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Basic concept (Units 6 to 10)

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 3hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The hardest part of the tooth _________

a)

Crown

b)

Dentine

c)

Enamal

d)

Odentoblast layer

2.

The vermiform appendix is considered as an ___________

a)

Outgrowth of Caecum

b)

Outgrowth of Colon

c)

Outgrowth of Rectum

d)

Outgrowth of Ileum

3.

The lamina propria and muscularis mucosae belong to ______ layer of alimentary canal?

a)

Submucosa

b)

Mucosa

c)

Muscularis

d)

Serosa

4.

The function of enterogasterone hormone is

a)

Inhibit gastric juice secretion

b)

Regulate the absorption of food

c)

Stimulate gastric glands to release gastric

juice​

d)

Suppress the hormone secretion from digestive tract.

5.

Trypsinogen is produced by __________

a)

Liver

b)

Pancreas

c)

Brunner glands

d)

Crypts of Lieberkuhn

6.

During Inspiration time diaphragm becomes ________ and __________

a)

Contracts & Flattens

b)

Contracts & Upward

c)

Relaxed & Flattens

d)

Relaxed & Upward

7.

The volume of air inhaled that does not take part in the gas exchange, only fills the respiratory passage __________

a)

Residual volume

b)

Dead space volume

c)

Inspiratory reserve volume

d)

Expiratory reserve volume

8.

Which of the following is opposite process of Bohr's effect?

a)

Hamburger's phenomenon

b)

Haldane effect

c)

Chloride shift

d)

Hering–Breuer reflex

9.

Which factor cause the oxygen dissociation curve shift to Right side?

a)

All of these

b)

Increase in hydrogen ion concentration

c)

Increase in temperature

d)

Increase in levels of 2,3-DPG

10.

Bicuspid valve and tricuspid valves are closed during

a)

Ventricular systole

b)

Ventricular diastole

c)

Atrial systole

d)

Joint diastole

11.

The most abundant component in blood plasma ________

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Erythrocytes

c)

Water

d)

Albumin and Globulins

12.

Which phase of an ECG signals when the ventricles contract?

a)

P

b)

QR

c)

ST

d)

QRS

e)

T

13.

The only vein in the body that carry oxygenated blood are the _______

a)

Vena Cava

b)

Pulmonary Veins

c)

Hepatic veins

d)

Hepatic portal vein

14.

The Children of a father with 'O' blood group and mother of 'AB' blood group have blood group

a)

O

b)

AB

c)

O or AB

d)

A or B

15.

Which of these are not a property of muscles?

a)

Excitability

b)

Extensibility

c)

Relaxability

d)

Elasticity

16.

Actin filaments bound to the edges of the sarcomere, in zig zag structures also known as the _______

a)

M-Line

b)

H-Zone

c)

Z-Disc

d)

A-Band

17.

During full muscle contraction the A Band will ________

a)

Disappear

b)

Get wider

c)

Stay the same

d)

Get narrower

18.

Reabsorption of Na++ from the collecting duct controlled by _________

a)

Aldosterone

b)

ADH

c)

Vasopressin

d)

Renin

19.

_______ process does reabsorption of salts, amino acids and glucose occur?

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active transport

d)

Diffusion

20.

Arrange the following in correct order based on increasing toxicity.

(A) Urea

(B) Uric acid

(C) Ammonia

a)

A-B-C

b)

B-A-C

c)

C-A-B

d)

A-C-B

21.

Mechanism of regulation between the environment of solutes and the loss or gain of water is known as _______

a)

Thermoregulation

b)

Osmoregulation

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Hemostasis

22.

Which type of neuron transmits a signal from the central nervous system to a muscle?

a)

Sensory

b)

Motor

c)

Intermediate

d)

Afferent

23.

Neurotransmitters are released from presynaptic membrane to synaptic cleft by process of ________

a)

Diffusion

b)

Hormonal stimulation

c)

Active transport

d)

Exocytosis

24.

Which of the following function does not maintained by medulla oblongata?

a)

Respiration

b)

Temperature

c)

Circulation

d)

Salivation and Gastric secretion

25.

The formation of magnum which connecting?

a)

First and second lateral ventricle

b)

Lateral ventricle and third ventricle

c)

Third and fourth ventricle

d)

The brain with spinal cord

26.

