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Chem 2-8 Wednesday

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

the number of protons in the nucleus of an element

a)

atomic number

b)

mass number

c)

atomic mass

2.

which state of matter has a definite volume ad takes the shape of its container

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

3.

which state of matter takes both the shape and volume of its container

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

4.

which state of matter is characterized by having a definite shape and a definite volume

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

5.

which of the following is a physical change

a)

corrosion

b)

explosion

c)

evaporation

d)

rotting of food

6.

which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture

a)

air

b)

salt water

c)

steel

d)

soil

7.

which of the following is a homogeneous mixture

a)

salt water

b)

beef stew

c)

sand and water

d)

soil

8.

what is one difference between a mixture and a compound

a)

a compound consists of more than one phase

b)

a compound can only be separated into its components by chemical means

c)

a mixture can only be separated into its components by chemical means

d)

a mixture must be uniform in composition

9.

the first figure in a properly written chemical symbol always is

a)

boldface

b)

capitalzed

c)

italicized

d)

underlined

10.

which of the following is not a physical change

a)

grating cheese

b)

melting cheese

c)

fermenting of cheese

d)

mixing two cheeses in a bowl

11.

which of the following processes does not involve a change in chemical properties

a)

rusting

b)

fermenting

c)

boiling

d)

burning

12.

what happens to matter during a chemical reaction

a)

matter is neither created nor destroyed

b)

some matter is destroyed

c)

some matter is created

d)

some matter is destroyed and some is created

13.

which of the following is true for all chemical reactions

a)

the total mass of the reactants increases

b)

the total mass of the products is greater than the total mass of reactants

c)

the total mass of the products is less than the total mass of the reactants

d)

the total mass of the reactants equals the total mass of the products

14.

who was the man who lived from 460B.C.-370B.C. and was among the first to suggest the idea of atoms

a)

atomos

b)

dalton

c)

democritus

d)

thomson

15.

the particles that are not found in the nucleus of an atom are

a)

protons and electrons

b)

electrons only

c)

neutrons and electrons

d)

protons and neutrons

16.

all atoms are

a)

positively charged, with the number of protons exceeding the number of electrons

b)

negatively charged, with the number of electrons exceeding the number of protons

c)

neutral, with the number of protons equaling the number of electrons

d)

neutral, with the number of protons equaling the number of electrons, which is equal to the number of neutrons

17.

the nucleus of an atom

a)

the central core and is composed of protons and neutrons

b)

positively charged and has more protons than neutrons

c)

negatively charged and has a high density

d)

negatively charged and has a low density

18.

an element has an atomic number of 68. the number of protons and electrons in a neutral atom of the element are

a)

136 protons and 68 electrons

b)

68 protons and 68 electron

c)

68 protons and 0 electrons

d)

35 protons and 34 electrons

19.

all atoms of the same element have the same

a)

number of neutrons

b)

number of protons

c)

mass number

d)

mass

20.

How is the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom calculated

a)

add the number of electrons and protons together

b)

subtract the number of electrons from the number of protons

c)

subtract the number of protons from the mass number

d)

add the mass number to the number of electrons

21.

In which of the following is the number of neutrons correctly represented

a)

19/9F has 0 neutrons

b)

75/33As has 108 neutrons

c)

24/12Mg has 24 neutrons

d)

238/92 U has 146 neutrons

22.

The atomic mass of an element depends upon

a)

mass of each electron in the element

b)

mass of each isotope of that element

c)

relative abundance of protons in that element

d)

mass and relative abundance of each isotope of that element

23.

In the Bohr model of an atom, an electron in an orbit has a foxed

a)

position

b)

color

c)

energy

d)

size

24.

The principal quantum number indicates what property of an electron

a)

position

b)

speed

c)

energy level

d)

electron cloud shape

25.

How many energy sublevels are in the third principal energy level

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

26.

what is the maximum number of s orbitals in any single energy level in an atom

a)

1

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

27.

what is the maximum number of d orbitals in a principal energy level

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

28.

what is the maximum number of orbitals in the p sublevel

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

29.

The energy required to remove an electron from an atom

a)

Quantum

b)

Ionization energy

c)

cation

30.

what is the maximum number of electron in the second principal energy level

a)

2

b)

8

c)

18

d)

32

31.

When an electron moves from a lower to a higher energy level, the elcetron

a)

always doubles its energy

b)

absorbs a continuously variable amount of energy

c)

absorbs a quantum of energy

d)

moves closer to the nucleus

32.

the letter "p" in the symbol 4p3 indicates the

a)

spin of an electron

b)

orbital shape

c)

principle energy level

d)

speed of an electron

33.

if the spin of one electron in an orbital is clockwise, what is the spin of the other electron in the orbital?

a)

zero

b)

clockwise

c)

counterclockwise

d)

both counter and clockwise

34.

if three electrons are available to fill three empty 2p atomic orbitals, how will the electrons be distributed in the three orbitals

a)

one electrons in each

b)

two electrons in one orbital and one in another and none is the third

c)

three in one orbital and none in the other two

d)

three electrons cannot fill three empty 2p orbitals

35.

what are quanta of light called

a)

charms

b)

protons

c)

orbitals

d)

photon

36.

