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Worksheets

NCFE 7th Grade Science Released Items

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 5hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Sally ran a distance of 8 m in 16 s. The graph below shows her motion. Which best describes her motion?

a)

Her speed was constantly changing.

b)

Her speed remained constant.

c)

She stopped moving after four seconds.

d)

She decreased her speed after four seconds.

2.
How does the energy of a roller-coaster cart change as the cart travels from the top of the roller coaster to the bottom?
a)
The cart has greater kinetic energy at the top than it does at the bottom.
b)
The cart has no energy at the top and more energy at the bottom.
c)
The cart has less potential energy at the top than it does at the bottom.
d)
The cart has potential energy at the top that is transformed to kinetic energy as it moves to the bottom.
3.
How can simple machines make work easier?
a)
by decreasing the force needed to complete the task
b)
by increasing the friction between the machine and the object
c)
by adding more work on the object than originally applied
d)
by removing the force of gravity on the object
4.
Why does the troposphere experience the greatest amount of atmospheric pressure compared to the other atmospheric layers?
a)
It produces the ozone layer.
b)
It has the highest temperatures.
c)
It contains a high concentration of gas particles.
d)
It is the region in which weather occurs.
5.
Which explains why most of the rain that falls comes from the ocean?
a)
The majority of evaporation takes place over the ocean.
b)
The majority of precipitation takes place over the ocean.
c)
Most rivers deposit freshwater into the ocean.
d)
Most clouds form near or over the ocean.
6.
Barometric pressure has been dropping all day. What weather conditions will most likely occur?
a)
sunny weather
b)
stormy weather
c)
calm weather
d)
hot weather
7.
A sea breeze blows from the ocean toward the shore. Why does this occur?
a)
High pressure over the land causes a downdraft to occur.
b)
The tide carries the wind to the shore as it moves back and forth.
c)
Conduction of heat from the warm water produces wind from the ocean.
d)
Air over land heats faster than air over water, which causes convection.
8.
Which two organisms contain chloroplasts and eyespots?
a)
amoeba and paramecium
b)
paramecium and volvox
c)
volvox and euglena
d)
euglena and amoeba
9.
How do a paramecium and an amoeba obtain food to live?
a)
A paramecium and an amoeba both use contractile vacuoles to capture food.
b)
A paramecium and an amoeba both make their own food through photosynthesis.
c)
A paramecium collects food into an oral groove, while an amoeba uses pseudopods to surround food
d)
A paramecium uses pseudopods to capture food, while an amoeba uses chloroplasts to make its food. 10 Tina observed a cell under a microscope. She concluded that it was a plant cell instead of an animal cell. Which structure helped her come to this conclusion? A She saw a vacuole, which animal cells lack. B She saw a nucleus, which animal cells lack. C She saw a chloroplast, which animal cells lack. D She saw a cell membrane, which animal cells lack.
10.
Tina observed a cell under a microscope. She concluded that it was a plant cell instead of an animal cell. Which structure helped her come to this conclusion?
a)
She saw a vacuole, which animal cells lack.
b)
She saw a nucleus, which animal cells lack.
c)
She saw a chloroplast, which animal cells lack.
d)
She saw a cell membrane, which animal cells lack.
11.
Which is a function of the respiratory system?
a)
to provide the body with carbon dioxide, which reacts with food to produce energy
b)
to provide the body with oxygen, which reacts with food to produce energy
c)
to provide the cells with glucose, which is used as a source of energy
d)
to provide the cells with water, which is used as a source of energy
12.
Why would the offspring resulting from fertilization have more differences than the offspring resulting from budding?
a)
Two parents provide all of their genes to their offspring during budding, unlike during fertilization.
b)
Each parent provides half of its genes to its offspring during budding, unlike during fertilization.
c)
Two parents provide all of their genes to their offspring during fertilization, unlike during budding
d)
Each parent provides half of its genes to its offspring during fertilization, unlike during budding
13.

