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AP Government Semester Review

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the two chambers of the United States Congress?

a)

Executive and Legislative

b)

Judicial and Executive

c)

The Senate and House of Representatives

d)

Black and Blue

2.

The Supremacy Clause states that

a)

state laws are superior to federal laws

b)

federal laws are superior to state laws

c)

expressed powers are superior to implied powers

d)

Illinois is superior to Huntley

3.
The first document that explained how the original 13 states would be governed
a)
Constitution
b)
Preamble
c)
Declaration of Independence
d)
Articles of Confederation
4.
What is the "elastic clause"?
a)
the power of Congress to do what is necessary and proper
b)
the power of the President to stretch his support
c)
the power of the State Department to regulate sewing goods
d)
the power of the states to do as much as they want
5.
What is the first paragraph of the Constitution called?
a)
Prehistoric
b)
Bill of Rights
c)
Amendment
d)
Preamble
6.
What are the first 3 words of the Constitution?
a)
We the students
b)
We the people
c)
We the citizens
d)
We the pupils
7.
Which branch of the government did Article I create?
a)
Executive Branch
b)
Legislative Branch
c)
Judicial Branch
d)
Olive Branch
8.
What did Shays' Rebellion help Americans realize they needed?
a)
A strong national government
b)
A stronger militia
c)
A common currency
d)
The ability to sign peace treaties
9.
The Virginia Plan and the New Jersey Plan were trying to answer the question...
a)
"Should slaves be counted for representation and taxation?
b)
"How should states be represented in Congress?"
10.
Who was happy with the Virginia plan?
a)
Small States
b)
Large States
11.
How many houses are in the Great Compromise?
a)
1 (unicameral)
b)
2 (bicameral)
12.
Which kind of state is happy with the Senate?
a)
Small State
b)
Large State
13.

Who opposed ratification of the Constitution?

a)

Federalists

b)

Anti-Federalists

c)

Delegates

d)

Continental Congress

14.
Which plan only had one house and it was based on each state having equal amount of representatives?
a)
Virginia Plan
b)
New Jersey Plan
c)
The Great Compromise
d)
Three Fifth Compromise
15.

National bank case -- Congress had the power to create a national bank under the "necessary and proper" clause (implied powers) and a state cannot tax a national entity as that violates the Supremacy clause.

a)

McCulloch v Maryland

b)

United States v Lopez

c)

Wisconsin v Yoder

d)

Shaw v Reno

16.

Struck down the "Gun-free School Zones Act" as it exceeded Congress's power under the commerce clause.

a)

Schenck v United States

b)

United States v Lopez

c)

Marbury v Madison

d)

Baker v Carr

17.

Which Amendment stated, "No state shall deny its citizens equal protection under the law"?

a)

The 13th Amendment

b)

The 20th Amendment

c)

The 14th Amendment

d)

The 17th Amendment

e)

None of the above

18.
(1819) US Constitution is "the supreme law of the land." This case began the process of expanding the power of the federal government through the necessary and proper clause. (Implied powers; since Congress has the power to tax and spend, the creation of a nation bank is implied [necessary and proper] to that end).
a)
McCulloch v. Maryland
b)
Marbury v. Madison
c)
Miller v. Johnson
d)
Plessy v. Ferguson
19.
Powers that are not given to the Federal government are 
a)
implied powers
b)
expressed powers
c)
reserved powers
d)
super powers
20.
In the Constitution, the implied powers of Congress come from the 
a)
Necessary and Proper Clause
b)
Supremacy Clause
c)
Relative Clause
d)
Santa Clause
21.
The power to tax is a(n)
a)
implied power
b)
concurrent power
c)
reserved power
d)
abused power
22.
The power to print money is a(n)
a)
reserved power
b)
concurrent power
c)
implied
d)
expressed power
23.
The power to run public schools is a(n)
a)
concurrent power
b)
expressed power
c)
reserved power
d)
implied power
24.
The central government of the United States is called the 
a)
federal government
b)
executive branch
c)
constitution
d)
congress
25.
The division of power between a central government and state governments is called
a)
The United States
b)
the Supremacy Clause
c)
the Necessary and Proper Clause
d)
federalism
26.
Powers of Congress that are stated in the Constitution
a)
expressed
b)
reserved
c)
implied
d)
concurrent
27.

Money given by the national government to the states?

a)

grants-in-aid

b)

welfare

c)

certificates of deposit

d)

treasury bonds

28.

Federal grants that must be used for specific purposes?

a)

block grants

b)

devolution grants

c)

federal approved grants

d)

categorical grants

29.

Terms set by the national government that states must meet if they are to receive certain federal funds?

a)

conditions of aid

b)

mandates

c)

waiver

d)

conditions of general purpose mandate

30.