which scientist developed the quantum mechanical model of the atom

a)

albert einstein

b)

erwin schrodinger

c)

niels bohr

d)

ernest rutherford

37.

who predicted that all matter can behave as waves as well as particles

a)

albert einstein

b)

erwin schrodinger

c)

max planck

d)

louis de broglie

38.

what is another name for representative elements

a)

group a elements

b)

group b elements

c)

group c elements

d)

transition elements

39.

what is another name from transition metals

a)

group a elements

b)

group b elements

c)

noble gases

d)

group c elements

40.

which of the following is in the same group as phosphorus

a)

carbon

b)

magnesium

c)

nitrogen

d)

oxygen

41.

the modern periodic table is arranged by increasing

a)

mass

b)

charge

c)

number

d)

radius

42.

who arranged the elements according to atomic mass and used the arrangement to predict the properties of missing elements

a)

moseley

b)

lavoisier

c)

Dalton

d)

Mendeleev

43.

elements that are characterized by filling of p orbitals are classified as

a)

groups 13-18

b)

transition metals

c)

inner transition metals

d)

groups 1 and 2

44.

which subatomic particle plays the greatest part in determining the properties of an element

a)

electron

b)

proton

c)

neutron

d)

proton and neutron

45.

how does the atomic radius change from top to bottom in a group on a periodic table

a)

it decreases

b)

it increases

c)

decreases then increases

d)

increases then decreases

46.

how does the atomic radius change from left to right across a period in the periodic table

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

increase then decrease

d)

decrease then increase

47.

what element in the second period has the largest atomic radius

a)

carbon

b)

lithium

c)

potassium

d)

neon

48.

metals tend to

a)

gain electrons when they for ions

b)

all form ions with a negative charge

c)

all have ions with a 1+ charge

d)

lose electrons when they form ions

49.

a covalent bond in which the shared electron pair comes from only one of the atoms

a)

single covalent bond

b)

hydrogen bond

c)

coordinate covalent bond

50.

how many valence electrons are in an atom of phosphorus (#15)

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

51.

what is the name given to the electrons in the highest occupied energy level of an atom

a)

orbital electrons

b)

valence electrons

c)

anions

d)

cations

52.

what is the charge of a strontium ion

a)

-2

b)

-1

c)

+1

d)

+2

53.

the octect rule states that in chemical compounds atoms tend to have

a)

the electron configuration of noble gases

b)

more protons that electrons

c)

more electrons that protons

d)

eight electrons in their principle energy level

54.

how many electrons does barium (#56) have to give up to achieve a noble-gas electron configuration

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

55.

What is the formula of an ion formed when potassium achieve noble gas electron configuration

a)

k+2

b)

k+1

c)

k-1

d)

k-2

56.

how many electrons does nitrogen gain in order to achieve a noble gas electron configuration

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

57.

what is the formula of the ion formed when phosphorus achieves noble gas electron configuration

a)

p+3

b)

p+2

c)

p-2

d)

p-3

58.

what is the electron configuration of the calcium ion

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4 4s2

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1

d)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

59.

the electron configuration of a fluoride ion F-1 is

a)

1s2 2s2 2p5

b)

the same as the neon atom

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1

d)

the same as that of a potassium ion

60.

what is the electron configuration of the oxide ion (O-2)

a)

1s2 2s2 2p4

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6

c)

1s2 2s2

d)

1s2 2s2 2p2

61.

what is the net charge of any ionic compound

a)

-2

b)

-1

c)

0

d)

+1

62.

what is the formula for sodium nitride

a)

NaN

b)

Na2N

c)

Na3N

d)

NaN3

63.

what is the formula unit of aluminum oxide

a)

AlO

b)

Al3O

c)

AlO3

d)

Al2O3

64.

which of the following pairs of elements is most likely to form an ionic compound

a)

magnesium and fluorine

b)

nitrogen and sulfur

c)

oxygen and chlorine

d)

sodium and aluminum

65.

which of the following particles are free to drift in metals

a)

protons

b)

electrons

c)

neutrons

d)

anions

66.

an ionic bond is a bond between

a)

a metal and a nonmetal

b)

valence electrons and cations

c)

the ions of two different metals

d)

the ions of two different nonmetals

67.

which of these elements does not exist as a diatomic molecule

a)

Ne

b)

F

c)

H

d)

I

68.

which elements can form diatomic molecules held together by triple covalent bonds

a)

hydrogen only

b)

halogens only

c)

halogens and members of the oxygen group only

d)

hydrogen and halogens only

69.

which of the following diatomic molecules is joined by a double covalent bond

a)

O2

b)

Cl2

c)

N2

d)

He2

70.

the side-by-side overlap of p orbitals produces what kind of bond

a)

alpha bond

b)

beta bond

c)

pi bond

d)

sigma bond

71.

according to VESPR theory molecules adjust their shapes to keep which of the following as far apart as possible

a)

pairs of valence electrons

b)

mobile electrons

c)

inner shell electrns

d)

the electrons closest to the nuclei

72.

the shape of the methane (CH4) molecule is called

a)

tetrahedral

b)

square

c)

four-cornered

d)

planar

73.

what causes hydrogen bonding

a)

attraction between ions

b)

motion of electrons

c)

sharing of electron pairs

d)

banding of a covalently bonded hydrogen atom with an unshared electron pair