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Biology Final Exam Review Game

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many different amino acids are there?

a)

3

b)

20

c)

100

2.

During digestion, proteins are broken down into...

a)

Starches

b)

Simple Sugars

c)

Amino Acids

3.

An organic compound is a compound that contains…

a)

Carbon

b)

Oxygen

c)

Sodium

4.

What identifies the relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration?

a)

Both processes generate energy for cell use

b)

The products of one process are used as reactants by the other process

c)

The reactants both processes are exactly the same

5.

Predict the photosynthetic pathway that might be used by a saguaro cactus.

a)

C4 Pathway

b)

CAM

c)

Nitrogen Fixation

6.

Leaf pores for exchange of gases are called…

a)

Pigments

b)

Stomata

c)

Carotenoids

7.

In what organisms does alcoholic fermentation take place?

a)

Yeast & Some Bacteria

b)

Fruit Flies

c)

Humans

8.

Which class of macromolecules store and communicate genetic information?

a)

Proteins

b)

Lipids

c)

Nucleic Acid

9.

A person experiences digestive discomfort within 2 hours of eating meat,beans,

nuts or eggs. Which of the following organs is most likely the source of this difficulty?

a)

Large Intestine

b)

Small Intestine

c)

Stomach

10.

What results from the removal of a phosphate group from ATP?

a)

The production of AQP

b)

The creation of energy

c)

The release of energy

11.

What is the function of glucose in the body?

a)

It's the building block of proteins

b)

It's a source of fiber

c)

It provides energy for cells

12.

Which element is found in proteins but NOT carbohydrates or lipids?

a)

C

b)

N

c)

H

13.

Which digestive system structure contains the enzyme pepsin?

a)

Small Intestine

b)

Large Intestine

c)

Stomach

14.

Which is the primary function of the gallbladder?

a)

Making Bile

b)

Storing Excess Bile

c)

Producing Insulin

15.

Which is TRUE about enzymes?

a)

After a reaction, they cannot be reused

b)

They can speed up metabolic processes in the body

c)

They cannot change shape

16.

Which is a product of photosynthesis?

a)

Water

b)

Glucose

c)

Carbon Dioxide

17.

The energy acquired in the light-dependent reactions is used in the Calvin Cycle.

These energy-carrying molecules are…

a)

ATP and NADPH

b)

G3P and RuBP

c)

RuBP and CO2

18.

Where does glycolysis occur?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Plasma Membrane

19.

Which describes the process of glycolysis?

a)

Anaerobic process that breaks down glucose

b)

Aerobic process that manufactures glucose

c)

Anaerobic process that manufactures glucose

20.

Which is a structure common to ALL cells?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Nucleus

c)

Plasma Membrane

21.

While viewing a slide of rapidly moving sperm cells, a student concludes that

these cells require a large amount of ATP to maintain their activity. What organelles provide this needed ATP?

a)

Vacuoles

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Mitochondria

22.

Why might a soccer player feel soreness in his or her muscles during a game?

a)

Not enough carbon dioxide

b)

A buildup of lactic acid

c)

Too much oxygen

23.

On a laboratory exam, a student is asked to determine if the cells under a

microscope are plant cells or animal cells. What might the student look for?

a)

Chloroplasts and a Cell Wall

b)

A Nucleus and Ribosomes

c)

Ribosomes and Vacuoles

24.

Which describes the process of cellular respiration?

a)

Anabolic pathway that breaks molecules into energy

b)

Anabolic pathway that builds molecules of stored energy

c)

Catabolic pathway that breaks molecules into energy

25.

Which of these moves substances against a concentration gradient and requires

energy?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Sodium Potassium Pump

c)

Facilitated Diffusion

26.

What organisms perform cellular respiration?

a)

Plants Only

b)

Animals Only

c)

Both Plant and Animals

27.

The process of the plasma membrane pumping sodium out of a cell into a

environment where there is already a higher concentration of sodium is called...

a)

Cotransport

b)

Active Transport

c)

Coupled Transport

28.

