal opening of the diaphragm

7.

What Disease can cause inflammation, mucosal ulcerations, or abscesses anywhere from the mouth to anus?

a)

IBS

b)

Crohn's Disease

c)

Ulcerative Colitis

d)

Irritable Bowel Syndrome

8.

What is the name of disease that cause inflammation of weakened pouches in the colon?

a)

Diverticulosis

b)

Diverticulitis

c)

Ulcerative Colitis

9.

What bowel disease does NOT resolve WITHOUT medical treatment?

a)

Diarrhea

b)

irritable bowel syndrome

c)

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

10.

What should be encouraged for people with Diverticulosis?

a)

High fibre diet, avoid seeds, increased fluid intake

b)

low fibre diet, avoid seeds, high fluid intake

c)

laxative use, high fibre diet, lg fluid intake

11.

What are people at risk for with diarrhea?

a)

Dehydration, Electrolyte Imbalance, weight gain

b)

Vitamin deficiencies, dehydration, electrolyte imbalances

c)

Dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, retention of fluids

12.

What is included in the Urinary Tract?

a)

Kidneys, glomerulus, nephron

b)

Kidneys, ureter, bladder, urethra

c)

nephron, collecting tubule, kidney, ureter

d)

Loop of Henle, Collecting tubule, Kidney, bladder

13.

What is the name for infection of the bladder?

a)

Nephritis

b)

Cystitis

c)

Bladderitis

d)

Pyelonephritis

14.

How many mls of urine in the bladder, usually start to cause discomfort?

a)

450

b)

300

c)

650

d)

200

15.

Nephrolithiasis means what?

a)

Inflammation of the kidney

b)

Impairment of the nephrons

c)

Kidney stones

d)

Inflammation of the renal pelvis

16.

what does hematuria mean?

a)

Hemoglobin in the urine

b)

Maturation of hemoglobin

c)

blood in the urine

d)

concentrated urine

17.

What is Gout?

a)

Build up of Uric Acid in joints

b)

Inflammation of gall bladder

c)

Build up of calcium in joints

d)

gall stones

18.

What is inflammation of the prostate gland caused by an infectious agent such as bacteria, called?

a)

BPH

b)

TURP

c)

Orchitis

d)

Prostatitis

19.

What is inflammation of the Testes?

a)

Testitis

b)

Orchitis

c)

Prostatitis

d)

nutitis

20.

What is Phimosis?

a)

Disease of the pharynx

b)

condition of the stiffening of the phalanges

c)

Condition where the foreskin does not retract

d)

condition where the urethral opening of the penis is not located at the end

21.

All of these relate to the musculoskeletal system EXCEPT

a)

Provides support

b)

Provides protection for internal organs

c)

Produces blood cells & stores minerals

d)

detoxifies blood

22.

All EXCEPT one, are parts of the axial skeleton?

a)

ossicles

b)

vertebrae

c)

ribs

d)

clavicle

23.

Which skeleton allows for movement of extremities?

a)

Axial

b)

Appendicular

24.

Which type of joint allows for movement in only two directions eg. extension & flexion?

a)

pivot

b)

hinge

c)

gliding

d)

ball and socket

25.

What type of joint allows for rotary movement in every direction?

a)

hinge

b)

pivot

c)

ball & socket

d)

gliding

26.

What does a ligament do?

a)

Attaches bone to bone

b)

Attaches muscle to bone

c)

Attaches bursae to bone

d)

Attaches muscle to muscle

27.

What does a tendon do?

a)

Attach bone to bone

b)

attaches muscle to bone

c)

attaches muscle to muscle

d)

attaches bursae to bone

28.

How many bones are a part of the cranium?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

29.

Which cervical vertebrae allow for most movement of the neck?

a)

C3-C4

b)

C4-C5

c)

C5-C6

d)

they are all the same

30.

What is Hyperuricemia?

a)

High levels of urine in the blood

b)

High levels of uric acid in the blood

c)

high levels of blood in urine

d)

Excessive peeing with blood in it

31.

What type of arthritis affects joints due to wear and tear of the joints?

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

osteoarthritis

c)

osteoporosis

32.

What is an example of Functional Scoliosis?

a)

curve of the spine due to poor posture, not by spinal disease

b)

curve caused by congenital changes in the vertebrae

33.

What is Lordosis?

a)

increased curvature of the spine in the thoracic area

b)

increased curvature of the spine in the lumbar region

c)

S shaped side-to side curvature of the spine

34.

What does the medulla oblongata control?

a)

breathing, swallowing, gag reflex, heart function, digestion

b)

breathing, taste, sleep,

c)

balance, coordination

d)

memory, intelligence, behaviour

35.

What part of the brain controls vision?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

cerebrum

c)

temporal lobe

d)

occipital lobe

36.

What part of the brain controls balance & Coordination?

a)

cerebellum

b)

cerebrum

c)

frontal lobe

d)

occipital lobe

37.

