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Quiz 8 study guide

Total questions: 43

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
a)

scabies

b)

pediculosis

2.

A highly contagious skin disease caused by a parasite called a mite that burrows under the skin is ______. p.241

a)

capitis

b)

scabies

c)

furuncle

d)

carbuncle

3.
The most dangerous type of skin cancer, lesions can be brown, black, pink, or multicolored
a)
Basal Cell Carcinoma
b)
Squamous Cell Carcinoma
c)
Melanoma
4.
Noncontagious skin disease, may be hereditary, thick red area covered with white or silver scales
a)
Eczema
b)
Impetigo
c)
Dermatitis
d)
Psoriasis
5.

An excessively thick scar resulting from overgrowth of fibrous tissue is known as a

a)

stain

b)

cyst

c)

keloid

d)

bulla

6.

Which of the following is a secondary lesion?

a)

bulla

b)

cyst

c)

keloid

d)

nodule

7.
Which surface lesion is a small, solid, circular, raised spot?
a)
macule
b)
papule
c)
cyst
d)
pustule
8.
Which sureface lesion is a blister? 
a)
pustule
b)
Papule
c)
wheal
d)
Vesicle
9.
This condition is frequently called a bedsore or pressure sore.
a)
decubitus
b)
cellulitis 
c)
itchythyosis(optional)
d)
gangrene (optional)
10.
Which of the following conditions is a lice infestation? 
a)
varicella 
b)
pediculosis
c)
Scabies 
d)
Itchyosis
11.
Which of the following conditions is caused by a mite infestation?
a)
scabies
b)
impetigo
c)
wheal
d)
pediculosis
12.

Which medication is used to reduce inflammation in skin disorders

a)

antipruritic

b)

antibiotic

c)

corticosteroid

d)

antisep

13.

Which medication is used to kill mites and lice

a)

antipruritic

b)

antibiotic

c)

anti parasitic- permethrin

d)

antifungal

14.

What causes skin cancer?

a)

Over exposure to the sun

b)

Lack of exposure to the sun

c)

UV rays

d)

Vitamin D

15.

What types of Skin Cancer are there?

a)

Melanoma

b)

Bowel

c)

Basal Cell Carcinoma

d)

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

e)

Leukemia

16.

Common cause of hyponatremia

a)

Excessive aldosterone secretion

b)

Loss of the thirst mechanism

c)

Prolonged period of rapid, deep respirations

d)

Excessive sweating

17.

Which of the following is a common effect of both hypokalemia and hyperkalemia?

a)

Skeletal muscle twitch and cramps

b)

Oliguria

c)

Elevated serum pH

d)

Cardiac arrhythmias

18.

Insensible fluid loss refers to water lost through

a)

perspiration and expiration.

b)

urine and feces.

c)

perspiration only.

d)

feces only.

19.

When the osmotic pressure of the blood is elevated above normal, water would shift from the

a)

cells into the interstitial compartment

b)

blood into the cells.

c)

interstitial compartment into the blood.

d)

interstitial compartment into the cells.

20.

Which of the following would be considered normal serum pH?

a)

7.0

b)

8

c)

7.4

d)

4.5 to 8

21.
If a cell is placed in a HYPOTONIC solution, water will move _________ of the cell, causing it to ___________.
a)
into, swell
b)
out of, shrivel
c)
in and out of the cell, stay the same
22.

A cell SHRINKS in a ____ solution.

a)

ISOTONIC

b)

HYPERTONIC

c)

HYPOTONIC

d)

NO SOLUTION

23.

Which BEST explains why using a HYPERTONIC solution helps reduce swelling?

a)

A hypertonic solution has an EQUAL water concentration than the cells, making the water move IN and OUT of the cells EQUALLY.

b)

A hypertonic solution has a HIGHER water concentration than the cells, making the water move INTO of the cells.

c)

A hypertonic solution has a LOWER water concentration than the cells, making the water move OUT of the cells.

d)

Huh?

24.
Which of the following is the most important buffer system in the human body?
a)
plasma protein
b)
phosphate
c)
hemoglobin 
d)
bicarbonate 
25.
Fluid given for increased intracellular volume
a)
Isotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
Interstitial
26.

