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WorksheetsSports Medicine 2 Fall Final Exam 2018
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Improper care of a thigh contusion leading to incomplete absorption of the hematoma and producing a formation similar to cartilage or bone is called:
a)
Myositis Ossificans Traumatica
b)
Osteomyelitis
c)
Osteopyrexia
d)
Myositis Dessicans
2.
The most common site for a stress fracture in the femur is the:
a)
Femoral head
b)
Femoral neck
c)
Femoral shaft
d)
Femoral condyles
3.
Avascular necrosis of the femoral head seen in children 3 to 12 years of age is called:
a)
Osteopyroxymia
b)
Legg-Perthes disease
c)
Osteomyelitis dessicans
d)
Femoral Epiphysitis
4.
Repeated stress on the pubic symphysis and adjacent bony structures by the pull of muscles in the area causes:
a)
Osteomyelitis
b)
Osteitis Pubis
c)
Pubic Apophysitis
d)
Osteochonrosis
5.
Which of the following is NOT a sign of a fractured femur?
a)
A shortened thigh
b)
Loss of thigh function
c)
Swelling of soft tissues
d)
Internally rotated thigh
6.
In an athlete who has suffered a second-degree quadriceps contusion, knee flexion is usually:
a)
greater than 90*
b)
no more than 90*
c)
zero degrees
d)
less than 90*
7.
Strains are always a problem for athletes; they tend to recur because of:
a)
Inelastic scar tissue that lies down during the healing process
b)
Soreness associated with the inital injury
c)
Permanent muscle atrophy
d)
Limitations to full knee flexion
8.
A stress fracture of the femur is usually found _______________
a)
In the upper third
b)
In the middle third
c)
In the lower third
d)
At the lower weight bearing surface
9.
Pelvis stress fractures tend to occur during:
a)
Intensive training
b)
Competitive racing
c)
Overuse forces
d)
All of the above
10.
Which of the following tears in the quadriceps creates little diability and discomfort but causes some deformity of the anterior thigh?
a)
Peripheral tear
b)
Deep tear
c)
Partial tear
d)
Complete tear
11.
Which of the following is NOT associated with an acute femur fracture?
a)
It usually is caused by falling from a height
b)
it occurs in the middle 1/3 of the bone
c)
bone displacement is usually due to the great strength of the hamstrings
d)
It most often occurs in the shaft rather than the ends of the bone
12.
A positive Thomas Test indicates tightness in which muscle group?
a)
Hip Extensors
b)
Hip Flexors
c)
Hip Adductors
d)
Hip Internal Rotators
13.
A positive Straight Leg Raise Test can be indicative of all of the following conditions except:
a)
A lower back problems
b)
Injury to the sacroiliac joint
c)
Tightness in the hip extensors
d)
Inflexibility in the hip flexors
e)
s
14.
Which of the following muscles DO NOT flex the knee?
a)
Semimembranosus
b)
Rectus Femoris
c)
Semitendinosis
d)
Biceps Femoris
15.
A hockey player complains of gradual increase in pain over tha last two weeks during practice adn while performing squats in the weight room. Your assessment revelas moderate point tenderness at the pubis symphysis and pain with resisted hip adduction. This athelte is suffering fron a/an:
a)
grade 2 adductor magnus strain
b)
osteitis pubis
c)
stress fracture of the neck of the femur
d)
Legg-Perthes disease
16.
Dislocated hips ____________ Choose all correct answers
a)
Occur frequently in sports
b)
result from traumatic force directed posteriorly along the long axis of the femur
c)
present with the hip in a flexed adducted and internally rotated position
d)
can be reduced on the field easily
17.
The ligament that protects the knee from valgus stress and external tibial rotational forces is the:
a)
Anterior Cruciate
b)
Posterior Cruciate
c)
Medial Collateral
d)
Lateral Collateral
18.
Which of the following muscles allows for internal rotation of the tibia?
a)
Biceps Femoris
b)
Vastus Medialis
c)
Gastrocnemius
d)
Popliteus
19.
The Lachman's Test is used to evaluate stability of the:
a)
Medial Collateral Ligament
b)
Anterior Cruciate Ligament
c)
Meniscus
d)
Patellar Femoral Joint
20.
The mechanism of injury that leaves the posterior cruciate ligament at greatest risk for injury is:
a)
Hyperextension of the knee
b)
Falling with the knee bent and the foot dorsiflexed
c)
Landing on the anterior aspect of the bent knee with the foot plantarflexed
d)
A valgus stress with the knee fully extended
21.
The bursa that commonly becomes inflammed from overuse of the patellar tendon is the:
a)
prepatellar bursa
b)
superficial infrapatellar bursa
c)
suprapatellar bursa
d)
deep infrapatellar bursa
22.
