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PBS EOC Review

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 4hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is always done first at a crime scene?

a)

secure it

b)

photograph it

c)

sketch it

d)

collect evidence

2.

Time of death is determined by measuring

a)

rigor mortis

b)

pupil dilation

c)

environmental temperature

d)

core body temperature

3.

When blood hits a surface at 90 degrees it

a)

creates a circular shape

b)

splashes everywhere

c)

creates a tear-drop shape

d)

loses its DNA

4.

A DNA strand that reads ATGGC has a complimentary strand that reads

a)

CGGTA

b)

TACCG

c)

GCCAT

d)

ATGGC

5.

Which lanes represent DNA from the same person?

a)

1 and 2

b)

2 and 3

c)

1 and 4

d)

3 and 4

6.

The outermost layer of hair is called the...

a)

cortex

b)

medulla

c)

cuticle

d)

keratin

7.

This fingerprint is an example of a...

a)

arch

b)

whorl

c)

loop

d)

tented arch

8.

Which blood cell provides a major defense for our bodies against bacteria and viruses?

a)

erythrocyte

b)

leukocyte

c)

thrombocyte

d)

plasma

9.

Which blood cell contains hemoglobin for carrying oxygen?

a)

erythrocyte

b)

leukocyte

c)

thrombocyte

d)

plasma

10.

A physician who performs an autopsy when death may be accidental or violent. He or she may also serve in some jurisdictions as the coroner.

a)

Medical Examiner

b)

Epidemiologist

c)

Entomologist

d)

Forensic Anthropologist

11.

A degradative enzyme that recognizes specific nucleotide sequences and cuts up DNA.

a)

Restriction Enzyme

b)

Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms (RFLPs)

c)

Lipase

d)

DNA Polymerase

12.

The variable that is varied or manipulated by the researcher.

a)

Independent Variable

b)

Dependent Variable

c)

Control Group

d)

Hypothesis

13.

Specialized clothing or equipment, worn by an employee for protection against infectious materials (as defined by OSHA).

a)

PPE (Personal Protective Equipment)

b)

Locked Lab door

c)

Biosafety Level 2

d)

PCA (Personal Care Attire)

14.

The measurable effect, outcome, or response in which the research is interested.

a)

Independent Variable

b)

Dependent Variable

c)

Control Group

d)

Gel Electrophoresis

15.

If adenine makes up 20% of DNA, what percent is guanine?

a)

20%

b)

10%

c)

30%

d)

60%

16.

Which of the following may indicate that a mole is skin cancer?

a)

Moles has uniform border

b)

Mole is a small diameter

c)

Mole has more than one color

d)

Mole is symmetrical in shape

17.

The human body's ability to maintain constant internal conditions is referred to as

a)

homeostasis

b)

hematology

c)

hepatic

d)

differentiation

18.

The pancreas produces _____ when your blood sugar level is high.

a)

Thyroxin

b)

Melatonin

c)

Glucagon

d)

Insulin

19.

What type of antibodies does type B blood produce?

a)

Anti-A antibodies

b)

Anti-B antibodies

c)

Anti-A and Anti-O antibodies

d)

Anti-C antibodies

20.

Describe hematocrit.

a)

the nonliving fluid matrix that makes up 55% of blood

b)

red bone marrow where blood cells are formed

c)

the WBCs in blood, roughly 1% of blood

d)

the erythrocytes (RBCs) in the blood, roughly 45% of blood

21.

Known as "Bad Cholesterol" that clogs arteries and can cause heart disease and stroke.

a)

LDL

b)

Trans-fats

c)

HDL

d)

Triglycerides

22.

During digestion, ________ are broken down into _________ which provides ________ for the cells.

a)

Fats, amino acids, oxygen

b)

Fibers, fatty acids, free radicals

c)

Carbohydrates, glucose, energy

d)

Proteins, sugar, fuel

23.

A change in the sequence of nucleotides due to a substitution, addition or deletion

a)

mutation

b)

translation

c)

transcription

d)

anticodon

24.

Process of a cell division that results in four daughter cells each having 23 chromosomes

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

both mitosis and meiosis

d)

anaphase

25.

Building block of proteins

a)

sugars

b)

amino acids

c)

lipids

d)

carbohydrates

26.

A triplet of bases in tRNA that binds to a complementary codon in mRNA in a ribosome.

a)

codon

b)

anti-codon

c)

amino acid

d)

allele

27.

A 3 nucleotide sequence of DNA that specifies an amino acid; the basic unit of genetic code

a)

codon

b)

anti-codon

c)

amino acid

d)

allele

28.

The synthesis of mRNA from a DNA template

a)

translation

b)

synthesis

c)

replication

d)

transcription

29.