What are the Pia, Arachnoid and Dura matter all called?

a)

meningitis

b)

meninges

c)

meningicoccal

d)

menses

38.

What is the sympathetic nervous system apart of?

a)

Autonomic nervous system

b)

central nervous system

c)

parasympathetic nervous system

d)

voluntary nervous system

39.

What are characteristics of cerebral spinal fluid?

a)

clear, contains erythrocytes, water, proteins

b)

clear, contains electrolytes, oxygen, RBC's,

c)

Contains electrolytes, CO2, glucose, O2, clear, odorless

d)

clear, odorless, contains WBC's, RBC's, O2, CO2, glucose

40.

What disability is caused by NON-progressive dysfuntion of the motor centers in the brain, causing problems with musculoskeletal problems as well as sensation & communication problems? Usually associated with prenatal abnormalities.

a)

cystic fibrosis

b)

cerebral palsy

c)

multiple sclerosis

d)

epilepsy

41.

What in NOT a types of CVA?

a)

aneurysmic

b)

ischemic

c)

hemorrhagic

42.

Which answer does NOT include signs of a CVA?

a)

unilateral numbness of face, arm, leg

b)

difficulty walking, swallowing or speaking

c)

bilateral weakness, numbness face

d)

sudden severe headache with no known cause

43.

All are included in Multiple Sclerosis EXCEPT?

a)

Demyelination of peripheral nerves

b)

progressive disorder

c)

may include pressure ulcers, deformities, contractures

d)

productive cough with excessive phlegm

44.

All are signs & symptoms of MS, EXCEPT?

a)

blurred vision or double vision, nystagmus ( Involuntary movement of eye)

b)

tremors, hesitant speech

c)

impaired breathing, increased cough, increased work of breathing

d)

clumsiness, numbness of arms/legs, tremors

45.

All are treatment goals for MS, EXCEPT

a)

encourage dependence of care giver as much as possible

b)

symptomatic relief, rest & exercise as tolerated

c)

maintain independence as much as possible, refer to physio or OT

d)

Maintain optimal functioning for as long as possible

46.

All are symptoms of Prakinson’s disease EXCEPT

a)

Resting tremor, bradykinesia, rigidity

b)

Non progressive, excessive dopamine production

c)

Mask-like face, shuffling gait, finger pill-rolling

d)

Increase salivation, slurred speech, weight loss

47.

All are affiliated with Bell’s Palsy EXCEPT?

a)

Non cureable

b)

Acute paralysis of one side face

c)

80% recover within a few weeks to months

d)

Clients complain of pain behind ear a few hrs or days before onset of paralysis

48.

What is myopia?

a)

Far sightedness

b)

Poor night vision

c)

Near aightedness

d)

Normal changes to vision related to aging

49.

What is astigmatism?

a)

Far sightedness

b)

Near sightedness

c)

Visual distortion due to irregular shaped cornea

d)

normal changes to vision related to aging

50.

What is the chart called that is used to test visual acuity?

a)

Smellen

b)

Stellen

c)

Slellen

d)

Snellen

51.

What disorder causes vision with “bull’s eye” area missing.

a)

Glaucoma

b)

Cataract

c)

Meniere’s Disease

d)

Macular degeneration

52.

What eye disease causes tunnel vision?

a)

Glaucoma

b)

Macular degeneration

c)

Cataracts

d)

Meniere’s dosease

53.

What type of hearing impairment would not benefit from a hearing aid at all?

a)

Sensorineural hearing loss

b)

Conductive hearing loss

c)

Mixed hearing loss

54.

What is tinnitus?

a)

Inflammation of tendons

b)

Ringing in the ears

c)

Inflammation of inner ear

d)

Ear infection

55.

When a person has otitis media, a Myringotomy may be performed. What will this procedure do?

a)

kill the bacteria that is causing the infection

b)

wash out the infection

c)

Allow for drainage of the fluid to prevent spontaneous rupture

56.

What disease causes fluid build up in the inner ear?

a)

Otitis media

b)

Tinnitus

c)

Vertigo

d)

Meniere’s Disease

57.

What type of anemia is due to premature rupture of RBC’s?

a)

Hemolytic Anemia

b)

Pernicuous Anemia

c)

Iron Deficient Anemia

d)

Sickle Cell Anemia

58.

What are symptoms of anemia?

a)

High heart rate, high resp rate

b)

Low heart rate, low resp rate

c)

High heart rate, low resp rate

d)

High resp rate, low heart rate

59.

what is a treatment for Polycythemia Vera?

a)

A Phlebotomy

b)

iron replacement

c)

Blood transfusion

d)

Decreased fluid intake

60.

What influence the socioeconomic factors in Morbidity and Mortality?

a)

Disease prognosis

b)

Disease Treatment

c)

Rich and Poor Clients

61.

All except what, are prevailing health risks among Aboriginal communities?

a)

Diabetes

b)

Alcohol & Substance abuse

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Leukaemia