The coloured portion of eye in the given picture?

a)

Iris

b)

Lens

c)

Pupil

d)

Retina

27.

Which part of the ear is shaped like a snail shell?

a)

Semicircular canals

b)

Cochlea

c)

Auditory ossicles

d)

Organ of corti

28.

The stereocilia of hair cells of organ of Corti are covered

with a thick elastic membrane called?

a)

Reissner’s membrane

b)

Basilar membrane

c)

Tympanic membrane

d)

Tectorial membrane

29.

ACTH is secreted by ______

a)

Adrenal cortex

b)

Adrenal medulla

c)

Pituitary

d)

Thyroid

30.

The posterior pituitary gland is not a 'true' endocrine gland because ________

a)

It is under the regulation of hypothalamus

b)

It secretes enzymes

c)

It is provided with a duct

d)

It only stores and releases hormones

31.

Which hormone is responsible for Glycogenesis?

a)

Alpha cells of pancreas.

b)

Beta cells of pancreas.

c)

Thyroid gland.

d)

Delta cells of pancreas

32.

Steroid nature of hormones are produced only by the ________

a)

Anterior and posterior pituitary.

b)

Gonads and adrenal medulla

c)

Gonads and adrenal cortex

d)

Adrenal medulla and pancreas.

33.

Assertion(A) : Hormone calcitonin has an antagonistic effect to that of parathormone.

Reason(R) : Calcitonin Increases blood calcium level while parathormone decreases blood calcium level.

a)

Both A & R are true and the R is

the correct explanation of the A.

b)

Both A & R are true But the R is

the Not correct explanation for the A

c)

Assertion is false but Reason is True.

d)

Assertion is true but Reason is false.

34.

After an action potential, the neuron cell membrane can't be excited again straight a way, This is called

a)

Refractory period

b)

All or nothing law

c)

Resting potential

d)

Threshold stimulus

35.

This is a picture of the __________

a)

Peripheral nervous sysyem

b)

Central nervous system

c)

Autonomous nervous system

d)

All of these

36.

Which type of pheromone causes an immediate response in behaviour?

a)

Primer pheromones

b)

Releaser pheromones

c)

Dispersal pheromones

d)

All of these

37.

Nest making, web spinning, instincts & territoriality are all examples of?

a)

Innate behaviors

b)

Learned behaviors

c)

courtship behavior

d)

Acquired behavior

38.

Fireflies use light to communicate with each other through a process called _______

a)

Vocalization

b)

Sound

c)

Bioluminescence

d)

Chemical

39.

IVF stand for?

a)

In vitro fertilisation

b)

In vivo fertilisation

c)

In vital fertilisation

d)

In vocal fertilisation

40.

The attaining of sexually maturity of "Men" called as ______

a)

Puberty

b)

Parturition

c)

Menarche

d)

Micturition

41.

Accessory gland associated with the genital organs in female?

a)

Bulbourethral glands

b)

Bartholin's gland

c)

Cowper's gland

d)

Prostate gland

42.

During spermatogenesis, which of the following cells is the first to become haploid?

a)

Primary spermatocyte

b)

Spermatid

c)

Secondary spermatocyte

d)

Spermatogonium

e)

Spermatozoa

43.

What is used to distinguish between the deuterostome and protostome?

a)

Endoderm

b)

Archenteron

c)

Ectoderm

d)

Blastopore

44.

Which one is correct order of sequence Menstrual cycle?

a)

Proliferative > Menstrual flow > Secretory

b)

Menstrual flow > Secretory > Proliferative

c)

Secretory > Proliferative > Menstrual flow

d)

Menstrual flow > Proliferative > Secretory

45.

Which extra-embryonic structure takes part in formation of placenta?

a)

Chorion

b)

Allantois

c)

Amnion

d)

Yolk sac

46.

________ type of immunity developed from exposure to a pathogen refers to?

a)

Natural Passive immunity

b)

Natural Active immunity

c)

Artificial Active immunity

d)

Artificial passive immunity

47.

Killer T-cells are also known as ____________

a)

CD8 T-cells

b)

CD4 T-cells

c)

Helper T-cells

d)

Non of these

48.