The synthesis of a protein using the genetic information encoded in an mRNA molecule

a)

translation

b)

replication

c)

synthesis

d)

transcription

30.

A condition in which the blood is deficient in red blood cells (by volume)

a)

leukemia

b)

hemophilia

c)

tay sachs

d)

anemia

31.

Disease that destroys RBC's, blocks blood vessels with mis-shaped cells, and lessens the RBC's efficiency at transporting oxygen throughout the body

a)

hemophilia

b)

tay sachs

c)

sickle cell disease

d)

leukemia

32.

Genotype BB is considered

a)

homozygous recessive

b)

heterozygous

c)

homozygous dominant

d)

autosomal

33.

Genotype Bb is considered

a)

homozygous recessive

b)

heterozygous

c)

homozygous dominant

d)

autosomal

34.

Genotype bb is considered

a)

homozygous recessive

b)

heterozygous

c)

homozygous dominant

d)

autosomal

35.

Where does transcription take place?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosome

d)

mitochondria

36.

The phase of mitosis where chromosomes separate at the centromeres and move to opposite sides of cell.

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

37.

People who study disease outbreaks are

a)

epidemiologists.

b)

medical examiners.

c)

entymologists.

d)

forensic anthropologists.

38.

A _________infection is one that patients acquire at a hospital.

a)

pandemic

b)

outbreak

c)

endemic

d)

nosocomial

39.

Organisms that cause infectious disease are called

a)

pathogens.

b)

hosts.

c)

antibodies.

d)

nosocomial.

40.

________ produce antibodies.

a)

T-cells

b)

B-cells

c)

Phagocytes

d)

Antigens

41.

Immunity gained from a vaccine is

a)

nonspecific immunity.

b)

innate immunity.

c)

naturally acquired immunity.

d)

artificially acquired immunity.

42.

West Nile Virus is spread through in intermediate insect that carries the pathogen: mosquitos. This form of disease transmission is an example of:

a)

Direct Contact

b)

Indirect Contact

c)

Droplet Transmission

d)

Vector Transmission

43.

An infected individual pays at the grocery store with infected cash, spreading the pathogen to the cashier. This form of disease transmission is an example of:

a)

Direct Contact

b)

Indirect Contact

c)

Droplet Transmission

d)

Vector Transmission

44.

An infected individual coughs into the air, then an uninfected individual inhales the particles, acquiring the pathogen. This form of disease transmission is an example of:

a)

Direct Contact

b)

Indirect Contact

c)

Droplet Transmission

d)

Vector Transmission

45.

When infectious pathogens enters the body, white blood cells (B-cells), produce THESE molecules to attack or impair the pathogens:

a)

Antigens

b)

Antibodies

c)

Toxins

d)

Vaccines

46.

Where should you apply a tourniquet?

a)

Directly on the wound

b)

2 to 3 inches above the would

c)

Anywhere on the body

d)

None of the above

47.

What does MOI stand for?

a)

Measure of Injury

b)

Mechanism of Instance

c)

Mechanism of Injury

d)

Measure of Instance

48.

Which type of bleed would typically be more urgent to treat?

a)

Venous

b)

Arterial

c)

Capillary

d)

Femoral

49.

A portable electronic device used to "jump start" or regulate the heart

a)

AED

b)

CPR

c)

Hands Only CPR

d)

ESPN

50.
What is the ratio for compressions to breaths?
a)
20 compressions 1 breath
b)
30 compressions 2 breaths
c)
20 compressions 2 breaths
d)
10 compressions 2 breaths
51.
What is the first step in CPR?
a)
Check the Scene
b)
Call 911
c)
Get the AED 
d)
Look, Listen and Feel
52.
Which law protects people who voluntarily give care to an unresponsive person? 
a)
The Volunteer Law 
b)
The Law of the People 
c)
The Good Samaritan Law
d)
The Good Citizen Law 
53.

The purple bacteria in this image are

a)

cocci.

b)

bacilli.

c)

spirilla.

54.

The bacteria in this image are

a)

cocci.

b)

bacilli.

c)

spirilla.

55.

The bacteria in this image are

a)

Gram positive.

b)

Gram negative.

56.

About how long can you keep a tourniquet on before it can cause permanent tissue damage?

a)

20 minutes

b)

2 Hours

c)

12 hours

d)

2-3 days

57.

Antibiotics can be used to treat what type of pathogens?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Viruses

c)

Fungi

d)

Helminths

58.

What is the purpose of PCR?

a)

Makes DNA fast

b)

Makes DNA accurately

c)

Makes large quantities of DNA

d)

Reduces the amount of DNA

59.

Another name for chronic high blood pressure.

a)

Hypertension

b)

Atherosclerosis

c)

Harden Arteries

d)

cardiac arrest

60.