Freckles (F) are dominant to not having freckles (f). The diagram shows the cross of a homozygous dominant parent (FF) with a parent of an unknown genotype for freckles. What is the unknown genotype and phenotype for the parent?

a)

homozygous dominant with freckles

b)

homozygous recessive without freckles

c)

heterozygous with freckles

d)

heterozygous without freckles

14.
Two black guinea pigs were crossed and they produced a litter of 4 black and 3 white guinea pigs. Which best explains this occurrence?
a)
White fur is dominant to black fur.
b)
White fur was the result of a mutation.
c)
Both parents were heterozygous for black fur
d)
Both parents were homozygous for black fur.
15.
Doppler radar shows a vertical rotating column of air with high wind speeds. Which is most likely occurring?
a)
the formation of a hurricane
b)
the formation of a tornado
c)
approaching warm front
d)
approaching snowstorm
16.
How are tissues and organs related?
a)
Groups of tissues form cells, which work together to make up a single organ.
b)
Groups of organs form cells, which work together to make up a single tissue.
c)
Groups of tissues work together to make up a single organ.
d)
Groups of organs work together to make up a single tissue.
17.
How does the cell wall of a plant cell compare to the plasma membrane of an animal cell?
a)
The cell wall controls what enters and leaves the plant cell; the plasma membrane provides mostly structure and support
b)
The cell wall converts sunlight into sugars; the plasma membrane controls energy production in the cell
c)
The cell wall provides structure and support; the plasma membrane controls the substances that enter and leave the cell
d)
The cell wall provides structure and support; the plasma membrane is surrounded by a structure that contains genetic information
18.
How do forces act on a dropped object as it is falling?
a)
Air resistance is pushing up on the object, while gravity is pulling it down
b)
Air resistance is pulling down on the object, while gravity is pushing it up
c)
Both gravity and air resistance are pulling down on the object.
d)
Both gravity and air resistance are pushing up on the object.
19.
What happens when a pebble lying on the ground is kicked?
a)
Energy is completely lost.
b)
Energy is transferred.
c)
Energy is destroyed.
d)
Energy is created.
20.
Why is it important to monitor the atmosphere during and after natural events, such as forest fires and volcanic eruptions?
a)
These events increase the amount of oxygen, which may contribute to a decrease in respiratory illnesses
b)
These events decrease the amount of dust, which may contribute to an increase in respiratory illnesses
c)
These events increase the level of harmful particles, which may contribute to an increase in respiratory illnesses
d)
These events decrease the amount of greenhouse gases, which may contribute to a decrease in respiratory illnesses
21.

This chart shows the relationship between temperature and altitude within each layer of Earth’s atmosphere. Which comparison between layers of the atmosphere is accurate?

a)

Temperature increases at high altitude in the troposphere because, unlike the other layers, it contains the ozone layer

b)

Temperature decreases at high altitude in the stratosphere because, unlike the other layers, it contains the ionosphere

c)

Temperature decreases at high altitude in the mesosphere because, unlike the other layers, it contains the ozone layer

d)

Temperature increases at high altitude in the thermosphere because, unlike the other layers, it contains the ionosphere.

22.

Which layer of the atmosphere contains the most water vapor?

a)

A troposphere

b)

B stratosphere

c)

C mesosphere

d)

D exosphere

23.

Which is the most likely cause of tropical storms?

a)

A Water runoff from the land fuels storm clouds.

b)

B High-pressure air causes storm clouds to form.

c)

C Sea breezes close to shore push storm clouds together.

d)

D Warm water evaporates, rises quickly, and interacts with a colder air mass.

24.

Over a period of several hours, a barometer shows rapidly decreasing air pressure. What type of weather will most likely occur next?

a)

A clear, sunny weather

b)

B rainy weather for days

c)

C cloudy, stormy weather

d)

D calm, windless weather

25.

What causes convection currents to occur on Earth?

a)

A cool air rising, warm air sinking

b)

B cool air rising, warm air rising

c)

C warm air rising, cool air sinking

d)

D warm air sinking, cool air sinking

26.

Why are scientists concerned with ozone depletion in the upper atmosphere?

a)

A because it causes greater levels of ground-level ozone

b)

B because it allows ultraviolet radiation to reach Earth’s surface

c)

C because it increases the amount of smog in highly populated cities

d)

D because it decreases global temperatures by decreasing incoming solar radiation

27.

How does the arrangement of the air molecules found in the troposphere compare to the arrangement of those found in the thermosphere?

a)

A The air molecules are closer together in the troposphere and are farther apart in the thermosphere.

b)

B The air molecules are farther apart in the troposphere and are closer together in the thermosphere.

c)

C The number of air molecules is the same in the troposphere as in the thermosphere.

d)

D There are fewer air molecules in the troposphere than in the thermosphere.