Movement of phagocytes out of the circulatory system and towards the site of tissue damage referred to as

a)

Diapedesis

b)

Erythema

c)

Edema

d)

phagocytosis

49.

Which of the following is NOT part of the first line of defense?

a)

Skin

b)

Lysozyme

c)

Saliva

d)

B cells

50.

Which lymphoid organ is the site of erythrocyte, leukocyte, and lymphocyte production?

a)

Thymus

b)

Spleen

c)

Liver

d)

Lymph nodes

51.

Predominant immunoglobulin which is present in mother's milk?

a)

IgG

b)

IgE

c)

IgM

d)

IgA

e)

IgD

52.

Which of the following cells has a high affinity receptor for IgE?

a)

Dendritic cell

b)

Mast cells

c)

Basophils

d)

Eosinophils

53.

Which of the following describe the study of group of the population?

a)

Synecology

b)

Autecology

c)

Biomes

d)

Community

54.

_________ is not one of the diseases covered by the MMR vaccine?

a)

Measles

b)

Rubella

c)

Meningitis

d)

Mumps

55.

All of the following are autoimmune disorders except?

a)

Graves disease

b)

SCID

c)

Rheumatoid arthritis

d)

Addison’s disease

56.

Which of the following statement is CORRECT about the pyramid of energy?

a)

It is always inverted

b)

It is always upright

c)

It varies with the trophic level

d)

It is never upright

57.

The father of ecology in India is _______

a)

A.G.Tansley

b)

Reiter

c)

Ernest haeckel

d)

Ramdeo Misra

58.

Which of the following is NOT a symbiotic relationship?

a)

Competition

b)

Mutualism

c)

Parasitism

d)

Commensalism

59.

Zooplanktons of a pond ecosystem acts as ________

a)

Decomposers

b)

Primary consumers

c)

Secondary consumers

d)

Producers

60.

This picture explains about?

a)

Allen's Rule

b)

Bergman's rule

c)

Gloger's rule

d)

Cope's rule

61.

In an ecosystem, the flow of energy is _______

a)

Unidirectional

b)

Bidirectional

c)

Anydirectional

d)

Constant

62.

__________ represents the sedimentary type of nutrient cycle.

a)

Oxygen cycle

b)

Phosphorus cycle.

c)

Carbon cycle

d)

Nitrogen cycle

63.

Choose the incorrect matching pair?

a)

Standing crop - Mass of living matter in a trophic level at a given time

b)

Standing state - The amount of mineral nutrients in the soil at a given time

c)

GPP- total rate of stored material after respiration

d)

Biomass - matter originating from living plants

64.

The number of different species and the abundance of each species in a community is ________

a)

Genetic diversity

b)

Ecosystem diversity

c)

Species diversity

d)

Marine biodiversity

65.

Species that are only found in a specific geographic area are _______.

a)

Endangered species

b)

Endemic species

c)

Rare species

d)

Extinct species

66.

What effect is shown in this picture?

a)

Biomagnification

b)

Bioremidiation

c)

Fragmentation

d)

Eutrophication

67.

Which zone in the biosphere reserves is a legally protected zone wherein land and water is not to be disturbed by human activity.

a)

Transition zone

b)

Buffer zone

c)

Danger zone

d)

Core zone

68.

Which pair is correct ?

a)

Rajasthan - Ranthambore National Park

b)

Gujarat - Bandipur national park

c)

Assam - Gir national park

d)

Tamil Nadu - Periyar national park

69.

Wildlife Institute of India is located at ______

a)

Nagpur

b)

Dehradun

c)

Bhobal

d)

Lucknow

70.

Animals that can tolerate wide range of salinity are called ___________

a)

Stenohaline

b)

Euryhaline

c)

Conformors

d)

Regulaters

71.

If 100 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to hawk as in the food chain in following?

Grass → Rat → Snake → Hawk

a)

10 J

b)

1 J

c)

0.1 J

d)

0.01 J

72.

The first international convention on the environment was held at?

a)

New delhi

b)

New York

c)

Stockholm

d)

Geneva

73.

____ is a resource that, when it is used up, will not exist again during a human lifetime.

a)

Natural resource

b)

Renewable resource

c)

Nonrenewable resource

d)

Man made resource

74.