Which valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle?

a)

Mitral

b)

Tricuspid

c)

Aortic

d)

Pulmonary

61.

What valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle?

a)

Mitral/bicuspid

b)

Tricuspid

c)

Aortic

d)

Pulmonary

62.

Which valve is between the left atrium and aorta?

a)

Aortic

b)

Pulmonary

c)

Mitral

d)

Tricuspid

63.

Which valve is located between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery?

a)

Aortic

b)

Pulmonary

c)

Mitral

d)

Tricuspid

64.

The right side of the heart carries which type of blood?

a)

Deoxygenated

b)

Oxygenated

65.

The left side of the heart carries which type of blood?

a)

Deoxygenated

b)

Oxygenated

66.

Which blood vessel takes blood away from the lungs back to the heart?

a)

Pulmonary vein

b)

Aorta

c)

Coronary artery

d)

Superior vena cava

67.

Blood pressure that remains between heart contractions

a)

Diastolic pressure

b)

Systolic Pressure

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hypotension

68.

What process is used to analyze and compare DNA?

a)

Micropipetting

b)

Transcription

c)

Gel Electrophoresis

d)

Protein Synthesis

69.

The pacemaker of the heart is the

a)

SA node

b)

AV node

c)

SV node

d)

All of them

70.

If a red blood cell has no antigens on its surface, what is its blood type?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

71.

Which blood type is the Universal Donor?

a)

AB-

b)

O+

c)

AB+

d)

O-

72.

Which blood type is the universal receipient?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

73.

What type of blood is shown here?

a)

A positive

b)

A negative

c)

B positive

d)

B negative

74.
The cooling of body temperature after death is:
a)
algor mortis
b)
livor mortis
c)
rigor mortis
d)
pallor mortis
75.
The discoloration of a dead body caused by blood cells leaking hemoglobin is:
a)
putrefaction
b)
lividity
c)
autolysis
d)
sepsis
76.
The hamstrings are anterior or posterior?
a)
anterior
b)
posterior
77.
The bicep is anterior or posterior?
a)
anterior
b)
posterior
78.
What are the main parts of the Central Nervous System?
a)
Brain & Chest
b)
Spinal Cord & Spinal Nerves
c)
Brain & Spinal Cord
d)
Heart & Brain
79.
What are the two main parts of the Peripheral Nervous System?
a)
Spinal Nerves & Receptors
b)
Arms & Legs
c)
Brain & Spinal Cord
d)
Optic Nerves & Receptors
80.

Identify the lobe of the brain highlighted.

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Occipital lobe

d)

Temporal lobe

81.

Identify the lobe of the brain highlighted.

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Occipital lobe

d)

Temporal lobe

82.

Identify the area of the brain highlighted.

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Cerebrum

83.

Identify the area of the brain highlighted.

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Brain stem

d)

Temporal lobe

84.

Responsible for integrating sensory information, including touch, temperature, pressure and pain.

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Occipital lobe

d)

Temporal lobe

85.

Which part of our brain do we rely on for problem solving?

a)

Parietal

b)

Temporal

c)

Occipital

d)

Frontal

86.

Which part of the brain allows us to recall or remember information?

a)

Frontal

b)

Parietal

c)

Temporal

d)

Occipital

87.

Damage to the brain at the ____ lobe may cause visual problems.

a)

Parietal

b)

Frontal

c)

Temporal

d)

Occipital

88.

What is insect succession?

a)

The sequence in which an egg becomes an adult fly.

b)

A sequence of changing species that inhabit a decomposing body.

c)

The depositing of eggs.

d)

When the alpha fly is overthrown by his son.

89.

Toxicology is the study of what?

a)

Disease

b)

poisons

c)

parasites

d)

death

90.

What is histology?

a)

Study of poisons

b)

Study of body tissues

c)

Study of histamines

d)

Study of blood

91.

Letter D is pointing to

a)

Aorta

b)

Right Pulmonary Artery

c)

Superior Vena Cava

d)

Pulmonary Trunk

92.

Which letter is pointing to the Apex?

a)

H

b)

I

c)

E

d)

B

93.

Which of the following carries blood TO the lungs?

a)

pulmonary veins

b)

pulmonary arteries

c)

aorta

d)

superior vena cava

94.

What does PHI stand for regarding HIPAA?

a)

Protected Health Information

b)

Personal Health Information

c)

Public Heath Institute

d)

Permanent Health Insurance

95.

Every agency must do all of the following for HIPAA, EXCEPT:

a)

appoint a privacy officer

b)

provide education on HIPAA and organizational policies and procedures

c)

develop a process for handling privacy related complaints

d)

terminating the employment of violators

96.

What is the reaction between antigens and antibodies that allow you to determine blood type?

a)

clotting

b)

agglutination

c)

aggregation

d)

antibody production

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