Which of these is ONLY in plant cells?

a)

Lysosome

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Central Vacuole

29.

Which of these, best summarizes what Schleiden, Schwann and Virchow

contributed to the cell theory?

a)

All living things have cells and new ones come from spontaneous generations

b)

Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes are made of cells, which reproduce to form new ones

c)

Cells work together to form tissues, which form organs, which form systems and eventually an entire multicellular organism

30.

Which of the following is used in cellular respiration?

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Oxygen

c)

RUBP

31.

A plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution. What will happen to the plant cell?

a)

It will swell, causing an increase in turgor pressure

b)

It will stay the same

c)

It will shrink, causing an increase in turgor pressure

32.

What is a major difference between facilitated diffusion and active transport?

a)

Active transport moves substances from low to high concentration

b)

Active transport uses proteins

c)

Facilitated diffusion moves molecules from low to high concentration

33.

Besides phospholipids, which of these also helps make up the plasma membrane?

a)

Cellulose

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Vesicles

34.

Which organelle produces protein for a cell?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Golgi Apparatus

35.

Which scientist first used the term cell?

a)

Hooke

b)

Schleiden

c)

Virchow

36.

If the structure of DNA were likened to a ladder, what would make up the

“backbone” (sides) of the ladder?

a)

Amino Acids and Sugars

b)

Nucleotide Bases

c)

Sugars and Phosphates

37.

Which defines a codon?

a)

A pair of nucleic acid and sugar

b)

A three-base code

c)

A pair of phosphate and sugar

38.

During which part of the cell cycle does a cell grow and mature?

a)

G1 Stage

b)

S Stage

c)

M Stage

39.

Which scientist discovered the bacteria Streptococcus pneumoniae could undergo

transformation from non-virulent to virulent in infected mice?

a)

Avery

b)

Griffith

c)

Chase

40.

Which is the function of the DNA helicase enzyme in the DNA replication

process?

a)

Coils new DNA strands

b)

Joins DNA and RNA primer

c)

Unwinds the double helix

41.

How is the Cell Cycle controlled?

a)

Checkpoint Proteins

b)

ATP Molecules

c)

Spindle Fibers

42.

During replication, nucleotides are added to the lagging strand in the short

segments called ______________, which are then sealed together into a

continuous strand by DNA Ligase.

a)

Oxaloacetates

b)

Codons

c)

Okazaki Fragments

43.

The synthesis of mRNA from DNA in the nucleus is called…

a)

Replication

b)

Translation

c)

Transcription

44.

A molecule of DNA is made up of...

a)

Nucleotides

b)

ATP

c)

Enzymes

45.

Which is the function of the enzymes DNA polymerase during replication?

a)

Unwinds the replicated DNA Strand

b)

Bonds new nucleotides to parent strand

c)

Winds up the replicated DNA strand

46.

A sample of DNA is shown to contain (15%) Adenine. How much cytosine is in

the sample then?

a)

15%

b)

35%

c)

70%

47.

What holds DNA’s 2 strands of nucleotides together?

a)

Covalent Bonds

b)

Ionic Bonds

c)

Hydrogen Bonds

48.

G1, S, and G2 can be collectively referred to as…

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Interkinesis

c)

Interphase

49.

Who discovered and created the double-helix model of DNA?

a)

Chargaff

b)

Avery

c)

Watson and Crick

50.

Why is mitosis important?

a)

To aid in the removal of diseased cells

b)

For growth and repair of an organism

c)

To provide the cell energy

51.

Which statement describes the number of chromosomes in a newly formed cell

after mitosis?

a)

They are double the number of the parent cell

b)

They are half the number of the parent cell

c)

They are equal to the number of the parent cell

52.

How can cancer cells be described?

a)

Completing abnormal mitosis

b)

Lacking essential nutrients

c)

Dividing out of control

53.

How do prokaryotes reproduce?

a)

Binary Fission

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Apoptosis

54.