The Environment protection bill was passed by parliament of India in

a)

1986

b)

1968

c)

1972

d)

1981

75.

Choose the wrong matching pair?

a)

World Biodiversity day - December 29

b)

World Environment day - July 5

c)

World earth day - April 22

d)

World forest day - March 21

76.

Full form of WCU in Biology?

a)

World Conservation Union

b)

Wild Conservation Union

c)

Wind Collection Union

d)

Wildlife conservation by Unesco

77.

The word "ACID RAIN" coined by

a)

Odum

b)

Robert August

c)

Walter Rosen

d)

Norman Myers

78.

Blue baby syndrome is caused by pollution of

a)

Cadmium

b)

Mercury

c)

Nitrate

d)

Fluoride

79.

Which of the following is not a Green house Gases?

a)

Chlorofluorocarbons

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Carbon monoxide

d)

Methane

80.

Earth summit protocol is related to _________

a)

Reduce Green house gases

b)

Reduce Biodiversity

c)

Reduce ozone depleting substance

d)

Increase the Biodiversity

81.

What is the first layer of the atmosphere?

a)

Mesosphere

b)

Troposphere

c)

Thermosphere

d)

Stratosphere

82.

Which gas was believed to be absent from early Earth's atmosphere?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Carbon

83.

Which of the following terms refers to life coming from other living things?

a)

Abiogenesis

b)

Biogenesis

c)

Spontaneous generation

d)

Endosymbiotic origin

84.

The abundance of fossils of marine invertebrates is found in _________era.

a)

Cenozoic

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Precambrian

d)

Paleozoic

85.

Which one of the following amino acids was not found to be synthesized in Miller’s experiment?

a)

Alanine

b)

Glycine

c)

Aspartic acid

d)

Glutamic acid

86.

The tail bone, wisdom teeth, and appendix are all parts of the human anatomy that would be considered...

a)

Homologous structures

b)

Vestigial structures

c)

Analogous structures

d)

Transitional forms

87.

Given picture is an example of ________

a)

Homologous organs

b)

Analogous organs

c)

Vestigial organs

d)

Heterozygous ogans

88.

Which of the following is an important concept in Darwin's theory of evolution b y natural selection?

a)

Struggle for existence

b)

Survival of the fittest

c)

Descent with modification

d)

All of these

89.

which of the following is not a missing link?

a)

Peripatus

b)

Neoplina

c)

Archaeopteryx

d)

Limulus

90.

The study of prehistoric forms of life through fossils is known as?

a)

Palaeontology.

b)

Pomology

c)

Gerontology

d)

Ethology

91.

Which type of fossil forms are filled with sand or mud that hardens into the shape of the organism?

a)

Moulds

b)

Casts

c)

Impressions

d)

Petrified fossils

92.

The origin of new species and genera is ________

a)

Micro evolution

b)

Co evolution

c)

Macro evolution

d)

Parallel evolution

93.

Which is known as “The living laboratory of evolution”?

a)

All of these

b)

Western Ghats

c)

Tropical rain forest

d)

Galapagos islands

94.

Individuals with alleles for an extreme type are more likely to survive and reproduce

a)

Disruptive Selection

b)

Directional Selection

c)

Stabilizing Selection

d)

Diversifying selection

95.

The sudden reduction of a population to just a few individuals is known as

a)

Natural selection

b)

Sexual selection

c)

Bottleneck effect

d)

Gene flow

96.

_________ condition is essential for a population to maintain the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium as constant

a)

Random mating

b)

No mutations

c)

Large population

d)

All of these

97.

Choose the incorrect matching pair given below?

a)

Age of Fishes - Devonian

b)

Age of Reptiles - Mesozoic

c)

Age of Invertebrates - Archaezoic

d)

Age of Man - Coenozoic

98.

The cradle of human evolution _______

a)

Africa

b)

India

c)

North america

d)

South America

99.

The first true ape man placed in the family hominidae have genus?

a)

Australopithecus

b)

Dryopithecus

c)

Ramapithecus

d)

Shivapithecus

100.

Choose the Incorrect or false Assertion.

a)

Fossils are considered as written evidence

b)

Birds are glorified Reptiles

c)

Phylogeny recapitulates Ontogeny

d)

Species is the keystone of evolution

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