A 90-year-old patient receiving intravenous fluids. Which of the following symptoms would suggest that the patient has fluid volume overload?

a)

Temperature 101.80 F,BP 100/50, pulse 110/min with weak pulse

b)

Flat neck vein with weak pulse

c)

Urine output 500 ml/4 hour

d)

Pulse 110/min with bounding pulse

27.
The function of a diuretic is to:
a)
Increase electrolyte absorption 
b)
Stop the kidneys from making urine
c)
Increase urination to flush out excess electrolytes. 
d)
Cause a faster membrane potential 
28.
The nurse is preparing to provide a patient with an IV fluid that has a lower osmolarity than blood. Which type of fluid should the nurse document that the patient is going to receive?
a)
isotonic
b)
hypotonic
c)
hypertonic
d)
hydrophobic
29.
An older patient is admitted for treatment of fluid volume excess. For which serious respiratory complication of fluid volume excess should the nurse assess this patient?
a)
Pulmonary edema
b)
Pulmonary infarction
c)
Pulmonary fibrosis
d)
Pulmonary embolism
30.
A patient is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte should the nurse monitor carefully because of this medication?
a)
calcium
b)
potassium
c)
phosphate
d)
magnesium
31.
Which electrolyte is the primary regulator of fluid volume?
a)
potassium
b)
calcium
c)
sodium
d)
magnesium
32.

A 70-year-old patient with history of renal impairment is receiving intravenous fluids post-operatively following an abdominal surgery. Which of the nursing assessments the nurse must focus for the first 24 hours?

a)

Impair gas exchange

b)

Self-care deficit

c)

Risk for Fluid deficit

d)

Risk for fluid overload

33.

The nurse is aware that the patient who suffered a brain injury with cerebral edema will most likely receive a fluid that is:

a)

isotonic.

b)

hypertonic.

c)

hypotonic.

d)

enhanced with vitamin B.

34.

Electrolytes panel consist of

a)

Na,K, and Cl

b)

Na,K and Cl

c)

Na,K and HCO3

d)

Na,Cl and CO2

35.
Corticosteroids are used to treat
a)
Rheumatoid Arthritis
b)
Osteoarthritis
c)
Gout
d)
All of the above
36.

How does the joint appear during an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

Relatively normal

b)

Deformed, pale, and nodular

c)

Enlarged, firm, crepitus with movement

d)

Red, warm, swollen, and tender to touch

37.

Systemic effects of rheumatoid arthritis are manifested as

a)

headache, leukopenia, and high fever.

b)

nodules in various tissues, severe fatigue, and anorexia.

c)

progressive damage to a joint.

d)

swelling and dysfunction in many organs.

38.

Which of the following may precipitate an attack of gout?

a)

Severe hypercalcemia

b)

Development of a tophus

c)

Mild trauma to the toes

d)

A sudden increase in serum uric acid levels

39.

Therapeutic measures for osteoporosis include

a)

nonweight-bearing exercises.

b)

avoidance of all hormones.

c)

transplants of osteoblasts.

d)

dietary supplements of calcium and vitamin D.

40.

Joints affected by osteoarthritis can sometimes affect healthy joints by

a)

causing enzymes to be released that travel to other joints.

b)

the affected individual’s exerting stress on the normal joint to protect the damaged one.

c)

bacteria traveling from the affected join to a healthy one through the bloodstream.

d)

inflammation and edema affecting the entire limb.

41.

What is the typical joint involvement with rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

Progressive degeneration in selected joints

b)

Random single joints, progressing to involve other joints

c)

Bilateral small joints, symmetrical progression to other joints

d)

Abused or damaged joints first, then joints damaged by compensatory movement

42.

What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?

a)

Chronic inflammatory disorder affecting all joints

b)

Inflammatory disorder causing damage to many organs

c)

Systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction

d)

Degenerative disorder involving the small joint

43.

What is Fosamax used to treat?

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Osteoarthritis

c)

constipation

d)

inflammation

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