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Chapter 15 Respiratory Emergencies

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 3hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

a blood clot lodged in the pulmonary artery is referred to as a:

a)

myocardial infarction

b)

stroke

c)

pulmonary embolism

d)

pulmonary effusion

2.

the oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange takes place in the:

a)

trachea

b)

bronchial tree

c)

alveoli

d)

blood

3.

the letter "s" in the pneumonic PASTE refers to:

a)

symptoms

b)

sputum

c)

severity

d)

sickness

4.

if carbon dioxide levels drop too low, the person automatically breathes:

a)

normally

b)

rapidly and deeply

c)

slower and less deeply

d)

fast and shallow

5.

in the level of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood rises above normal, the patient breathes:

a)

normally

b)

rapidly and deeply

c)

slower and less deeply

d)

fast and shallow

6.

inflammation and swelling of the pharynx, larynx, and trachea resulting in a "seal bark" is typically caused by:

a)

emphysema

b)

chronic bronchitis

c)

croup

d)

epiglottitis

7.

the rate of breathing is typically increased when:

a)

oxygen levels increase

b)

oxygen levels decrease

c)

carbon dioxide levels increase

d)

carbon dioxide levels decrease

8.

_______________is a sign of hypoxia to the brain

a)

altered mental status

b)

decreased pulse rate

c)

decreased respiratory rate

d)

delayed capillary refill time

9.

an obstruction to the exchange of gases between the alveoli and the capillaries may result from:

a)

epiglottitis

b)

pneumonia

c)

a cold

d)

croup

10.

pulmonary edema can develop quickly after a major:

a)

heart attack

b)

episode of syncope

c)

brain injury

d)

trauma

11.

pulmonary edema may be produced by:

a)

cigarette smoking

b)

seasonal allergies

c)

inhaling toxic chemical fumes

d)

carbon monoxide poisoning

12.

_______________is a loss of the elastic material around the air spaces as a result of chronic stretching of the alveoli

a)

emphysema

b)

bronchitis

c)

pneumonia

d)

diphtheria

13.

_______________is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system

a)

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

b)

cystic fibrosis

c)

pertussis

d)

bronchiolitis

14.

which of the following signs and symptoms will help distinguish COPD from congestive heart failure?

a)

dyspnea

b)

dependent edema

c)

wheezing

d)

skin color changes

15.

a pneumothorax is a partial or complete accumulation of air in the:

a)

pleural space

b)

alveoli

c)

abdomen

d)

subcutaneous tissue

16.

asthma produces a characteristic _______________as patients attempt to exhale through partially obstructed air passages

a)

rhonchi

b)

stridor

c)

wheezing

d)

rattle

17.

an allergic response to certain foods or some other allergen may produce an acute:

a)

bronchodilation

b)

asthma attack

c)

vasoconstriction

d)

insulin release

18.

in most cases, what is the treatment of choice for anaphylaxis?

a)

epinephrine

b)

high-flow oxygen

c)

antihistamines

d)

albuterol

19.

a collection of fluid outside the lungs on one or both sides of the chest is called a:

a)

pulmonary edema

b)

subcutaneous emphysema

c)

pleural effusion

d)

tension pneumothorax

20.

always consider _______________in patients who were eating just before becoming short of breath

a)

upper airway obstruction

b)

anaphylaxis

c)

lower airway obstruction

d)

bronchoconstriction

21.

_____________is defined as overbreathing to the point that the level of arterial carbon dioxide falls below normal

a)

reactive airway syndrome

b)

hyperventilation

c)

tachypnea

d)

pleural effusion

22.

which of the following is NOT an indication of inadequate breathing?

a)

accessory muscle use

b)

cyanosis

c)

a regular pattern of inspiration and expiration

d)

unequal chest expansion

23.

you respond to the home of a 78-year-old man having difficulty breathing. he is sitting at the kitchen table in a classic tripod position, wearing a nasal cannula. he is cyanotic, smoking, and has his shirt unbuttoned. his respirations are 30 breaths/min and shallow, his pulse rate is 110 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg.


your first thought as an EMT should be to:

a)

apply a nonbreathing mask at 15 L/min

b)

call for backup

c)

assess the airway status

d)

determine scene safety

24.

you respond to the home of a 78-year-old man having difficulty breathing. he is sitting at the kitchen table in a classic tripod position, wearing a nasal cannula. he is cyanotic, smoking, and has his shirt unbuttoned. his respirations are 30 breaths/min and shallow, his pulse rate is 110 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg.


his brain stem senses the level of _______________in the arterial blood, causing the rapid respirations

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

oxygen

c)

insulin

d)

tobacco

25.

you respond to the home of a 78-year-old man having difficulty breathing. he is sitting at the kitchen table in a classic tripod position, wearing a nasal cannula. he is cyanotic, smoking, and has his shirt unbuttoned. his respirations are 30 breaths/min and shallow, his pulse rate is 110 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg.


proper management of this patient should include:

a)

supplemental oxygen

b)

chest compressions

c)

suctioning

d)

epinephrine

26.

you respond to the home of a 78-year-old man having difficulty breathing. he is sitting at the kitchen table in a classic tripod position, wearing a nasal cannula. he is cyanotic, smoking, and has his shirt unbuttoned. his respirations are 30 breaths/min and shallow, his pulse rate is 110 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg.


which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of his inadequate breathing?

a)

he was cyanotic

b)

his shirt was unbuttoned

c)

he was in a tripod position

d)

his pulse rate was over 100 beats/min (tachycardia)

27.

you respond to the home of a 78-year-old man having difficulty breathing. he is sitting at the kitchen table in a classic tripod position, wearing a nasal cannula. he is cyanotic, smoking, and has his shirt unbuttoned. his respirations are 30 breaths/min and shallow, his pulse rate is 110 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg.


what should you do during the reassessment of this patient?

a)

assess vital signs every 2 minutes

b)

repeat the initial and focused assessments

c)

reassess what time your shift ends

d)

repeat the initial history

28.

which of the following is a question you would NOT typically ask during the history taking of a patient with dyspnea?

a)

what has the patient already done for the breathing problem?

b)

does the patient use a prescribed inhaler?

c)

does the patient have any allergies?

d)

what time did the patient wake up this morning?

