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Worksheets

AP bio Ch 11-13

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In yeast signal transduction, a yeast cell releases a mating factor which _____.

a)

acts back on the same cell that secreted the mating factor, changing its development

b)

passes through the membranes of neighboring cells, binds to DNA, and initiates transcription

c)

binds to receptors on the membranes of other types of yeast cells

d)

diffuses through the membranes of distant cells, causing them to produce factors that initiate long-distance migrations

2.

Which of the following is a type of local signaling in which a cell secretes a signal molecule that affects neighboring cells?

a)

hormonal signaling

b)

autocrine signaling

c)

paracrine signaling

3.

Hormones are chemical substances produced in one organ that are released into the bloodstream and affect the function of a target organ. For the target organ to respond to a particular hormone, it must _____.

a)

modify its plasma membrane to alter the hormone entering the cytoplasm

b)

be from the same cell type as the organ that produced the hormone

c)

experience an imbalance that disrupts its normal function

d)

have receptors that recognize and bind the hormone molecule

4.

When a neuron responds to a particular neurotransmitter by opening gated ion channels, the neurotransmitter is serving as which part of the signal pathway?

a)

relay molecule

b)

transducer

c)

signal molecule

d)

response molecule

5.

Which of the following types of signaling is represented in the figure?

a)

autocrine

b)

paracrine

c)

hormonal

d)

synaptic

6.

A G-protein receptor with GTP bound to it _____.

a)

is in its active state

b)

signals a protein to maintain its shape and conformation

c)

will use cGMP as a second messenger

d)

directly affects gene expression

7.

Testosterone (a hormone) functions inside a cell by _____.

a)

acting as a signal receptor that activates tyrosine kinases

b)

binding with a receptor protein that enters the nucleus and activates specific genes

c)

acting as a steroid signal receptor that activates ion channel proteins

d)

coordinating a phosphorylation cascade that increases spermatogenesis (sperm generation)

8.

One of the major categories of receptors in the plasma membrane reacts by forming dimers, adding phosphate groups, and then activating relay proteins. Which type does this?

a)

G protein-coupled receptors

b)

ligand-gated ion channels

c)

steroid receptors

d)

receptor tyrosine kinases

9.

A drug designed to inhibit the response of cells to testosterone (a hormone) would most likely result in _____.

a)

lower cytoplasmic levels of cAMP

b)

a decrease in transcriptional activity of certain genes

c)

an increase in cytosolic calcium concentration

d)

a decrease in G protein activity

10.

Binding of a signaling molecule to which type of receptor leads directly to a change in the distribution of ions on opposite sides of the membrane?

a)

receptor tyrosine kinase

b)

G protein-coupled receptor

c)

ligand-gated ion channel

d)

intracellular receptor

11.

Lipid-soluble signaling molecules, such as testosterone, cross the membranes of all cells but affect only target cells because _____.

a)

only target cells retain the appropriate DNA segments

b)

intracellular receptors are present only in target cells

c)

only target cells possess the cytosolic enzymes that transduce the testosterone

d)

only in target cells is testosterone able to initiate the phosphorylation cascade leading to activated transcription factor

12.

If an animal cell suddenly lost the ability to produce GTP, what might happen to its signaling system?

a)

It would not be able to activate and inactivate the G protein on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane.

b)

It would be able to carry out reception and transduction but would not be able to respond to a signal.

c)

It would use ATP instead of GTP to activate and inactivate the G protein on the cytoplasmic side of the plasma membrane.

d)

It would employ a transduction pathway directly from an external messenger.

13.

Which of the following would be inhibited by a drug that specifically blocks the addition of phosphate groups to proteins?

a)

G protein-coupled receptor binding

b)

ligand-gated ion channel signaling

c)

adenylyl cyclase activity

d)

receptor tyrosine kinase activity

14.

The receptors for steroid hormones are located inside the cell instead of on the membrane surface like most other signal receptors. This is not a problem for steroids because _____.

a)

the receptors can be readily stimulated to exit and relocate on the membrane surface

b)

steroids do not directly affect cells but instead alter the chemistry of blood plasma

c)

steroid hormones are lipid soluble, so they can readily diffuse through the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane

d)

steroids must first bond to a steroid activator, forming a complex that then binds to the cell surface

15.