Terms set by the national government that states must meet whether or not they accept federal funds?

a)

conditions of aid

b)

categorical grants

c)

mandates

d)

intergovernmental mandates

31.

Which type of grant allows the federal government to push its agenda?

a)

block grants

b)

categorical grants

c)

general purpose grants

d)

unfunded grants

32.
The  framers of the Constitution were people who ______.
a)
sold picture frames
b)
helped build house frames
c)
sold books 
d)
wrote the Constitutuion
33.
What does the constitutional concept called Checks and Balances mean?
a)
Each branch can check the local and state government's power.
b)
Each branch can check another branches power to ensure it does not become too powerful.
c)
The three branches can all do whatever they want without checking with each other.
d)
All of the branches have to agree on every decision made.
34.
No one part of the government can get too powerful because of this.
a)
Checks and balances
b)
liberty
c)
amendments
d)
ratification
35.
Who is known as the "Father of the Constitution"?
a)
James Madison
b)
Daniel Shays
c)
George Washington
d)
John Hancock
36.
What document formed the first national government of our nation? 
a)
The Articles of Confederation 
b)
The Constitution 
c)
The Declaration of Independence 
d)
The Magna Carta 
37.
The Constitutional Convention was convened to...
a)
write the Treaty of Paris.
b)
get all the signers of the Declaration together to celebrate.
c)
decide who would fight Daniel Shay.
d)
improve the Articles of Confederation.
38.
True or False?
A republic is a government in which citizens rule through elected representatives.
a)
True
b)
False
39.
What is the name for a change or addition to the Constitution?
a)
Federalism
b)
Amendment
c)
Ratification
d)
Veto
40.
What are the first 10 amendments to the Constitution called?
a)
The Bill of Rights
b)
The Preambles
c)
The Vetos
d)
The Federalisms
41.

Aside from categorical and block grants, there are also

a)

Concurrent grants

b)

Reserved grants

c)

Exclusive grants

d)

Project grants

42.

Grants are an example of _________ in action.

a)

Limited government

b)

Federalism

c)

Popular Sovereignty

d)

Judicial Review

43.

Why are some people critical of grants-in-aid?

a)

They give local government too much power

b)

They are not subject to Judicial Review from the courts

c)

They give the federal government power in areas not delegated to it

d)

They argue that poor people shouldn't be given handouts.

44.

Which principle of the Constitution is illustrated by the Preamble's declaration that people are the source of political power?

a)

Limited Government

b)

Separation of Powers

c)

Checks and Balances

d)

Popular Sovereignty

45.

What's an example of INDIVIDUALISM?

a)

Closely linked individuals

b)

Cooperation

c)

Go with your own personal preference

d)

Neither of these

46.

The process by which people form their political attitudes and values is called

a)

political correctness

b)

political engagement

c)

political participation

d)

political socialization

47.

Which of the following is the best definition of public opinion?

a)

the sum of many individual views

b)

what journalists think about issues

c)

the beliefs of one or more interest groups

d)

how politicians express common attitudes

48.

Which of the following is the most important reason why a scientific poll is more accurate than a straw poll?

a)

the type of questions asked

b)

the number of people surveyed

c)

the method of sampling employed

d)

the means of contacting people used

49.

How can the company conducting an opinion poll reduce the margin of error?

a)

ask fewer questions

b)

survey a larger sample

c)

use mail instead of phone

d)

limit the survey to college graduates

50.

How do political analysts determine the voting patterns of women and men?

a)

conduct exit polls

b)

examine the ballots

c)

review election results

d)

interview election judges

51.

The accuracy of a poll is usually expressed in terms of

a)

census parameter

b)

population error

c)

sampling error

d)

interview error

52.

To assess public opinion, political observers today rely primarily on

a)

election returns

b)

newspaper editorials

c)

voter registration drives

d)

opinion polls

53.

The larger the sample, the smaller the sampling error.

a)

true

b)

false

54.

Today the term __________________________ refers to an ideology that supports social and political reform, greater economic equality, and expansion of government social services.

a)

libertarianism

b)

liberalism

c)

conservatism

d)

egalitarianism

e)

authoritarianism

55.

A libertarian us someone who

a)

believes in social ownership and strong government

b)

believs in freedom and voluntary association with some government

c)

believes in the need to place strict limitations on voting rights and civil liberties

d)

believe that a single ruler should have total control over every aspect of people's lives

e)

believes that governments are inherently repressive and should be abolished entirely

56.

Which of the following is not an agent of socialization?

a)

the family

b)

social groups

c)

education

d)

the political environment

e)

all of the above are agents of socialization

57.

The term gender gap refers to

a)

difference in the amount of attention elected officials give to men and women in their campaign speeches

b)

differences in education and income levels for men and women

c)

differences in voting behavior between men and women

d)

differences in life expectancy between men and women

e)

differences in overall number of constitutional rights granted to men and women

58.