The anterior cruciate ligament is most often injured:
a)
During deceleration with the knee in varus and the tibia internally rotated
b)
During acceleration with the knee in varus and the tibia externally rotated
c)
During deceleration with the knee in valgus and the tibia internally rotated
d)
During decleeration with the knee in valgus and teh tibia externally rotated
23.
Which of the following structures provides the main source of stability in the knee?
a)
Menisci
b)
Ligaments
c)
Bones
d)
Cartilage
24.
An athelte who has immediate, significant swelling is displaying signs consistent with an injury to which of the following?
a)
Cartilage
b)
Capsule
c)
Meniscus
d)
Cruciate ligament
25.
Prevention of knee injuries is dependent upon proper conditioning. The proper ratio of strength is important. Ideally the hamstring msucles should be ___________ percent of the strength of the quadriceps msucles.
a)
40 - 55
b)
50 - 60
c)
60 - 75
d)
70 - 85
26.
Most injuries to the medial collateral ligament result from blows to the ___________ aspect of the knee.
a)
Medial
b)
Lateral
c)
Anterior
d)
Posterior
27.
The medial meniscus is most commonly injured through:
a)
A varus force
b)
Hyperextension
c)
A valgus force
d)
A valgus force with rotation
28.
Condromalacia may be caused by:
a)
Strong quadricpes muscles
b)
Abnormal patellar tracking
c)
Varus deformity at the knee
d)
Supination of the foot
29.
Which of the following conditions is NOT considered a problem associated with the extensor mechanism?
a)
Osgood - Schlatter
b)
Jumpers Knee
c)
Osteochondritis
d)
Patellar Tendonitis
30.
After a first time patellar dislocation, the athelte is commonly immobilized for a minimum of ____ weeks.
a)
Two
b)
Three
c)
Four
d)
Five
31.
Which type of brace can be used for patellar tendonitis
a)
Functional Brace
b)
Prophylactic Brace
c)
Neoprene Brace
d)
Tenodesis Strap
32.
The quadriceps muscles primary job is to:
a)
Flex the knee
b)
Rotate the knee
c)
Flex the hip
d)
Extend the knee
33.
Getting the "wind knocked out" of you is characteristic of a:
a)
Heart contusion
b)
Pneumothorax
c)
Stitch in the side
d)
Blow to the solar plexus
34.
The danger associated with a ruptured spleen is its:
a)
Ability to increase the incidence of constipation
b)
Ability to splint itself, and then produce delayed hemorrhage
c)
High incidence of infection
d)
Ineffectiveness to produce antibodies and red blood cells
35.
Any athlete who recieves a severe blow to the abdomen or back region should be instructed to check for:
a)
Elevated blood pressure for several days afterward
b)
Signs of internal infection, mainly an elevated temperature
c)
Blood in the urine
d)
Visual acuity and headaches
36.
The treatment preferred by most physicians for an athlete with a hernia is:
a)
Avoidance of activities
b)
Surgical repair
c)
The wearing of a hernia belt for all activities
d)
Allowing the athelte to practice as is tolerable
37.
A direct blow to the anterolateral aspect of the thorax, a sudden twist, or a fall on a ball can compress the rib cage and result most often in a:
a)
Costal cartilage injury
b)
Solar plexus blow
c)
Hemothorax
d)
Rupture of the kidneys
38.
A condition in which the pleural cavity becomes filled with air that has entered through an opening in the chest is called:
a)
Hemothorax
b)
Pneumothroax
c)
Thoracodosalitis
d)
Traumatic asphyxia
39.
Hematuria in an athlete participating in contact or collision sports is a sign or symptoms of:
a)
Ruptured Spleed
b)
Contusion to the liver
c)
Kidney contusion
d)
Bladder infection
40.
Pain which radiates to the left shoulder and 1/3 of the way down the left arm is displaying:
a)
Rovsig's sign for appendicitis
b)
Kehr's sign for a ruptured spleen
c)
McBurney's sign for kidney infection
d)
Leseague's sign for an irritated sciatic nerve
41.
The solid organs which are contained in the abdominal viscera consist of the:
a)
Appendix, kidney, heart, and stomach
b)
Lungs, heart, and small intestines
c)
Kidneys, spleen, liver, adrenals, and pancreas
d)
Large intestines, small intestines, and appendix
42.
The condition in which an athlete takes a violent blow or compression to the chest, without any accompanying rib fracture, and presents with severe pain during breathing, coughing up blood and signs of shock is known as (a):
a)
Rib contusion
b)
Hemothorax
c)
Stress fracture of the ribs
d)
Sudden death syndrome
43.
Abdominal rigidity and pain at McBurney's point may indicate:
a)
an inguinal hernia
b)
an abdominal strain
c)
appendicitis
d)
an abdominal bruise
44.