28.

Why do thunderstorms most often occur in the summer months?

a)

A The air pressure is higher in the summer months.

b)

B Increases in sunlight cause air molecules to contract.

c)

C The jet stream forces air upward during the summer months.

d)

D Higher temperatures increase the rate of evaporation and convection.

29.

What type of weather is most likely observed in an area when cirrus clouds are present?

a)

A rainy weather

b)

B calm weather

c)

C foggy weather

d)

D stormy weather

30.

Earth’s atmosphere is mainly composed of which gases?

a)

A hydrogen, helium, oxygen, and argon

b)

B nitrogen, oxygen, argon, and carbon dioxide

c)

C nitrogen, hydrogen, argon, and carbon dioxide

d)

D helium, hydrogen, oxygen, and carbon dioxide

31.

In which way are a euglena and a volvox different?

a)

A A euglena is an individual cell, while a volvox is a colony of cells.

b)

B A euglena uses cilia to move, while a volvox uses flagella to move.

c)

C A euglena can make its own food, while a volvox must capture its food.

d)

D A euglena only reproduces sexually, while a volvox only reproduces asexually.

32.

Which function does the nucleus of a cell perform?

a)

A It releases energy for the cell.

b)

B It provides structure for the cell.

c)

C It controls the activity of the cell.

d)

D It forms the boundary of the cell.

33.

Which best explains why muscle is considered a tissue?

a)

A It is connected to bones.

b)

B It can move voluntarily or involuntarily.

c)

C It interacts with several organ systems.

d)

D It is a group of cells working together.

34.

What is one way the respiratory system and the circulatory system work together in the human body?

a)

A The circulatory system takes in nutrients, while the respiratory system delivers oxygen.

b)

B The circulatory system takes in water, and the respiratory system takes in carbon dioxide.

c)

C The respiratory system takes in nutrients, while the circulatory system delivers carbon dioxide to the cells of the body.

d)

D The respiratory system takes in oxygen, and the circulatory system delivers the oxygen to the cells of the body.

35.

How do a volvox and an amoeba get their food?

a)

A A volvox uses eyespots, and an amoeba uses cilia to find food.

b)

B A volvox uses photosynthesis, and an amoeba surrounds its food.

c)

C A volvox surrounds its food, and an amoeba uses cilia to find food.

d)

D A volvox uses pseudopods to find food, and an amoeba uses photosynthesis.

36.

Which statement describes the organization of living organisms?

a)

A All organisms are composed of many cells, which are the basic units of structure but do not perform life functions.

b)

B All organisms are composed of one or more cells, which are the basic units of structure and perform essential life functions.

c)

C All organisms are composed of many cells that have basic units with unique structures and functions.

d)

D All organisms are composed of one or more cells with the same shape and purpose but are not the basic units of structure.

37.

How do the digestive system and the circulatory system work together in the human body?

a)

A The digestive system sends electric messages, while the circulatory system responds to the messages.

b)

B The digestive system provides structure for the body, while the circulatory system directs the movement.

c)

C The digestive system removes liquid toxins from the body, while the circulatory system removes solid waste.

d)

D The digestive system extracts nutrients from food, while the circulatory system transports those nutrients.

38.

How is a gamete different from other types of cells in a person’s body?

a)

A It has no chromosomes.

b)

B It has half the number of chromosomes.

c)

C It has twice the number of chromosomes.

d)

D It has four times the number of chromosomes.

39.

A homozygous dominant black angelfish (BB) is crossed with a homozygous recessive gold angelfish (bb). What is the probability their offspring will be gold?

a)

A 0%

b)

B 25%

c)

C 75%

d)

D 100%

40.

Person X and person Y both smoked the same brand and amount of cigarettes for 20 years. Person Y develops lung disease while person X does not. Which statement best compares both people?

a)

A The genetic makeup of person X allowed for a higher tolerance to chemicals in tobacco than person Y.

b)

B Person X is a woman and thus more likely to develop lung disease.

c)

C The genetic makeup of person X allowed for a lower tolerance to chemicals in tobacco than person Y.

d)

D Person X is a man and thus more likely to develop lung disease.

41.