Which of the following are the most important external influences on how political opinions are formed in the marketplace of ideas?

a)

The government, private groups, and the news media

b)

the unemployment rate, the Dow Jones Industrial Average, and the NASDAQ composite

c)

random digital dialing surveys, push polls, and the bandwagon effect

d)

the Constitution, the Declaration of Independence, and the Federalist Papers

e)

the legislative branch, the executive branch, and the judicial branch

59.

A push poll is a poll which

a)

the questions are designed to shape the respondents opinion rather than measure the respondents opinion

b)

the questions are designed to measure the respondents opinion rather than shape the respodents opinion

c)

the questions are designed to reduce measurement error

d)

the sample is chosen to include only undecided or independent voters

e)

the sample is not representative of the population id is drawn from

60.

A familiar polling problem is the "bandwagon effect," which occurs when

a)

the same results are used over and over again

b)

polling results influence people to support the candidate marked as the probable victor in a campaign

c)

polling results influence people to support the candidate who is trailing in the campiagn

d)

background noise makes it difficult for a pollster and a respondent to communicate with each other

e)

a large number of people refuse to answer a pollster's questions

61.
People change as they grow older because of age-specific  experiences and thus people are likely to hold age-specific attitudes.
a)
life cycle effect
b)
generational effect
c)
political socialization
d)
sampling error
62.
A long-lasting effect of the events of a particular time on the political opinions of those who came of political age at the time.
a)
life cycle effect
b)
peer group
c)
gender gap
d)
generational effect
63.
When were millennials born?
a)
1967-2000
b)
1977-2000
c)
1987-2004
d)
1840-1890 (Dr. Adamo)
64.

If you were born in 1928 to 1945 what generation do you belong to?

a)

babyboomers

b)

silent generaton

c)

generation x

d)

millennial

65.

Where do you learn most of your political ideology?

a)

school

b)

super market

c)

family

d)

church

66.

This group is pro-2nd Amendment and gun ownership.

a)

Libertarian

b)

Independent

c)

Conservative

d)

Liberal

67.

Women, historically, have always been more __________________ in their outlook.

a)

liberal

b)

conservative

c)

manic

d)

even

68.

Abortion is seen as the right of a woman to decide what to do with their body. They are pro-choice.

a)

manic

b)

liberal

c)

conservative

d)

jealous

69.

This group is in favor of the death penalty as a punishment.

a)

libertarian

b)

conservative

c)

liberal

d)

secular

70.
This is the idea that everyone, citizens and powerful leaders alike, must obey the law
a)
Limited Government
b)
Republicanism
c)
Individual Rights
71.
Economic policy of President Reagan that supported tax cuts, cuts to social welfare spending and increased military expenditures to promote economic growth
a)
Trumpcare
b)
Obamacare
c)
Reganomics
d)
"Peace through Strength"
72.
The use of government spending and revenue collection to influence the economy
a)
Monetary Policy
b)
Fiscal Policy
73.
Decisions about how much to spend and how much to tax are part of...
a)
Monetary Policy
b)
Fiscal Policy
74.
The actions the Fed takes to influence the level of real GDP and the rate of inflation in a country
a)
Monetary Policy
b)
Fiscal Policy
75.

an economic propositions that taxes on businesses and the wealthy in society should be reduced as a means to stimulate business investment in the short term and benefit society at large in the long term

a)

Trickle-down Economics

b)

The Right

c)

Keynesian Economics

d)

Government Bailout

76.
Which of the following eliminated the literacy test?
a)
15th Amendment
b)
Voting Rights Act of 1965
c)
24th Amendment
d)
Civil Rights Act of 1965
77.
To reduce fraud, most States require voters to
a)
purge.
b)
register.
c)
be literate.
d)
pay a poll tax.
78.

Supreme Court case that said corporate campaign donations are speech

a)

Buckley v Valeo

b)

Citizens United v FEC

c)

Shelby County v Holder

d)

Anderson v SEC

79.

Money given directly to a candidate is called

a)

Hard money

b)

Soft money

c)

Dark money

d)

Independent expenditures

80.

Money given to a political party is called

a)

Soft money

b)

Hard money

c)

Dark money

d)

Independent expenditures

81.

A major change in party activity in the South since the 1960s is

a)

the emergence of a viable third party.

b)

a sharp decline in voter turnout.

c)

a decline in the level of two-party competition in state and local elections.

d)

a switch to support of Republican candidates in presidential elections.

82.
Elections which result in major shifts in party loyalty, usually revolving around some major issue, are called __________________ elections.
a)
dealignment elections
b)
primary elections
c)
realignment elections
d)
caucuses
83.
Periods where a sharp and lasting shift occurs in the popular coalition supporting one or both parties.
a)
Dealignment
b)
Party polarization
c)
Coattail effect
d)
Realigning ("critical") election

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