In general, a signal transmitted via phosphorylation of a series of proteins _____.

a)

results in a conformational (structural) change to each protein

b)

requires binding of a hormone to an intracellular receptor

c)

activates a transcription event

d)

generates ATP in the process of signal transduction

16.

Adenylyl cyclase has the opposite effect of which of the following?

a)

protein kinase

b)

protein phosphatase

c)

phosphodiesterase

d)

phosphorylase

17.

Caffeine is an inhibitor of phosphodiesterase. Therefore, the cells of a person who has recently consumed coffee would have increased levels of _____.

a)

phosphorylated proteins

b)

cAMP

c)

adenylyl cyclase

d)

activated G proteins

18.

Which of the following is a correct association?

a)

kinase activity and the addition of a tyrosine

b)

phosphodiesterase activity and the removal of phosphate groups

c)

GTPase activity and hydrolysis of GTP to GDP

d)

adenylyl cyclase activity and the conversion of cAMP to AMP

19.

Protein kinase is an enzyme that _____.

a)

functions as a second messenger molecule

b)

serves as a receptor for various signal molecules

c)

activates or inactivates other proteins by adding a phosphate group to them

d)

produces second messenger molecules

20.

In signal transduction, phosphatases _____.

a)

move the phosphate group of the transduction pathway to the next molecule of a series

b)

prevent a protein kinase from being reused when there is another extracellular signal

c)

amplify the second messengers such as cAMP

d)

inactivate protein kinases and turn off the signal transduction

21.

At puberty, an adolescent female body changes in both structure and function of several organ systems, primarily under the influence of changing concentrations of estrogens and other steroid hormones. How can one hormone, such as estrogen, mediate so many effects?

a)

Estrogen is produced in very large concentration by nearly every tissue of the body.

b)

Each cell responds in the same way when steroids bind to the cell surface.

c)

Estrogen is kept away from the surface of any cells not able to bind it at the surface.

d)

Estrogen binds to specific receptors inside many kinds of cells, each with different responses.

22.

Phosphorylation cascades involving a series of protein kinases are useful for cellular signal transduction because they _____.

a)

amplify the original signal many times

b)

are species specific

c)

always lead to the same cellular response

d)

counter the harmful effects of phosphatases

23.

Cells use different signaling strategies to achieve different goals. In hormonal signaling _____.

a)

numerous cells can receive and respond to a signal produced in their vicinity

b)

the signal can be directed to a very specific target because a narrow space separates the target cell from the transmitting cell

c)

specialized cells release hormone molecules into the circulatory system, permitting distant cells to be affected

d)

special molecules are passed through cell junctions

24.

A small molecule that specifically binds to a larger molecule is called a(n) _____.

a)

α protein

b)

ligand

c)

protein kinase

d)

competitive inhibitor

25.

Receptors for signal molecules _____.

a)

all work via protein kinases

b)

are never found in the nucleus of a cell

c)

may be found embedded in the plasma membrane, or found within the cytoplasm or nucleus

d)

all work by opening ion channels

26.

A G protein is active when _____.

a)

GDP replaces GTP

b)

it is bound by its ligand and transported to the nucleus

c)

GTP is bound to it

d)

it is phosphorylated by protein kinase

27.

If a modified form of GTP that cannot be enzymatically converted to GDP were added to a culture of cells, the likely result would be _____.

a)

the inactivation of ligand-gated ion channels

b)

the inactivation of G-protein-linked signaling pathways

c)

the inhibition of pathways stimulated by tyrosine-kinase receptors

d)

that the activated G proteins would remain locked in the "on" position, transmitting signal even in the absence of a signaling molecule

28.

The general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a protein is _____.

a)

protein dehydrogenase

b)

protein phosphatase

c)

protein kinase

d)

protein cyclase

29.

ATPgammaS is a form of ATP that cannot be hydrolyzed by enzymes. If this compound was introduced to cells so that it replaced the normal ATP present in the cell, which of the following would you predict?

a)

an increase in the numbers of phosphorylated proteins in the cell

b)

an increase in anabolic cellular reactions

c)

a decrease in phosphorylated proteins in the cell

d)

an increase in cell division

30.