How can apoptosis be defined?

a)

Programmed Cell Death

b)

Complete Mitosis

c)

Incomplete Mitosis

55.

What is the purpose of spindle fibers?

a)

To move chromosomes

b)

To initiate various phases of the cell cycle

c)

To split the cytoplasm

56.

Which of these statements BEST describes the difference between a monohybrid

and a dihybrid cross?

a)

In a monohybrid cross two traits are tracked, while in a dihybrid cross one trait is tracked

b)

In a dihybrid cross two traits are tracked, while in a monohybrid cross one trait is tracked

c)

A dihybrid cross involves two different plants, monohybrid involves one plant

57.

Which occurs during cytokinesis?

a)

Cyclin-Dependent Kinases initiated the cell cycle

b)

Cytoplasm Divides

c)

Spindle Apparatus Forms

58.

Telophase is immediately followed by…

a)

Prophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Cytokinesis

59.

Which of these could be an organism’s genotype?

a)

3:1

b)

Bb

c)

25%

60.

Mendel took the pollen from a tall pea plant and pollinated the flower of a short

pea plant. When he did this, he removed the male parts of the flower on the short

plant. Why was it important that he remove the male parts from the flower of the

short plant?

a)

Mendel wanted to prevent self-pollination

b)

The short plant was heterozygous

c)

Mendel wanted to prevent the development of seeds

61.

How is an allele described?

a)

Version or form of a gene

b)

Part of a chromosome

c)

Short segment of DNA

62.

A heterozygous organism is best described as which of these?

a)

Hybrid

b)

Genotype

c)

True-Breeding

63.

Loose uncoiled DNA is called…

a)

Chromosome

b)

Chromatin

c)

Centromere

64.

Which was concluded by Mendel due to his genetic research?

a)

Factors for different traits are inherited together as a matched pair

b)

Polyploidy can be beneficial in agriculture

c)

Factors for different traits are inherited independently of one another

65.

Which of these could be an organism’s phenotype?

a)

3:1

b)

Brown

c)

25%

66.

A dominant genetic disorder will be expressed if an individual has...

a)

One dominant allele

b)

A third copy of a chromosome

c)

Two dominant alleles

67.

The tall allele (T) is dominant to the short allele (t) in Mendel’s pea plants. You

examine a pea plant that exhibits the tall phenotype. What is its genotype?

a)

TT

b)

Tt

c)

A and B

68.

What is the effect of Sickle-Cell Disease?

a)

Blocked Respiratory Pathways

b)

Inefficient Oxygen Transportation

c)

Decreased Neurological Functions

69.

Which of the following is an X-linked recessive disorder?

a)

Cystic Fibrosis

b)

Hemophilia

c)

Galactosemia

70.

Down Syndrome is considered which of the following disorder types?

a)

Trisomy

b)

X-Linked

c)

Autosomal Recessive

71.

What is the genotype of a woman with red-green color blindness?

a)

XcXc

b)

XcX

c)

XY

72.

In mink, brown fur color (M) is dominant to silver-blue (m). If homozygous

brown mink is mated with a silver-blue mink and 8 offspring are produced; how many would be expected to be the recessive silver-blue?

a)

0

b)

3

c)

6

73.

According to Mendel’s Law of Segregation, what takes place during meiosis?

a)

Pairs of alleles cross over on chromosomes, exchanging one for the other

b)

Pairs of alleles separate in meiosis and each gamete receives one allele of a pair

c)

Part of an allele is separated or broken off, from its chromosome

74.

Which disorder results in the formation of thick mucus that clog the lungs and

pancreas?

a)

Tay-Sachs Disease

b)

Cystic Fibrosis

c)

Down Syndrome

75.

Which describes a gene?

a)

Chromosomes Pair

b)

DNA Segment

c)

Haploid Cell

76.

An organism with the genotype DD for a trait is…

a)

Heterozygous Dominant

b)

Homozygous Dominant

c)

Homozygous Recessive

77.