29.

generic names for popular inhaled medications include:

a)

ventolin

b)

flovent

c)

albuterol

d)

atrovent

30.

contraindications to helping a patient self-administer a metered-dose inhaler include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

failure to obtain permission from medical control

b)

noticing that the patient is in the tripod position

c)

noticing that the patient has already taken the maximum dose of the medication

d)

noticing that the medication has expired

31.

contraindications for continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) include:

a)

being alert and able to follow commands

b)

a pulse oximetry reading of less than 90%

c)

a respiratory rate greater than 26 breaths/min

d)

hypotension

32.

a prolonged asthma attack that is unrelieved by epinephrine may progress into a condition known as:

a)

pleural effusion

b)

status epilepticus

c)

status asthmaticus

d)

reactive airway disease

33.

which of the following statements is FALSE regarding influenza?

a)

it may worsen chronic medical conditions

b)

it is primarily a human respiratory disease that has mutated to infect animals

c)

it is transmitted by direct contact with nasal secretions an aerosolized droplets

d)

it has the potential to become a pandemic

34.

pulse oximeters measure the percentage of hemoglobin saturated with:

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

carbon monoxide

c)

oxygen

d)

iron

35.

an acute spasm of the smaller airways associated with excessive mucus production and swelling is a characteristic of:

a)

asthma

b)

chronic bronchitis

c)

emphysema

d)

severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)

36.

chronic bronchitis is characterized by spasm and narrowing of the bronchioles due to exposure to allergies

a)

treu

b)

false

37.

with pneumothorax, the lung collapses because the negative vacuum pressure in the pleural space is lost

a)

true

b)

false

38.

anaphylactic reactions occur only in patients with a previous history of asthma or allergies

a)

true

b)

false

39.

decreased breath sounds in asthma occur because fluid in the pleural space has moved the lung away from the chest wall

a)

true

b)

false

40.

patients with carbon monoxide poisoning initially complain of headache, fatigue, and nausea

a)

true

b)

false

41.

pulmonary edema is commonly associated with congestive heart failure

a)

true

b)

false

42.

the distinction between hyperventilation and hyperventilation syndrome is straightforward and should guide that EMT's treatment choices

a)

true

b)

false

43.

COPD most often results from cigarette smoking

a)

true

b)

false

44.

COPD is characterized by long inspiratory times

a)

true

b)

false

45.

in cystic fibrosis, mucus becomes thick, sticky, and hard to move

a)

true

b)

false

46.

when assessing a patient, the general impression will help you decide whether the patient's condition is stable or unstable

a)

true

b)

false

47.

the pulse oximeter can help you determine the severity of the respiratory component of a patient's problem

a)

true

b)

false

48.

oxygen is typically withheld from COPD patients regardless of their breathing status

a)

true

b)

false

49.

side effects of inhalers used for acute shortness of breath include increased pulse rate, nervousness, and muscle tremors

a)

true

b)

false

50.

patients who are hyperventilating should be treated by having them breathe into a paper bag

a)

true

b)

false

51.

epiglottitis is more predominant in the adult population

a)

true

b)

false

52.

an RSV infection can cause respiratory illnesses such as bronchiolitis and pneumonia

a)

true

b)

false

53.

when assisting a patient with a small-volume nebulizer, the oxygen flowmeter should be set to 10 L/min

a)

true

b)

false

54.

snoring sounds are indicative of a partial upper airway obstruction

a)

true

b)

false

55.

signs and symptoms of pulmonary emboli include dyspnea, hemoptysis, and tachycardia

a)

true

b)

false

56.

you have been assessing a 17-year-old girl in respiratory distress and you have just completed the secondary assessment. your next step is to:

a)

make a transport decision

b)

consider a secondary assessment

c)

contact medical control

d)

make interventions

57.

you have been assessing a 17-year-old girl in respiratory distress and you have just completed the secondary assessment.


you have determined that the patient is hyperventilating. your emergency care would include:

a)

having her breathe into a small paper sack

b)

providing oxygen

c)

having her run in place until the hyperventilation subsides

d)

no interventions are necessary

58.

you have been called to a patent who resides in a long-term care facility and who is having difficulty breathing. after assessing and treating life threats to the patient's airway, breathing, and circulation, your next step in this case is to:

a)

make a transport decision

b)

obtain a SAMPLE history

c)

obtain an OPQRST history

d)

obtain baseline vital signs

59.

during the reassessment, vital signs should be taken every _______________minutes for the unstable patient

a)

3

b)

5

c)

10

d)

15

60.

during the reassessment, vital signs should be taken every _______________minutes for the stable patient

a)

3

b)

5

c)

10

d)

15