The source of phosphate for a phosphorylation cascade is _____.

a)

cAMP

b)

ATP

c)

protein kinase

d)

GTP

31.

cAMP usually directly activates _____.

a)

phosphodiesterase

b)

receptor tyrosine kinases

c)

G proteins

d)

protein kinase A

32.

A mutation in the active site of adenylyl cyclase that inactivates it would most likely lead to _____.

a)

an increase in the amount of cAMP present in the cell

b)

lower activity of protein kinase A

c)

higher activity of protein kinase A

d)

increased binding of adenylyl cyclase to the G protein that activates it

33.

IP3 (inositol trisphosphate) is produced as a result of _____.

a)

protein kinase A activation

b)

Ca2+

c)

the cleavage of a certain kind of phospholipid in the plasma membrane

d)

phospholipase C

34.

IP3 (inositol trisphosphate) acts by _____.

a)

activating cAMP

b)

phosphorylating signal receptors

c)

activating DAG

d)

opening Ca2+ channels

35.

In liver cells, epinephrine stimulates the breakdown of glycogen. As the signal-transduction pathway progresses, _____.

a)

the signal is reduced

b)

the signal is amplified

c)

the number of molecules involved decreases

d)

the number of molecules involved remains constant

36.

What is the final result of mitosis in a human?

a)

genetically identical 2n somatic cells

b)

genetically different 2n somatic cells

c)

genetically identical 1n somatic cells

d)

genetically identical 2n gamete cells

37.

Scientists isolate cells in various phases of the cell cycle. They find a group of cells that have 1.5 times more DNA than G1 phase cells. The cells of this group are _____.

a)

between the G1 and S phases in the cell cycle

b)

in the G2 phase of the cell cycle

c)

in the M phase of the cell cycle

d)

in the S phase of the cell cycle

38.

The first gap in the cell cycle (G1) corresponds to _____.

a)

normal growth and cell function

b)

the phase in which DNA is being replicated

c)

the beginning of mitosis

d)

the phase between DNA replication and the M phase

39.

In human and many other eukaryotic species' cells, the nuclear membrane has to disappear to permit _____.

a)

cytokinesis

b)

the attachment of microtubules to kinetochores

c)

the splitting of the centrosomes

d)

the disassembly of the nucleolus

40.

The mitotic spindle is a microtubular structure that is involved in _____.

a)

splitting of the cell (cytokinesis) following mitosis

b)

triggering the compaction and condensation of chromosomes

c)

dissolving the nuclear membrane

d)

separation of sister chromatids

41.

Metaphase is characterized by _____.

a)

splitting of the centromeres

b)

aligning of chromosomes on the equator

c)

separation of sister chromatids

d)

cytokinesis

42.

Some cells have several nuclei per cell. How could such multinucleated cells be explained?

a)

The cell underwent repeated cytokinesis but no mitosis.

b)

The cell underwent repeated mitosis with simultaneous cytokinesis.

c)

The cell underwent repeated mitosis, but cytokinesis did not occur.

d)

The cell had multiple S phases before it entered mitosis.

43.

At which phase are centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells?

a)

anaphase

b)

interphase

c)

metaphase

d)

prophase

44.

Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that prevents _____.

a)

nuclear envelope breakdown

b)

shortening of microtubules

c)

formation of a cleavage furrow

d)

elongation of microtubules

45.

Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. In which stage of the cell cycle did the nucleus contain 6 picograms of DNA?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

M

46.

A cleavage furrow is _____.

a)

a ring of vesicles forming a cell plate

b)

the separation of divided prokaryotes

c)

a groove in the plasma membrane between daughter nuclei

d)

the space that is created between two chromatids during anaphase

47.

In the figure above, which number represents DNA synthesis?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

48.

In the figure above, at which of the numbered regions would you expect to find cells at metaphase?

a)

I and IV

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

IV only

49.

What phase of mitosis is being shown?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

50.

Which option best describes what is happening during this phase?

a)

sister chromatids are being pulled apart

b)

homologous chromosomes are being pulled apart

c)

crossing over is occurring

d)

DNA is condensing

51.

What phase of mitosis is being shown?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

52.

Which of the following occurs during prophase of mitosis?

a)

crossing over between nonsister chromatids

b)

independent assortment

c)

the nuclear envelop breaks down

d)

chromosomes decondense

53.