Which of the following is a complication of a ruptured appendix?
a)
Hematuria
b)
Bacterial infection
c)
Inability to urinate
d)
Pain
45.
Abdominal viscera are part of the:
a)
urinary system
b)
digestive system
c)
reproductive system
d)
all of the above
46.
When the plural cavity becomes filled with air causing a lung to collapse it is referred to as a _____.
a)
pneumothorax
b)
tension pneumothorax
c)
hemothorax
d)
traumatic asphyxia
47.
A contusion to the intercostal muscles may make breathing difficult. What are the treatment options for suct an injury?
a)
RICE
b)
NSAIDs
c)
Rest and decreased activity
d)
All of the above
48.
Immediately following a testicular trauma, a contusion, the athlete is:
a)
placed on his side and flexes thighs to his chest
b)
placed on his back with knees flexed to chest
c)
placed on his back with gradual extension of the hips and abdomen
d)
do nothing, pain will resolve in 5 - 10 minutes
49.
Brachial plexus injuries ______________.
a)
present with no loss of function
b)
are often the result of stretch or compression of the brachial plexus
c)
no paresthesia
d)
all of the above
50.
Acute torticollis occurs when:
a)
a defect occurs in the articular processes of the cervical vertebrae
b)
a small piece of synovial membrane lining the joint capsule is impinged or trapped between the cervical vertebrae
c)
a small piece of nucleus puplosus is impinged or trapped between the cervical vertebrae
d)
a compression of the nerve root is impinged or trapped between the cervical vertebrae
51.
Movement of the vertebral column includes all of the following except :
a)
abduction
b)
lateral flexion
c)
extension
d)
flexion
52.
Which of the following are mechanisms of injury for the cervical spine?
a)
rotation and flexion
b)
lateral flexion
c)
flexion
d)
all of the above
53.
The straight leg raise test ____________.
a)
is utilized to determine the presence of sciatic nerve injury
b)
can be used to assess problems with the low back
c)
applies pressure to the SI joint
d)
all of the above
54.
Movement of the vertebral column includes all of the following except :
a)
abduction
b)
lateral flexion
c)
extension
d)
flexion
55.
Which of the following are mechanisms of injury for the cervical spine?
a)
rotation and flexion
b)
lateral flexion
c)
flexion
d)
all of the above
56.
A blow to the top of an athletes head while in flexion is called:
a)
axis loading
b)
linear loading
c)
atlas loading
d)
axial loading
57.
Which one of the following regions of the spinal column is in correct order from inferior to superior?
a)
sacrum, coccyx, lumbar, thoracic, cervical
b)
thoracic, cervical, lumbar, sacrum, coccy
c)
coccyx, sacrum, lumbar, thoracic, cervical
d)
cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, coccyx
58.
Spondylolysis refers to __________.
a)
slippage of a vertebrae
b)
degeneration of a vertebrae due to a congenital condition
c)
fracture of a transverse process
d)
none of the above
59.
The ligament that stabilizes and encircles the head of the radius is the:
a)
Annular Ligament
b)
Quadrate Ligament
c)
Lateral Collateral Ligament
d)
Medial Collateral Ligament
60.
Which of the following muscles is NOT on the anterior surface of the arm?
a)
Biceps
b)
Brachiali
c)
Triceps
d)
Brachioradialis
61.
Which nerve can become irritated secondary to cubitus valgus present at the elbow?
a)
Median
b)
Musculocutaneous
c)
Radial
d)
Ulnar
62.
Lateral epicondylitis results from:
a)
Repeated trauma to the olecranon
b)
Chronic fatigue of the biceps
c)
Repetitive extension of the wrist
d)
Repeated forceful flexion of the elbow
63.
The adolescent athlete who complains of sudden pain and locking of the elbow joint should be suspected of having:
a)
Epicondylitis
b)
Olecranon Bursitis
c)
Supracondylar Fracture of the Humerous
d)
Osteocondritis Dissecans
64.
If an athlete complains of burning and tingling or paresthesia to the fourth and fifth fingers, what structure may be damaged?
a)
Flexor digiti minimi
b)
Interosseus muscle
c)
Median nerve
d)
Ulnar nerve
65.
Most elbow dislocations result from falling on an outstretched hand and result in the ulna and radius dislocating:
a)
posteriorly
b)
anteriorly
c)
laterally
d)
medially
66.
A fracture resulting from the radius and ulna being forced backward and upward (hyperextension) is called a:
a)
Bowler's fracture
b)
Colles' fracture
c)
De Quervain's fracture
d)
Smith's fracture
67.
Forearm splints are seen most frequently in which sport?
a)
Football
b)
Volleyball
c)
Gymnastics
d)
Baseball
68.