A micrograph of matched pairs of human chromosomes can be used to confirm

the overall condition of homologous chromosomes in an individual. What is this diagnostic tool called?

a)

Karyotype

b)

Polygenic Trait

c)

Pedigree

78.

Which choice below illustrates fertilization that would lead to the development of

a normal human female?

a)

22 pairs of autosomes + XX

b)

23 pairs of autosomes + XO

c)

23 pairs of autosomes + XY

79.

What occurs during the process of meiosis in humans that can lead to a child with

the condition of Down Syndrome?

a)

Production of gametes missing a copy of chromosome #21

b)

Production of gametes with one an extra chromosome #21

c)

Production of gametes with one duplicate sex chromosome

80.

Many traits, such as stem length in plants and skin color and height in humans,

are controlled by two or more genes. What is this called?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Polygenic Inheritance

c)

Epistasis

81.

Nondisjunction is related to several serious human disorders. How does

nondisjunction cause these disorders?

a)

Alters the number of gametes produced

b)

Alters the number of zygotes produced

c)

Alters the chromosome number

82.

A heterozygous man with Blood Type A marries a heterozygous woman with

Blood Type B. The chance that their first child will have Blood Type O is…

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

83.

Which reaction takes place in the thylakoid membranes (1) of the chloroplast?

a)

Cellular Respiration

b)

Krebs Cycle

c)

Light-Dependent Reactions

84.

Which characteristic of the plasma membrane is illustrated in this drawing?

a)

Selective Permeability

b)

Phospholipid Bilayer

c)

Impermeability to Water

85.

An animal cell is placed in a beaker, as indicated in the diagram above. Predict

the direction in which osmosis will occur.

a)

Into the Cell

b)

In and Out of the cell equally

c)

Out of the Cell

86.

The process illustrated above is call…

a)

Translation

b)

Replication

c)

Transciption

87.

In the illustration above, identify the structure labeled (IV).

Hint: Brings amino acids over to the mRNA!

a)

DNA

b)

tRNA

c)

mRNA

88.

What process is shown in the illustration above?

a)

It will have no effect on protein function

b)

Nearly every amino acid in the protein will be changed

c)

Down Syndrome

89.

In the illustration above, what type of mutation has occured?

a)

Lethal

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

90.

When DNA replicates, each of the 2 DNA molecules has one old strand and one new strand. Identify the type of replication is being presented.

a)

Semi-Conservative

b)

Ultra-Conservative

c)

Liberal

91.

Based on the illustration above, what type of mutation has occurred

above?

a)

Substitution

b)

Frameshift

c)

Insertion

92.

In the illustration above, which molecules are represented by A and B?

Hint: Give the answer in order of A then B.

a)

Chromosomes, Proteins

b)

RNA, Chromosomes

c)

Genes, Proteins

93.

The chromosomes shown above are in which state of mitosis?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Telophase

94.

The cell shown here is in early prophase. Which stage will occur AFTER?

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Metaphase

c)

Telophase

95.

A researcher crosses the F1 generation of (2) Snapdragon Plants. According to this information and the diagram above, what is the ratio of their offspring F2?

a)

0 Red, 4 Pink, 0 White

b)

1 Red, 2 Pink, 1 White

c)

4 Red, 0 Pink, 0 White

96.

What pattern of inheritance is being displayed in the question above, where neither allele is dominant, so the heterozygous genotype shows a 3rd blended intermediate phenotype?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Complete Dominance

c)

Codominance

97.

What is the genotype of all the F1 generation pea pods in the cross shown above?

a)

II

b)

Ii

c)

ii

98.

Based on the pedigree above, what do you know about individual IV-2’s mother?

a)

She expresses the trait

b)

She was homozygous recessive

c)

She is a carrier

99.

For the trait being followed in the pedigree above, individuals II-1 and II-4 can be classified as…

a)

Homozygous Dominant

b)

Homozygous Recessive

c)

Carriers