What phase of mitosis is being shown?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

54.

What phase of mitosis is being shown?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

55.

What happens during telophase of mitosis?

a)

DNA decondenses

b)

nuclear envelop reforms

c)

crossing over

d)

the cytoplasm is split

56.

What part of the cell cycle occurred in order to separate these cells?

a)

independent assortment

b)

crossing over

c)

cytokineses

d)

synthesis

57.

Mitosis results in haploid daughter cells.

a)

true

b)

false

58.

The daughter cells of mitosis are genetically identical to each other.

a)

true

b)

false

59.

The purpose of mitosis is to create gametes.

a)

true

b)

false

60.

Crossing over occurs during prophase of mitosis.

a)

true

b)

false

61.

The purpose of mitosis is for growth and to replace dead or damaged cells.

a)

true

b)

false

62.

What is the arrow pointing to?

a)

condensed DNA

b)

chromatin

c)

Spindle fibers

d)

Cell plate

63.

What is the purpose of growth factors?

a)

to stimulate cells to divide

b)

to regulate crossing over

c)

to cause a cell into G0

d)

to help chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell

64.

Which option best describe density-dependent inhibition?

a)

cells must attach to a surface in order to divide

b)

cells will automatically stop dividing if they are given a growth hormone

c)

cells that are too crowded will stop dividing

d)

cells will continue with the cell cycle indefinitely

65.

Which of the following are true about cancer cells?

a)

cancer cell may not need growth factors to divide

b)

cancer cells always go into the G0 phase

c)

cancer cells are created by a process called transformation

d)

cancer cells do not skip cell cycle checkpoints

66.

Which type of tumor is usually characterized by being able to metastasize?

a)

benign

b)

malignant

67.

Several organisms, primarily protists, have what are called intermediate mitotic organization. What is the most probable hypothesis about these intermediate forms of cell division?

a)

They represent a form of cell reproduction, which must have evolved completely separately from those of other organisms.

b)

They rely on totally different proteins for the processes they undergo.

c)

They may be more closely related to plant forms that also have unusual mitosis.

d)

They show some but not all of the evolutionary steps toward complete mitosis.

68.

Through a microscope, you can see a cell plate beginning to develop across the middle of a cell and nuclei forming on either side of the cell plate. This cell is most likely _____.

a)

an animal cell in the process of cytokinesis

b)

a plant cell in the process of cytokinesis

c)

an animal cell in the S phase of the cell cycle

d)

a plant cell in metaphase

69.

Neurons and some other specialized cells divide infrequently because they _____.

a)

no longer have active nuclei

b)

have entered into G0

c)

can no longer bind Cdk to cyclin

d)

show a drop in MPF concentration

70.

Cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk) is _____.

a)

inactive, or "turned off," in the presence of cyclin

b)

present only during the S phase of the cell cycle

c)

the enzyme that catalyzes the attachment of chromosomes to microtubules

d)

an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins

71.

What happens if MPF (mitosis-promoting factor) is introduced into immature frog oocytes that are arrested in G2?

a)

Nothing happens.

b)

The cells undergo meiosis.

c)

The cells enter mitosis

d)

Cell differentiation is triggered

72.

Once a cell completes mitosis, molecular division triggers must be turned off. What happens to MPF during mitosis?

a)

It is completely degraded

b)

It is exported from the cell.

c)

The cyclin component of MPF is degraded

d)

The Cdk component of MPF is degraded and exported from the cell

73.

A research team began a study of a cultured cell line. Their preliminary observations showed them that the cell line did not exhibit either density-dependent inhibition or anchorage dependence. What could they conclude right away?

a)

The cells are unable to form spindle microtubules

b)

They have altered the series of cell cycle phases

c)

The cells show characteristics of tumors

d)

They were originally derived from an elderly organism

74.

For a chemotherapeutic drug to be useful for treating cancer cells, which of the following is most desirable?

a)

It is safe enough to limit all apoptosis (cell death).

b)

It does not alter metabolically active cells

c)

It interferes with cells entering G0.

d)

It interferes with rapidly dividing cells

75.