Severe point tenderness in the anatomical "snuffbox" may indicate a fracture of which bone?
a)
hamate
b)
lunate
c)
scaphoid
d)
trapezoid
69.
Treating a suspected phalanx fracture includes all of the following except:
a)
application of ice after the injury has been splinted
b)
spinting the finger in extension
c)
Splinting the finger in flexion
d)
Referral to a physician
70.
Which of the following bones of the wrist is most commonly injured from contact while holding an implement?
a)
Scaphoid
b)
Hamate
c)
Capitate
d)
Lunate
71.
Which of the following results from a rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus tendon?
a)
Jersey finger
b)
Boutonniere deformity
c)
Mallet finger
d)
Gamekeepers thumb
72.
To ensure the most complete healing of a dislocated PIP and DIP joint, constant splinting must be maintained at a 30-degree agnle of flexion for how long?
a)
1 week
b)
2 weeks
c)
3 weeks
d)
6 weeks
73.
What motion(s) occur at the radioulnar joint?
a)
Flexion and extension
b)
Pronation and supination
c)
Radial and ulnar deviation
d)
Inversion and eversion
74.
Which of the following muscles attach to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus?
a)
Wrist extensors and pronators
b)
Wrist flexors and supinators
c)
Wrist extensors and supinators
d)
Wrist flexors and pronators
75.
Located farther from the midline of the body
a)
Lateral
b)
Fibroplasia
c)
Laceration
d)
Diastasis
76.
Amount of bone tissue in a certain volume of bone
a)
bone density
b)
ipsilateral
c)
concenctric contraction
d)
laceration
77.
Suffix meaning inflammation of
a)
itis
b)
caudal
c)
fowlers position
d)
dislocation
78.
determining and identifying the problem
a)
adduction
b)
diagnosis
c)
extrication
d)
capital supply
79.
An ear that has become thickened or deformed; boxing and wrestling
a)
cauliflower ear
b)
inversion
c)
diaphysis
d)
kinesiology
80.
When the extremity remains in constant contact with an immovable surface
a)
frequency
b)
integumentary system
c)
caudal
d)
closed chain activity
81.
Ammenorrhea, osteoporosis, and stress fracture
a)
hernia
b)
female athelte triad
c)
closed fracture
d)
contraindication
82.
Government program of medical insurance for persons of all ages with income limits
a)
medicaid
b)
diagnosis
c)
deep
d)
crepitus
83.
Condition when a fracture receives little or no blood supply
a)
abrasion
b)
avascular necrosis
c)
isotonic
d)
essential body fat
84.
Shortness of breath
a)
amphiarthorsis
b)
hypertrophy
c)
concentric contraction
d)
dyspnea
85.
Located closer to the midline of the body
a)
consumable supplies
b)
bilateral
c)
fowlers position
d)
medial
86.
decreased caloric intake
a)
anaphalaxis
b)
caloric deficit
c)
acute onset muscle soreness
d)
endurance
87.
an open wound in which the top few layers of skin are scrapped away
a)
abrasion
b)
malpractice
c)
binder
d)
cardiorespiratory training effect
88.
ends of the bone that form part of the joint
a)
acute onset muscle soreness
b)
abduction
c)
epiphysis
d)
dialation
89.
shortening of the length of a muscle due to decreased ROM
a)
caudal
b)
isotonic
c)
epinephrine
d)
contracture
90.
inflammation of a bursa
a)
bradycardia
b)
anesthetic
c)
bursitis
d)
homeostasis
91.
Organelle inside a cell that is responsible for energy production and cellular respiration
a)
bilateral
b)
elevation
c)
mitochondria
d)
inflammation signs
92.
Arms and Legs
a)
debriedment
b)
appendages
c)
bilateral
d)
licensure
93.
Lack of body water
a)
genu valgum
b)
inflammation signs
c)
dehydration
d)
incision
94.
person providing the care/treatment
a)
clinician
b)
anterior
c)
manual resistance
d)
ergonomic
95.
primary muscle causing movement
a)
Atrophy
b)
cyanosis
c)
cryotherapy
d)
agonist
96.
lack of oxygen
a)
hypoxia
b)
adipose tissue
c)
integumentary system
d)
HOPS
97.
Refusing to eat
a)
anorexia
b)
electrotherapy
c)
kinesiology
d)
fibrilation
98.
low number of blood pressure
a)
comminuted fracture
b)
intensity
c)
extrication
d)
diastolic pressure
99.
government program of health insurance for 65+
a)
medicare
b)
anthrology
c)
erythrocytes
d)
fibrillation
100.
Red blood cells
a)
caudal
b)
hypo-
c)
erythrocytes
d)
genu valgum
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