The offspring of many species of amoeba are genetically identical to their parent, while the offspring of most mammal species are genetically different from their parents. Which most likely explains the genetic differences in the offspring of amoebas and mammals?

a)

A Amoebas reproduce asexually, but mammals reproduce sexually.

b)

B Amoebas reproduce sexually, but mammals reproduce asexually.

c)

C Amoebas reproduce more slowly than mammals.

d)

D Amoebas reproduce faster than mammals.

42.

A Punnett square without the genotypes of the parents is shown below. What are the genotypes of the parents?

a)

A Cc, cc

b)

B CC, cc

c)

C Cc, Cc

d)

D CC, Cc

43.

How do people determine if a vehicle in which they are sitting is moving?

a)

A by comparing their position to a fixed object inside the vehicle

b)

B by comparing their position to a fixed object outside the vehicle

c)

C by comparing their position to a moving object inside the vehicle

d)

D by comparing their position to a moving object outside the vehicle

44.

Two students pull on a rope in opposite directions, each with a force of 100 N. What would most likely happen to the rope if the student on the left increased her force to 125 N?

a)

A The rope would decrease its acceleration to the left.

b)

B The rope would decrease its acceleration to the right.

c)

C The rope would go from motionless to accelerating to the left.

d)

D The rope would go from accelerating to the right to accelerating to the left.

45.

The graph below shows John’s trip to school. Which points on the graph show John returning home because he forgot his book bag?

a)

A between points I and II

b)

B between points II and III

c)

C between points III and IV

d)

D between points IV and V

46.

Which graphs show a point where the objects were motionless over a period of time?

a)

A Graph 1 and Graph 2

b)

B Graph 3 and Graph 4

c)

C Graph 1 and Graph 3

d)

D Graph 2 and Graph 4

47.

Which best describes the motion of these objects?

a)

A Both Objects 2 and 3 are at a higher elevation than Object 1.

b)

B Both Objects 1 and 2 are at a lower elevation than Object 4.

c)

C Object 4 has traveled farther than the other objects.

d)

D Object 1 has traveled farther than the other objects.

48.

Which applied force will cause a glass of water sitting on a countertop to move?

a)

A a balanced force

b)

B a frictional force

c)

C a gravitational force

d)

D an unbalanced force

49.

Which will cause an increase in the mechanical energy of an object?

a)

A decreasing its kinetic energy

b)

B increasing its electrical energy

c)

C increasing its potential energy

d)

D decreasing its gravitational energy

50.

The diagram below shows the path of a marble. At which position does the marble have the most kinetic energy?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

51.

A person enters a room, flips the light switch, and a lamp turns on. What causes the lamp to turn on?

a)

A The circuit is open, and flipping the switch closes the circuit.

b)

B The circuit is closed, and flipping the switch opens the circuit.

c)

C The wires are connected, and flipping the switch disconnects the wires.

d)

D The wires are connected, and flipping the switch disconnects the lamp.

52.

Which simple machine would most likely be used to move an object over great distances and on a flat surface?

a)

r

b)

s

c)

t

d)

u

53.

How does the mechanical energy of a rock change as it falls from a mountain?

a)

A The mechanical energy remains the same because kinetic energy is changed into potential energy.

b)

B The mechanical energy remains the same because potential energy is changed into kinetic energy.

c)

C The mechanical energy increases because the kinetic energy is changed into speed, while the potential energy remains the same.

d)

D The mechanical energy increases because the potential energy is changed into acceleration, while the kinetic energy remains the same.

54.

The diagram below shows the path of an object.

The object is placed on point S and released toward point X. At which point will the object have the same amount of potential energy as it does when it is at point S?

a)

T

b)

U

c)

V

d)

X

55.

How does a wind turbine produce electricity?

a)

A It releases kinetic energy to the wind.

b)

B It releases potential energy to the wind.

c)

C It converts the wind’s kinetic energy to mechanical energy.

d)

D It converts the wind’s potential energy to mechanical energy.

56.

The diagram below shows the motion of a ball while being dropped. What happens to the energy of the ball from when t = 0 s to when t = 5 s?

a)

A Potential energy decreases and kinetic energy increases, but the total amount of mechanical energy remains the same.

b)

B Potential energy increases and kinetic energy decreases, but the total amount of mechanical energy remains the same.

c)

C Potential energy and kinetic energy both increase, and the total amount of mechanical energy increases.

d)

D Potential energy and kinetic energy both decrease, and the total amount of mechanical energy decreases.