Cells from advanced malignant tumors often have very abnormal chromosomes and an abnormal number of chromosomes. What might explain the association between malignant tumors and chromosomal abnormalities?

a)

Cancer cells are no longer density-dependent

b)

Cancer cells are no longer anchorage-dependent.

c)

Cell cycle checkpoints are not in place to stop cells with chromosome abnormalities.

d)

Transformation introduces new chromosomes into cells

76.

Asexual reproduction occurs during _____.

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

fertilization

d)

chromosome exchange between organisms of different species

77.

Quaking aspen can send out underground stems for asexual reproduction. Sexual reproduction is not as common, but when it does happen, the haploid gametes have 19 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in the cells of the underground stems?

a)

9

b)

10

c)

19

d)

38

78.

Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16?

a)

The species is diploid with 32 chromosomes per cell

b)

The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell.

c)

Each diploid cell has eight homologous pairs

d)

A gamete from this species has four chromosomes

79.

Homologous chromosomes _____.

a)

are identical

b)

carry information for the same traits

c)

carry the same alleles

d)

align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II

80.

The human X and Y chromosomes _____.

a)

are both present in every somatic cell of males and females

b)

are the same size and have the same number of genes

c)

include genes that determine an individual's sex

d)

are called autosomes

81.

The karyotype shows the sex of this person is _____.

a)

male

b)

female

82.

Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis I?

a)

Homologous chromosomes of a pair are separated from each other.

b)

Sister chromatids are separated.

c)

Four daughter cells are formed.

d)

Daughter cells are genetically identical

83.

Sister chromatids separate from each other during _____.

a)

meiosis I only

b)

meiosis II only

c)

mitosis and meiosis I

d)

mitosis and meiosis II

84.

Which of the following occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?

a)

chromosome replication

b)

synapsis of chromosomes

c)

alignment of chromosomes at the equator

d)

condensation of chromosomes

85.

Which part of the cell cycle is being shown?

a)

metaphase

b)

telophase

c)

cytokinesis

d)

interphase

86.

Which stage is being shown?

a)

metaphase of mitosis

b)

metaphase 1 of meiosis

c)

metaphase 2 of meiosis

87.

You have isolated DNA from three different cell types of the same organism, determined the relative DNA content for each type, and plotted the results on the graph shown in the figure. Which sample might represent an animal cell in the G2 phase of the cell cycle?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

either I or II

88.

Somatic cells of roundworms have four individual chromosomes per cell. How many chromosomes would you expect to find in an ovum from a roundworm?

a)

4

b)

2

c)

8

89.

What is a major difference between mitosis and meiosis I in a diploid organism?

a)

Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, while homologous pairs of chromosomes separate in meiosis I.

b)

Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, while homologous pairs of chromosomes separate in meiosis II.

c)

DNA replication takes place prior to mitosis, but not before meiosis I.

d)

Only meiosis I results in daughter cells that contain identical genetic information

90.

Crossing over normally takes place during which of the following processes?

a)

meiosis II

b)

meiosis I

c)

mitosis

d)

mitosis and meiosis II

91.

Independent assortment of chromosomes is a result of _____.

a)

the random way each pair of homologous chromosomes lines up at the metaphase plate during meiosis I

b)

the random combinations of eggs and sperm during fertilization

c)

the random distribution of the sister chromatids to the two daughter cells during anaphase II

d)

the diverse combination of alleles that may be found within any given chromosome

92.

When homologous chromosomes cross over, what occurs?

a)

Two chromatids get tangled, resulting in one re-sequencing its DNA

b)

Two sister chromatids exchange identical pieces of DNA

c)

Corresponding segments of non-sister chromatids are exchanged

d)

Maternal alleles are "corrected" to be like paternal alleles and vice versa

93.

Imagine that there are twenty-five different species of protists living in a tide pool. Some of these species reproduce both sexually and asexually, and some of them can reproduce only asexually. The pool gradually becomes infested with disease-causing viruses and bacteria. Which species are more likely to thrive in the changing environment?

a)

the sexually reproducing species

b)

the asexually reproducing species

c)

Sexually and asexually reproducing species are equally likely to thrive

94.

What is this diagram showing?

a)

crossing over

b)

independent assortment

c)

interphase

d)

cytokinesis

95.

What is this diagram showing?

a)

independent assortment

b)

interphase

c)

mitosis

d)

random fertilization